海南省某校2024-2025学年高三下学期第八次月考英语试题

1 2025届高三年级第 8次月考英语试题 (考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分) 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需 改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写 在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分 30分) 第一节 (共 5小题；每小题 1. 5分，满分 7. 5分) 听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳 选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅 读一遍。 例： How much is the shirt? A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 1. What does the woman like about her new computer? A. Its big screen. B. Its starting up speed. C. Its processing ability. 2. What is the weather probably like today? A. Windy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy. 3. How does the woman sound? A. Relieved. B. Amused. C. Upset. 4. Where did the woman’s new English teacher attend university? A. In South Korea. B. In Ireland. C. In Britain. 5. What is the main topic of the conversation? A. A friendship problem. B. A clothing issue. C. Amoney trouble. 第二节 (共 15小题；每小题 1. 5分，满分 22. 5分) 听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选 项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完 后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6段材料，回答第 6、7题。 6. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. On the Internet. C. In a school. 7. What does Todd suggest? A. Getting ideas from more members. B. Looking for effective messaging software. C. Scheduling time to talk directly every day. 听第 7段材料，回答第 8、9题。 8. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Parent and child. B. Teacher and student. C. Grandparent and grandchild. 9. Why should the girl learn calligraphy in the man’s opinion? A. To develop her personality. B. To maintain the cultural tradition. C. To help her write characters beautifully. 2 听第 8段材料，回答第 10至 13题。 10. How does the man seem to feel? A. Pleased. B. Bored. C. Confused. 11. What have the speakers probably just done? A. They’ve collected cards. B. They’ve fed some animals. C. They’ve watched a cartoon. 12. What animal is a “pika” most closely related to? A. Mice. B. Rabbits. C. Squirrels. 13. What nationality is the woman probably? A. Canadian. B. British. C. Japanese. 听第 9段材料，回答第 14至 17题。 14. How tall is Lisa Leslie? A. 196 cm. B. 175 cm. C. 155 cm. 15. What advantage do shorter figure skaters have according to the woman? A. They’re more energetic. B. They’re less likely to fall. C. They’re able to jump higher. 16. Which sport is the “overweight” athlete probably famous for? A. Long-distance running. B. Weightlifting. C. Wrestling. 17. What does the woman learn from the photo? A. To start exercising more. B. To focus more on the inside than the outside. C. To better appreciate her own body’s abilities. 听第 10段材料，回答第 18至 20题。 18. Which city library did Mychal work in? A. Fairfield. B. San Jose. C. Phoenix. 19. Why did Mychal stop working at the library? A. He got a better job working for PBS. B. He wanted to go back to university. C. He struggled with the impact of fame. 20. What is the purpose of the speaker’s talk? A. To present a guest. B. To introduce a library. C. To promote a reading activity. 第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分 50分) 第一节 (共 15小题；每小题 2. 5分，满分 37. 5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡 上将该选项涂黑。 3 A The World’s Most Translated Books Books have the special power to connect people across different languages and cultures. Here are four of the world’s most translated books that have been loved by readers everywhere. Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland Written in 1865 by Lewis Carroll, this English classic follows Alice as she falls into a magical world. She meets strange characters, changes size, and attends a mad tea party. Unlike other children’s books of its time, it focused on fun rather than teaching lessons. Translated into 97 languages, it ranks 12th most translated. Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea Jules Verne’s 1870 science fiction masterpiece takes readers underwater with Professor Aronnax. They discover that the mysterious “sea monster” is actually a submarine called Nautilus. Famous for its exciting underwater scenes and interesting characters, this adventure has been translated into 174 languages, placing it 6th. The Adventures of Pinocchio Carlo Collodi’s 1883 Italian tale tells of a wooden puppet who wants to be a real boy. His nose grows when he lies, teaching children about honesty. With 260 translations, it’s the 3rd most translated book. The Little Prince Antoine de Saint-Exupéry’s 1943 French story follows a prince visiting different planets. This beautiful tale about friendship and life’s meaning has about 300 translations, making it 2nd most translated. These books show how wonderful stories can travel beyond borders. Their translations help share magic with children and adults worldwide, teaching important lessons about life, honesty and imagination. 21. What distinguishes Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland from typical children’s literature of its time? A. Its historical accuracy. B. Its use of scientific concepts. C. Its focus on moral instruction. D. Its emphasis on pure entertainment. 22. Which two books were originally written in non-English languages and have been translated into more than 200 languages? A. Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland and Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea. B. Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea and The Adventures of Pinocchio. C. The Adventures of Pinocchio and The Little Prince. D. The Little Prince and Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland. 23. What is the author’s primary purpose in writing this passage? A. To analyze the literary techniques used in classic children's literature. B. To highlight the international appeal of certain culturally significant books. C. To argue for the importance of translating children’s books. D. To compare the popularity of different genres across cultures. 4 B Ahmed’s hands trembled as he pointed out the rusty metal piece to the clearance worker. “My wheat field... we found five of these last week,” he murmured, watching the expert carefully plant a red flag. Fourteen years of war had turned his family’s land into a nightmare, where playing children might step on hidden death. Memories flashed: his cousin’s empty sleeve, the burnt olive tree marking where a bomb once slept. Now, foreign aid workers in heavy suits combed his field daily. Their leader Karim, face filled with sweat, showed Ahmed the metal detector’s screen. “See this signal? Could be a bullet or an unexploded bomb. That’s why we move slowly.” Yesterday’s tragedy haunted him. Neighbor Yusuf, desperate to plant potatoes, had touched a suspicious object with a stick. The explosion’s echo still rang in Ahmed’s ears. “We know the danger,” he told Karim, “but empty stomachs drown warnings.” His children’s laughter drew his gaze. Nearby, workers had transformed a cleared area into a schoolyard. Little Leila waved, proudly reciting the new rhyme: “Metal pieces bring harm, tell adults on the farm!” Her brother chased butterflies where detection flags once stood. Amina, a woman from the HALO Trust, an international charity to clear landmines, joined him. Her tools brushed soil gently, like tending a newborn. “Lost my leg here in 2018,” she said, “Now I clear paths so others won’t stumble.” Her team had turned twelve death-filled areas into playgrounds this year. As sunset painted cleared fields golden, Ahmed knelt, pressing his palm to earth that might finally grow crops instead of grief. Somewhere, a worker’s radio played an old folk song. For the first time in years, its melody sounded like hope. 24. What tool do the clearance workers use to detect hidden explosives in Ahmed’s field? A. Metal detectors and red flags. B. Protective suits and shovels. C. Drones and GPS mapping. D. Trained dogs and cameras. 25. Why do villagers like Yusuf risk entering uncleared fields despite the danger? A. They believe the fields are already safe. B. They need to grow food to survive. C. They want to assist the clearance efforts. D. They enjoy challenging dangerous tasks. 26. What safety lesson do Ahmed’s children learn from the workers? A. Historical facts about the war. B. How to remove bombs carefully. C. Techniques for marking danger zones. D. A rhyme about reporting dangerous objects. 27. What is the main message conveyed through Ahmed’s story? A. War permanently destroys all hope for recovery. B. Foreign aid alone can solve postwar problems. C. International help and locals’ enduring hope can heal war’s wounds D. Advanced technology is essential for clearing explosives. 5 C Every spring, a remarkable natural event unfolds in Sweden. Dozens of moose swim across the Ångerman River, continuing their ancient migration route toward summer feeding grounds. What makes this year special is that over 9 million people worldwide are watching this spectacle live from their homes. The 24-hour livestream, called “The Great Moose Migration,” first aired in 2019 with nearly one million viewers. This year, warm weather caused an early start on April 15, with broadcasts continuing until May 4. The program has become a surprise hit for Sweden’s national broadcaster SVT, despite its seemingly uneventful nature. What makes this slow TV so attractive? Project manager Johan Erhag explains: “The peaceful nature of the broadcast helps reduce stress, both for viewers and our crew.” With twenty-six remote cameras, seven night-vision cameras, and occasional drone footage, the team is always ready when the shy animals appear. Moose, Sweden’s largest land animals, can weigh up to 450kg and stand 210cm tall. Yet these solitary creatures are rarely seen in the wild. “Most Swedes might spot a moose just once or twice in their lifetime while driving,” says Erhag, “which explains the program’s popularity.” The broadcast creates unexpected moments of excitement. After hours showing empty forests, the sudden appearance of a moose triggers a notification on SVT’s app: “First moose on camera!” Viewers worldwide flood the live chat with encouragement as the animal begins its river crossing. This unique program combines wildlife observation with the relaxing qualities of slow TV, offering a window into Sweden’s natural wonders while creating a shared global experience. 28. What caused the 2024 moose migration livestream to start earlier than planned? A. Increased viewer demand. B. Technical improvements in equipment. C. Warm weather and early moose movement. D. Changes in the moose’s traditional route. 29. How do the broadcast crew manage to capture the moose migration effectively? A. By setting up all filming equipment in advance. B. By following the moose with handheld cameras. C. By setting up cameras along random river locations. D. By relying mainly on drone footage. 30. What does Johan Erhag imply about why the moose livestream has become so popular? A. People enjoy watching the technical aspects of live broadcasting. B. The rarity of seeing moose in the wild adds to its appeal. C. Viewers are primarily interested in Sweden’s geography. D. The program’s educational content attracts families. 31. What is the main purpose of the article? A. To criticize modern society’s fascination with slow TV. B. To explain the biological patterns of moose migration. C. To report on an unusual nature broadcast’s global success. D. To promote tourism to Sweden’s natural landscapes. 6 D While concerns about “digital dementia”—the potential for technology to harm memory and thinking skills—have grown, new research suggests smartphones and computers might actually help protect older adults’ cognitive health, the ability to think clearly, learn effectively, remember information and make decisions, all of which are essential for maintaining independence and overall mental well-being. A comprehensive review of 57 studies involving over 411,000 adults, whose average age was sixty-eight, revealed surprising findings. Older individuals who regularly used digital devices showed a 42% lower risk of cognitive decline compared to non-users. The research examined various technologies including smartphones, computers, social media, and email. Scientists propose several explanations for this protective effect. First, technology use, like texting, browsing, video calls, activates multiple brain regions, strengthening neural connections as crossword puzzles do. Second, digital tools help maintain social connections, fighting loneliness known to negatively impact cognitive health. “Technology engagement appears to offer both mental exercise and social benefits,” noted Dr. Helen Zhou, the study’s lead author.. However, the study didn’t analyze specific usage patterns or duration. Additionally, since participants adopted technology later in life, results may differ for lifelong users. “Further comprehensive studies are required to establish the most effective ways of using digital tools for preserving cognitive function,” scientists cautioned. With approximately 10 million new dementia cases annually worldwide according to data from WHO, these findings open promising avenues for prevention. In Japan, retirement homes using tablet-based memory games report 30% slower cognitive decline. While not definitive, they challenge assumptions about technology’s universal harm to aging minds and highlight its potential as a tool for maintaining cognitive vitality in older populations. 32. According to the researchers’ explanations, what factor contribute to the observed cognitive benefits? A. Improved dietary habits. B. Enhanced social connectivity. C. Increased physical activity. D. Better sleep quality. 33. Based on the present study, which group is LEAST likely to benefit from the study’s findings? A. Adults who have used digital devices since childhood. B. Seniors who started using smartphones after retirement. C. Elderly people fighting loneliness through video calls. D. Individuals practicing crossword puzzles alongside tech use. 34. What does the underlined word “avenues” refer to? A. physical pathways. B. research methods. C. potential approaches. D. technological devices. 35. Which is the best title for the passage? A. Digital Dangers for Aging Brains B. Japan’s Success in Battling Cognitive Decline C. Global Fight Against Cognitive Decline D. Tech’s Surprising Role in Protecting Seniors’ Minds 7 第二节 (共 5小题；每小题 2. 5分，满分 12. 5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余 选项。 Abundance isn’t about having everything. 36 . Here’s how to develop a sense of abundance. Define your version (版本) of abundance. Everyone’s idea of abundance is different. Some find satisfaction in enjoying hobbies or nature in their free time. Others find purpose in serving their community. If you don’t define your own version of success, you might end up following someone else’s dream and feeling unsatisfied. 37 . Appreciate what you already have. Constantly pursuing more can leave you feeling like you never have enough. Switching to an abundant mind involves recognizing and appreciating the good in your life right now. 38 For example, you can write in a journal about your blessings or express gratitude to others. Find lessons from disappointments. Setting high standards can lead to disappointment when you fall short. 39 , with each one presenting an opportunity for learning. The most valuable achievements take time and effort. Instead of viewing challenges as roadblocks, see them as stepping stones to growth. Remember, growth is not always easy, but it’s always worth it. 40 Abundance is about appreciating the present and finding happiness in small moments. It’s not about getting everything you want. Take time to enjoy simple pleasures, like a warm cup of coffee or a hug from a friend. By experiencing these little things, you’ll find the magic in everyday life and truly live abundantly. A. Find joy in the little things B. Keep working towards your dreams C. However, challenges are an unavoidable aspect of life D. Simple daily practices can help change your state of mind E. We need to take a step back and reflect on what truly matters F. When you start seeing your glass as half full, the world becomes a source of endless joy and blessings G. Take time to reflect on what abundance means to you and recognize that you may already have more than you think 8 第三部分 语言知识运用 (共两节，满分 30分) 第一节 完形填空 (共 15小题；每题 1分，满分 15分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、 C和 D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处 的最佳选项。 My grandparents shared a common love for gardening. “It is 41 to grow our own food,” my grandmother says, recalling the difficult times they went through. My grandpa’s 42 for gardening started when he received seeds from his father. Gardening was something they could do together, so my great-grandfather used this opportunity to 43 with his child. For my father, however, gardening was boring when he was young. He remembers 44 pulling weeds and watering plants. Though he didn’t quite 45 the tradition and disliked it, he 46 it when my sisters and I were young. He wanted us to understand where food comes from and 47 the satisfaction of growing it ourselves. Our garden became a space for 48 and connection and my dad found the 49 between showing us the hard work and not making it a burden. My sister 50 this activity wholeheartedly. She loves to cook with the vegetables she grows. “There is valuable knowledge,” she says. “It’s also 51 .” While my family members had different 52 for gardening, all of us received a heritage of labor, patience, and connection. Each generation has made a 53 to this tradition, guaranteeing the continuation of its values. As I reflect on it, I realize how deeply it has 54 us. Whether through purposeful teaching or unnoticed influence, gardening has left an unforgettable mark on my family, one I hope to 55 . 41. A. cheaper B. healthier C. simpler D. smarter 42. A. talent B. credit C. passion D. ambition 43. A. compare B. bond C. sympathize D. debate 44. A. unexpectedly B. constantly C. unwillingly D. effortfully 45. A. challenge B. establish C. know D. follow 46. A. reassured B. reconsidered C. reinvested D. regained 47. A. taste B. provide C. express D. spread 48. A. reflecting B. learning C. innovating D. wandering 49. A. difference B. relationship C. balance D. conflict 50. A. welcomes B. organizes C. defends D. assists 51. A. informative B. advisable C. pleasant D. essential 52. A. requests B. opportunities C. plans D. reasons 53. A. change B. contribution C. submission D. reference 54. A. sponsored B. inspired C. touched D. shaped 55. A. pass down B. search for C. figure out D. build on 9 第二节 语法填空 (共 10小题；每小题 1. 5分，满分 15分) 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容 (1个单词) 或用括号内单词的正确形式 (至多三 个单词) 。 Foreigners have been more aware that traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) has scientific basis and the global growing interest in turning to TCM 56 (solve) wellness problems is helping shed its “mystical” label and earn it trust 57 an effective medical practice. The latest striking example of this shift 58 (happen) when US influencer IShowSpeed streamed his recent experience with acupuncture (针灸 ) and bone setting in Chengdu, Southwest China’s Sichuan Province. The YouTube sensation, who boasts over 37 million 59 (follower) on the platform, streamed his trip to Chengdu on Monday, following three other trips across China. During the livestream, IShowSpeed visited a local traditional Chinese medicine store, 60 he explored various practices such as pulse diagnosis, bone setting, and acupuncture. 61 (initial) worried about the pain from the acupuncture needles, the influencer expressed his fear at first. However, after some 62 (persuade), he decided to experience the treatment 63 was so pleasantly surprised to find that his headache had disappeared. The livestream video has been viewed more than 7.6 million times as of Tuesday and has gone viral on social media platforms within China and abroad. For these viewers, this live broadcast served as an entry point into the world of TCM, 64 (highlight) its practical effectiveness. For many foreigners, TCM is used to be perceived as an exotic (外来的) and mysterious practice 65 (root) in cultural tradition rather than science. 第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分 40分) 第一节 应用文写作 (满分 15分) 假定你是李华，“5.25心理关爱周” (Mental Wellness Week) 即将到来，你校英文报正全校 学生征集活动建议。请你给编辑写一封邮件。内容包括： 1. 存在的心理现象； 2. 活动内容的建议。 注意： 1. 写作词数应为 80左右； 2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear Editor, Yours Li Hua 10 第二节 读后续写(满分 25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一个完整的短文。 Recently I graduated from high school. The afternoon sun warmed my graduation cap as I stared at the mountain of flowers crowding my room—bunches of flowers from family and friends, forty to be exact! Roses, daisies, and lilies spilled across every surface, their sweet scent overwhelming. “How will I ever...” My thought was interrupted by sudden giggles. Six-year-old Sue and seven-year-old Mike exploded into the room, eyes widening at the floral jungle. “Auntie, are you opening a flower shop?” Mike asked, poking a sunflower taller than himself. Sue pressed her nose into a pink rose, sneezing dramatically. An idea bloomed. “Let’s give these to strangers!” I announced. The kids froze mid-giggle. “Why?” Sue frowned. “To grow smiles,” I explained, showing them blank cards. “We’ll write nice notes!” Cheerful creativity followed. Mike’s cards read “SMILE!!!” in colourful capitals, while Sue drew rainbow hearts. We tied them to the flowers’ stems with ribbons. Our first target stood at the park entrance—Officer Martinez, who was directing traffic, Sue dashed forward. “Flower for you!” she shouted, stretching her tiny arm upward. The officer’s stern face melted into a sunrise smile. “Made my day, kiddo,” he said, pinning the daisy to his uniform. Next, we approached Mr. Thompson, our grumpy bus driver. “Flower for making our rides safe!” Mike declared. The man’s coffee-stained mustache twitched. “Kids these days...” he muttered, placing the lily carefully beside his timetable. By noon, our basket neared empty. Thirty-eight flowers had found homes—a tired bus driver, a lonely bench-sitter, a laughing child and so on. It was lunch time and we went to Subway for lunch. There the kids gave a flower to the waitress, a girl with blue-streaked hair, held her breath when Sue offered the flower. “For me? Nobody’s ever gave me a flower!” Her voice cracked as she tucked it behind her ear. As we were eating our lunch, the waitress came up to the kids with two big chocolate cookies! “For the flower angles,” she grinned. The kids’ eyes lit brighter than their cookie sprinkles. As they ate the cookies, “Best cookies ever!” Sue and Mike exclaimed with the biggest smiles I had ever seen. 注意：1. 续写词数应为 150左右; 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Paragraph 1: With just one flower left, I said it should be given to the person who needed it most. Paragraph 2: It turned out to be a great day for us. 2025届高三年级四校联考英语试题 高三年级第8次月考英语试题答案 (考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分) 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分) 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. A 第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分) 21—23 DCB 24—27 ABDC 28—31 CABC 32—35 BACD 36—40 FGDCA 第三部分 语言知识运用 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 完形填空 (共15小题；每题1分，满分15分) 41—45 ACBCD 46—50 BABCA 51—55 CDBDA 第二节 语法填空 (共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分) 56. to solve 57. as 58. happened 59. followers 60. where 61. Initially 62. persuasion 63. and 64. highlighting 65. rooted 1 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$