2025年浙江省杭州市上城区中考一模英语试题

2024学年第二学期九年级学情调查 英语试卷 考生须知： 1．本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2．答题前，在答题纸规定位置上写姓名和准考证号，并在试卷首页的指定位置写上姓名和座位号。 3．必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其它地方无效。 4．做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。 5．考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。 第一部分 听力理解(共三节，满分20分) 第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分) 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．How often does Joan have breakfast? A．Hardly ever. B．Sometimes. C．Every day. 2．When will the speakers probably watch the movie? A．On Saturday afternoon. B．On Sunday afternoon. C．On Sunday evening. 3．How long does it take the speakers to get to the library? A．About 5 minutes. B．About 15 minutes. C．About 50 minutes. 4．What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers? A．Doctor and patient. B．Waiter and customer. C．Classmates. 5．How does Mike like online classes? A．Tiring. B．Interesting. C．Boring. 第二节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6．Why is silk special? A．It’s light and cheap. B．It’s soft and lasts long. C．It’s environmentally friendly. 7．What might the speakers do in the workshop? A．Help sell umbrellas. B．Choose a gift. C．Paint on silk. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8．What do the speakers need to make the poster? A．Old magazines and bottles. B．Scissors and glass. C．Newspapers and boxes. 9．Where will they meet after school tomorrow? A．In the classroom. B．In the lab. C．In the library. 10．Who will draw the mind map for the science project? A．Jenny. B．Mr. Wang. C．Tony. 第三节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。 听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。 11．What is the name of the new app? A．Familynet. B．Kidtrack. C．Familylink. 12．What can parents do with the new app? A．They can talk to their children. B．They can learn how to use maps. C．They can find their children easily. 13．How many children does the speaker have? A．Two. B．Three. C．Five. 14．Where is the speaker’s son according to the app? A．At the park. B．Opposite the library. C．By the school bus. 15．How does the app let a parent know when a child is close to home? A．By making a noise. B．By giving a call. C．By sending a message. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) 第一节阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Fun dishes for kids! How were they made? HOME ABOUT POSTS CONTACT By: LittleLolz on 08/04 5:07PM #1 This sandwich wasn’t made from bread! It was made from two cookies and some ice cream. First, I got ice cream and cut it into four pieces. Then I put each piece of ice cream onto a big cookie. Finally, I put another cookie on top. It was so delicious! (If you REALLY love sugar, heat some chocolate and pour it onto your sandwich! ) By CookEggcelleric on 09/04 7:54PM #2 Well, everyone knows how to fry (煎) an egg. You just break it and put it into a hot frying pan with some oil. This egg was fried like all others. But I used one little trick. Before I put the egg in the pan, I added a large onion ring to the frying pan. Next, I put the egg into the onion ring to cook. That’s how the egg was cooked in a circle. The last thing I did was to make sure the egg looked happy! By: PoccoFruit on 11/04 6:05PM #3 Don’t worry, these aren’t real caterpillars (毛毛虫)! They’re perfect if you like healthy snacks. To make a caterpillar, first, put six grapes on a stick and add eyes. Then, put them in the fridge. I waited for about an hour and the interesting caterpillars were ready! I took them to a picnic and my friends loved them. In fact, the caterpillars were so popular that they were finished before I tried one! 1. What trick did CookEggcellent use? A. Adding chocolate on top. B. Cooking the egg in an onion ring. C. Using special cooking oil. D. Putting ice cream on the cookies. 2. Why did the caterpillars become so popular at the picnic? A. They were made of real caterpillars. B. They were very easy to make. C They were healthy and looked interesting. D. They were made by a famous cook. 3. Who may most probably get interested in these posts? A. Kids who love making fun food. B. Women who want to lose weight. C. Teachers who like new challenges. D. Parents who like traditional food. B Mary Seacole was a British nurse who showed great courage and kindness during the war. She became famous at her time, and her story is truly inspiring. Mary was born in Jamaica (牙买加) to a British soldier father and a Jamaican mother who ran a boarding house. Her mother was also a traditional healer(治疗师), and because of that, Mary took an interest in nursing and learned a lot about medicine and nursing from her. After Mary’s husband died in 1844, she used her nursing skills to help people during a cholera (霍乱) outbreak. When the Crimean War broke out in 1853, Mary wanted to help. She went to London to join Florence Nightingale’s nursing team, but was refused. Instead of giving up, Mary went to the Crimea and opened the British Hotel in 1855. It was a place where soldiers could rest and find comfort. Mary also made the way to send food and medicine to the front lines, helping wounded soldiers from both sides. She was known as a brave and kind woman who cared deeply for others. However, Mary spent all her money helping soldiers and became very poor when she returned to London in 1856. The newspapers and the British Army heard about her story and raised money to help her. In 1857, Mary’s book Wonderful Adventures of Mrs. Seacole in Many Lands came out, which became very popular. With the raised money, Mary was able to have a comfortable life in London until she passed away in 1881. Mary Seacole’s story shows how one person can make a big difference through kindness and courage. She is remembered as a hero who cared for others in difficult times. 4. Who made Mary Seacole interested in nursing? A. Her mother. B. Her father. C. Her doctor. D. Her husband. 5. Which is the right order of the following events? a. Mary lost her husband. b. Mary’s book came out. c. The Crimean War broke out. d. Mary opened the British Hotel. A. a-d-c-b B. c-b-d-a C. a-c-d-b D. c-d-a-b 6. What can we learn from Paragraph 4? A. Mary had a poor life at last. B. London was Mary’s favourite city. C. Mary made a lot of money from the hotel. D. Mary’s book was warmly welcomed. 7. What is the main purpose of the text? A. To introduce Mary’s family traditions. B. To describe Mary’s unusual life and work. C. To show Mary’s influence on business. D. To explain Mary’s popularity among women. C With more and more technologies in our everyday lives, multitasking, which means dealing with different tasks at a time, has become common. Doing more tasks should mean that we get more done. But is it real? Take this example from a typical day at my job. Last week, during a meeting, I was told to send an email to someone. A minute later, I found that I had sent it to another person by mistake. When I could finally focus on the meeting, I realized someone was asking me a question, but I couldn’t answer it. How embarrassing! Sound familiar? Don’t worry— you’re not alone. Research shows that when we multitask, we are actually playing a trick on ourselves. We think we’re doing more, but actually we’re not. In fact, multitasking can lead to a 40% drop in achievement. So how to change the situation? First, avoid interruptions (干扰). For example, when you are working, you should stop thinking about checking your emails and make sure to turn off your phone. Second, set an exact deadline (截止时间) to remind yourself to finish a task in a short time. If you have to give a speech in 30 minutes, you should pay all attention to it! Dealing with one task at a time will also cut down your stress. Remember, less is more. We don’t have to accept multitasking as a way of life. If we make up our mind to avoid interruptions and concentrate on one job at a time, we can really achieve more. 8. How does the writer lead into the topic? A. By listing numbers. B. By using an example. C. By explaining reasons. D. By giving suggestions. 9. What can we know about multitasking from Paragraph 2? A. Multitasking means playing a trick on others. B. Multitasking may help us to do our job better. C. Multitasking is only common among teenagers. D. Multitasking can actually result in achieving less. 10. What advice does the writer give in Paragraph 3? A. Deal with many tasks at a time. B. Look at your phone as often as possible. C. Set a deadline to remind yourself. D. Check your email box from time to time. 11. What does the underlined phrase “concentrate on” in the last paragraph probably mean? A. get tired of B. give all attention to C. have no interest in D. correct mistakes in D It’s normal to see ten beautiful women taking part in a beauty pageant (选美比赛). Some smile naturally and some play to the camera. Their beauty forever freezes at this moment. Like many other pageants around the world, these women are young, thin and match many standards of traditional “beauty”. But none of these women are real—everything about them, even the expressions on their faces, is created by AI. This is the world’s first ever AI beauty pageant. Each woman has a famous AI company behind them, such as OpenAI and Stable Diffusion. Each of the competitors has an unusual face and personality, which makes them different from others. One red-haired, green-eyed avatar (虚拟人) named Seren Ay poses photos on the Internet as she travels around the world, appearing on Miami beaches and streets of Tokyo, and she has received many “likes” from millions of fans. But unlike real humans, these avatars never look old. They don’t need to be paid and can be directly owned by a company for the purpose of making money. The pageant organizers say the competitors will be judged by more than just beauty. They will also get points for their creators’ use of AI tools, and also their social media (社交媒体) influence. They even have to answer questions like “If you could have one dream to make the world a better place, what would it be?” Fawcett, one of the organizers, says they are looking for someone powerful and positive. They are not just judging beauty, but also the technology behind each avatar... And most importantly, the backstory behind them. “This shows the directions of future AI technology.” Fawcett adds. 12. According to the text, what is special about the competitors in the beauty pageant? A. They are young, thin and beautiful. B. They are all created by famous AI companies. C. They like playing to the camera and taking photos. D. They go to the competition to raise money for the poor. 13. What is true about Seren Ay? A. She has millions of fans around the world. B. She’s a red-haired and brown-eyed woman. C. She often puts photos of her family on the Internet. D. She needs to be paid by a company to be its model. 14. From Fawcett’s words, which could be the most important when they judge the competitors? A. The competitors’ beautiful faces. B. The use of modern AI tools. C. The number of social media fans. D. The stories behind the competitors. 15. What can be the best title of the text? A. Traditional Beauty Pageants B. Help from AI to Create Perfect Women C. The World’s First AI Beauty Pageant D. The Influence of Social Media in Pageant 第二节任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分) 阅读下面材料，从所给出的A—E五个选项中选出正确选项（其中一项是多余选项）。 Anyone can make a difference in their community, even teenagers! Think about what is important to you. Do you care about environment or public service? Here are some ways to create changes for your community. Use different ways to show your ideas. Write a colorful poster. ____16____ Clear messages can encourage people to take action. It’s also a great idea to use the Internet. Create short videos and put them on Tik Tok or Xiaohongshu to explain your ideas. Organize a group to take action together. ____17____ Big changes often begin with small groups. For example, you can form a weekend clean-up team to pick up litter in the neighborhood. ____18____ Charities (慈善机构) take donations (捐赠). But donations don’t always require money. You can give away some old books, second-hand clothes or sports things. Ask your teachers or parents to connect you with charities, and they’ll tell you what they need exactly. Reach out to community leaders to make your voice heard. Write a polite email to them. If you get a chance, attend community meetings and prepare a speech about your ideas. Tell them one thing that matters to you and what your suggestions are. ____19____ A. Your speech might inspire them to make a change. B. Spend free time planting trees in the neighborhood by yourself. C. Give away something to make your community a better place. D. Put the poster in your yard or on a window for everyone to see. E. Invite some of your friends or neighbors to join you. 16. __________ 17. __________ 18. __________ 19. __________ 20. What do you want to do for your community? Why? (不超过20词) __________________________________________________________________ 第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分40分) 第一节完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) “Where is that strange sound from?” Manda asked her seven-year-old daughter Yuri. She noticed Yuri’s running shoes were worn out (磨破). Water on the road leaked into (渗入) Yuri’s shoes, making the noise. ____21____ Manda had little money, she decided to buy Yuri shoes. But when they got to the shoe store, Yuri looked for shoes in the area only for ____22____. “How about these?” Yuri asked, “Mama, I want this pair of shoes. My classmate David always wants such shoes.” Manda frowned (皱眉). She knew she couldn’t ____23____ two pairs of shoes. She also wondered ____24____ Yuri was interested in getting David shoes. “David’s family is poorer than ours. His shoes are worn out and everyone ____25____ him.” Yuri explained, “Can we buy this pair for him? You can buy ____26____ later.” Thinking for a while Manda decided to buy shoes for Yuri first. “I’m sorry, but you’ll fall ill if you keep wearing your ____27____ shoes on these rainy days.” Yuri had to agree. She wasn’t happy to see the shoes Mom ____28____ for her. The store owner wanted to ___29___, but the shoes David wanted were ordered by someone else. He couldn’t give them away. He wondered what to do. ____30____, he had an idea. The next morning, Yuri found a box outside her house. There was a ____31____ on the box. It read, “Hope David loves them!” She opened the box and was ____32____. Inside was a pair of shoes similar to what David wanted! She held them close and cried in ____33____. Manda was moved by Yuri’s kindness and the ____34____ gift. The truest treasures are not the shoes we wear, but the ____35____ we share. Small acts can make a big difference. 21. A. Because B. So C. But D. Although 22. A. girls B. boys C. men D. women 23. A. see B. have C. afford D. wear 24. A. when B. why C. where D. whether 25. A. makes fun of B. is good with C. gets mad at D. takes pride in 26. A. mine B. yours C. his D. theirs 27. A. dirty B. ugly C. strange D. wet 28. A. painted B. borrowed C. bought D. made 29. A. save B. help C. thank D. move 30. A. Suddenly B. Actually C. Recently D. Firstly 31. A. newspaper B. T-shirt C. note D. magazine 32. A. relaxed B. embarrassed C. scared D. surprised 33. A. sadness B. joy C. pain D. pride 34. A. traditional B. interesting C. colorful D. unexpected 35. A. love B. knowledge C. time D. honor 第二节词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) A．将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 produce they instead customer by accident The chocolate chip cookie is the most famous cookie. It was first made by a cook named Mary Wakefield ____36____· One day, while making chocolate cookies, Mary ran out of baking chocolate. She had some common Nestlé’s chocolate, so she used that ____37____. She broke it into small pieces and mixed ____38____into the dough (面团). She thought the chocolate pieces would melt (融化) to ____39____ dark brown cookies. But pieces of chocolate remained in the cookies when they came out of the oven! All her ____40____ loved this new treat. This mistake brought the world’s favorite cookie! B．阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。 Hunting is a very old activity. In the 1800s, fox-hunting became popular in the UK. The hunters used groups of dogs to run after the foxes while they followed on ____41____ (马). This tradition became a ____42____ (象征) of British country life and continued for centuries. However many people who ____43____ (居住) in cities were unhappy about the tradition of fox-hunting. They thought it was a cruel activity and argued that it was ____44____ (错误) to kill animals for fun. The government agreed, and on 15 ____45____ (九月) 2004, a new law was passed to stop hunting with dogs. This brought an end to the traditional fox-hunting. Some people in the countryside feel that the hunting ban (禁令) isn’t ____46____ (公平). They say that: * foxes are ____47____ (敌人) of farm animals like chickens and sheep. So farmers need help to ____48____ (保护) their farm animals. * 60% of people in the countryside think fox-hunting is a kind of tradition. Traditions should ____49____ (仍然) be well kept. * fox-hunting can provide many jobs, so the ban will ____50____ (带来) harm to the economy in the countryside. Which side do you agree with? It’s a question that divides the city and the countryside in Britain. 第三节语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 Do you know tetherball (绳球)? It is an ____51____ (excite) game played by two people. One person hits the ball to the right, while ____52____ other person hits it to the left. The ball ____53____ (connect) to a rope, so it does not fly away. ____54____ (win) the game, you have to hit the ball so that it turns around the pole(杆子) in your direction. It looks simple, ____55____ is actually quite challenging. Last week, I learned ____56____ to play it with my brother. When I hit the ball, it ____57____ (fly) up in a big circle and made it easy for my brother to reach it. My brother is much stronger and ____58____ (good) than me. He would first hit the ball and then push it with ____59____ (he) hands, making the ball go smoothly round the pole. As a result, he won every game! I want to play ____60____ someone else next time. I’ve decided to improve my skills and give my brother a real challenge! 第四部分 书面表达(共1小题，满分20分) 61. 假如你是张华，你的英国笔友Jack想要了解你们学校的“课后服务活动” 。请根据下图的信息，向他概述活动情况并介绍一项你参与的活动和感受。 After-school Service Activities Time: 4: 40 p. m.—5: 20 p. m. on weekdays Place: On the playground or in the classroom Activities: * Sports(basketball football, …) * Art (singing, dancing, …) … 注意： 1．短文必须包含以上所有信息，可适当发挥； 2．文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息； 3．词数80左右；邮件的首尾和第一句已给出，不计入总词数。 Hi Jack, I’m happy to share our after-school service activities with you. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Do you have any activities like ours after school? Please write to me soon. Yours, Zhang Hua 2024学年第二学期九年级学情调查 英语试卷 考生须知： 1．本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2．答题前，在答题纸规定位置上写姓名和准考证号，并在试卷首页的指定位置写上姓名和座位号。 3．必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其它地方无效。 4．做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。 5．考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。 第一部分 听力理解(共三节，满分20分) 第一节(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分) 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．How often does Joan have breakfast? A．Hardly ever. B．Sometimes. C．Every day. 2．When will the speakers probably watch the movie? A．On Saturday afternoon. B．On Sunday afternoon. C．On Sunday evening. 3．How long does it take the speakers to get to the library? A．About 5 minutes. B．About 15 minutes. C．About 50 minutes. 4．What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers? A．Doctor and patient. B．Waiter and customer. C．Classmates. 5．How does Mike like online classes? A．Tiring. B．Interesting. C．Boring. 第二节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6．Why is silk special? A．It’s light and cheap. B．It’s soft and lasts long. C．It’s environmentally friendly. 7．What might the speakers do in the workshop? A．Help sell umbrellas. B．Choose a gift. C．Paint on silk. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8．What do the speakers need to make the poster? A．Old magazines and bottles. B．Scissors and glass. C．Newspapers and boxes. 9．Where will they meet after school tomorrow? A．In the classroom. B．In the lab. C．In the library. 10．Who will draw the mind map for the science project? A．Jenny. B．Mr. Wang. C．Tony. 第三节(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。 听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。 11．What is the name of the new app? A．Familynet. B．Kidtrack. C．Familylink. 12．What can parents do with the new app? A．They can talk to their children. B．They can learn how to use maps. C．They can find their children easily. 13．How many children does the speaker have? A．Two. B．Three. C．Five. 14．Where is the speaker’s son according to the app? A．At the park. B．Opposite the library. C．By the school bus. 15．How does the app let a parent know when a child is close to home? A．By making a noise. B．By giving a call. C．By sending a message. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) 第一节阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. C 3. A B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. A 5. C 6. D 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. D 10. C 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C 第二节任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分) 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. D 17. E 18. C 19. A 20. I want to organize a book-sharing activity to promote reading./I’d like to plant flowers to make the community more beautiful./I plan to help clean the community park to keep it tidy. (答案不唯一，合理即可) 第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分40分) 第一节完形填空(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. D 33. B 34. D 35. A 第二节词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. by accident 37. instead 38. them 39. produce 40. customers 【41~50题答案】 【答案】41. horses 42. symbol 43. lived 44. wrong 45. September 46. fair 47. enemies 48. protect 49. still 50. bring 第三节语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 【51~60题答案】 【答案】51. exciting 52. the 53. is connected 54. To win 55. but 56. how 57. flew 58. better 59. his 60. with 第四部分 书面表达(共1小题，满分20分) 【61题答案】 【答案】范文 Hi Jack, I’m happy to share our after-school service activities with you. They take place every weekday from 4:40 p.m. to 5:20 p.m., either on the playground or in classrooms. Students can choose from various activities like basketball, football, singing, and dancing. These programs help us relax after class and develop new skills. My favorite activity is basketball. I join the team twice a week, and we practice dribbling, shooting, and teamwork. It’s not only fun but also keeps me healthy. Last month, we even won a friendly match against another class! Through this, I’ve made friends and learned the importance of cooperation. Do you have any activities like ours after school? Please write to me soon. Yours, Zhang Hua 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$