内容正文:
九年级阶段性作业
英 语 2025. 04
注意事项:
1.本试卷分试题卷和答题卡两部分。试题卷1至8页,答题卡1至4页。总分100分,考试时间120分钟。
2.答卷前考生务必用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号填写在试题卷和答题卡规定的位置。考生须在答题卡规定的区域内答题,在试题卷上答题不得分。选择题须用2B铅笔填涂,非选择题须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写。
3.考试结束后,将本试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
试题卷
一、听力测试(共20小题;每小题1分,计20分)
(一)听对话,选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每个对话读两遍。
答案:1. 2. 3. 4. 5. _________
(2) 听对话和问题,根据对话内容,选择最佳答案。每组对话和问题读两遍。
6.What kind of music does Peter like?
A.The music that has lyrics. B.The music that is quiet. C.The music that is loud.
7.How old is Dave now?
A. 27. B.15. C.12.
8.What is Anna’s problem?
A. She can’t speak English well. B. She has difficulty in math. C. Her teacher is too busy.
9.What’s the relationship between the two speakers?
A.Mother and son. B.Teacher and student. C.Brother and sister.
10.What is Jason’s favorite subject at the new school?
A.Chinese. B.Computer science. C.Geography.
(三)听短文,根据短文内容,判断下列句子正误,正确的用“A”表示,不正确的用“B”表示。短文读两遍。听短文前,你们有20秒钟的时间阅读下列句子。
11. Mr Brown will meet the parents in the classroom at 9:30 am.
12. The speech competition is about students’ favorite traditional festivals.
13. There will be a robot dance and a Kung-fu show during the performance.
14.Parents can call Tom at 4356719 if they have questions.
15.The speaker’s purpose is to tell parents about the activities on the school day.
(四)听对话,根据对话内容完成下列句子,每空词数不限。对话读三遍。听对话前,你们有20秒钟的时间阅读下列句子。注意:请将答案填写在答题卡指定区域。
16.Where will they hold the welcome party?
They will hold the welcome party in the ________.
17.When will they hold the welcome party?
They will hold the welcome party on ________.
18.What kind of food are they going to prepare?
They are going to prepare some ________.
19.How many people will attend the welcome party?
________ people will attend the welcome party.
20.What can the children do after dinner?
They can ________.
2、 阅读理解(共20小题,每小题1.5分,计30分)
(一)阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。
A篇
FOOD HOUSE
Main food Desserts
1. Sandwich £ 2.00 1. Cheese Cake £ 1.50
2. Beefburger £ 3.00 2. Tiramisu £ 2.00
3. Seafood Pizza £ 3.50 3. Ice Cream £ 2.50
4. Hot Wings £ 4.00 4. Mousse Cake £ 2.0
(20% off at the weekend) (50% off under 5 years old)
Drinks Open Time
1. Hot Milk £ 1.00 8:00 a.m.—10:00 p.m. (Monday—Friday)
2. Cappuccino £ 2.00 9:00 a.m.—10:30 p.m. (Saturday—Sunday
3. Mango Juice £ 2.00
4. Apple juice £ 1.50
(50% off on buying two cups)
Order Method
Purchase at the store on the same day or call 18640278776
Order online according to the website http://www.meishirestaurant.uk.com
21.Which country may the restaurant in the text be located in?
A.China. B.Britain. C.America.
22.People can buy some food or drinks from the restaurant in ________ ways.
A.two B.three C.four
23.If Mrs.Black with her four-year-old son will buy one beefburger,one tiramisu and two glasses of hot milk next Sunday, they need to pay ________.
A.£3.6 B.£4.4 C.£5
24.The text we read above is probably ________.
A.a poster B.a menu C.a report
B篇
①Art has different kinds of forms. Have you ever seen a painting made of sugar? Sugar painting is a painting made of sugar. It’s the sugar for us to taste, and the painting for us to admire. The development of the sugar painting art is a long process, and every change in the form of sugar painting reflects the changes in the social life, and it is also a reflection of historical and cultural customs.
②Since the Warring States Period, the ancient people loved sweets and developed methods of producing sugar. In the Tang Dynasty, there was huge development in the technology of sugar making. And sugar, the precious product once only served to the emperors and princes, also went into people’s homes. With the cultural and economic (经济的) development of the Song and Yuan Dynasties, people became less interested in only tasting sweetness. In the Ming Dynasty, some people added pictures with good luck into the bowl of sugar, and sugar painting appeared.
③Sugar painting is different from normal painting. It needs boiling syrup (熬糖浆) and painting. It seems simple, but it is extremely challenging to make. Sugar painters use syrup as the material, a spoon as the “paintbrush”, and a smooth table as the “paper”. To make syrup, they have to make sugar hot before painting. Since syrup may become hard if it cools, the painters have to produce the work in a very short time. They move the spoon full of syrup up and down, left and right. Soon a sugar painting is done.
④However, it’s a pity that this folk art is dying recently. The sugar painting that used to be rich in shapes has become poorer and poorer because of fewer needs. What’s worse, few people seem to be willing to pass on the art except those aging sugar painters.
⑤For most people, painting is a kind of art and difficult to understand. However, sugar painting has pulled the art down into people’s daily lives. Through it, we may see the spiritual support of the ancient people across centuries. Now, sugar painting has been listed as an intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) in China.
25.What’s the main idea of Paragraph 3?
A. The difficulty of making sugar paintings.
B. The history of making sugar paintings.
C. The method of making sugar paintings.
26.Why should sugar painters make the work very quickly?
A. To avoid syrup becoming hard.
B. To show their excellent skills.
C. To protect the spoon and the table.
27.What does the underlined sentence in Paragraph 4 probably mean?
A. Sugar painting is popular in people’s daily lives.
B. Sugar painting is dying and it is worrying recently.
C. Sugar painting is a kind of art and difficult to understand.
28.Which of the following shows the structure of this passage?
A. B. C.
C篇
In 1674, I was born on my father’s small farm in Nottinghamshire, England. I was the third of five sons. My childhood was very happy. I liked going to school and learning new things. But I often used to daydream about going to sea.
One day, Father asked, “Lemuel, have you thought about your future? I think you would be a good doctor.”
I wanted to please him, so I said, “Yes, Father. I’ll go to Cambridge University and study medicine.” But as I spoke, I was thinking, “At university, I can also learn things that will be useful to a sailor.”
After several years of study, I became a doctor. Not long after, I asked my sweetheart, Mary, to marry me. Before long, we had children, a boy and a girl. They gave us great joy. I enjoyed being a doctor for the first few years. But then I became bored, and ideas of travel filled my mind. I imagined going to far-off places and seeing wonderful new things.
“Mary,” I said one day, “I need more adventures in my life. The captain of a ship about to sail has offered me a job as the ship’s doctor. I don’t know how long the journey will take, but I promise I will return. And when I do, I’ll tell you and the children all about my adventures.”
So in 1699, I set sail on the Antelope from Bristol. That city is a large and very old port in the southwest of England. The captain was a good man and had sailed a great deal!
“Welcome aboard. Doctor Gulliver,” he said, “First we’ll be sailing down the Atlantic Ocean and around the coast of Africa. Then we’ll sail through the Indian Ocean to the South Seas.” Our journey went well until one morning, somewhere near Tasmania in the South Pacific Ocean.
“I don’t like the look of those clouds,” the captain said, “I think a storm is coming.”
Within an hour, a big storm began. The sea rose in great, angry waves much taller than the Antelope. The wind, now as strong as a hurricane, made a terrible sound.
“The wind is blowing the ship off course!” shouted the captain. “Look out!”
——Adapted from Gulliver’s Travels
29.What’s the right order of the events?
①Lemuel married his sweetheart Mary. ②Lemuel studied medicine in a university.
③Lemuel became the doctor of a ship. ④Lemuel worked as a doctor for years.
A.③①②④ B. ②①③④ C. ②①④③
30.What does the underlined word “sailor” in Paragraph 3 mean?
A.医生 B. 农民 C. 水手
31.Which words can best describe Gulliver?
A. Lazy and unadventurous. B. Curious and adventurous. C. Shy and timid.
32.What’s the writer’s purpose of writing the text?
A. To introduce the background of Gulliver’s Travels. B. To encourage people to be adventurous.
C. To tell a love story of Gulliver.
D篇
①Li Shizhen, a well-known medical scientist of the Ming Dynasty, is recognized as a great master(大师) of medicine in China. He put his heart and soul into medicine, only to save the dying and cure the sick.
②Li was born in 1518 in Hubei. Both his grandfather and father were doctors. Li’s grandfather was a country doctor who travelled from place to place with a bag of herbs (药草). Such doctors were called Lingyi (bell doctors), because they could announce their arrival by ringing a bell. Li’s father was also a famous doctor in their local area.
③From childhood, Li went to the mountains with his father to pick herbs, gaining wide knowledge about animals, plants and medicine. Although Li’s father hoped his son could get a government job, Li failed the exam three times. He then turned his attention to medicine.
④At the age of 33, Li became famous for curing Prince Zhu Houkun’s son. A few years later, he was invited to work at the Imperial Medical Institute (太医院) in Beijing. During that time, he read many ancient medical texts, and noticed a mess in the naming and categorization (分类) of herbs. To deal with it, he decided to leave his job and devote himself to writing a book about herbs.
⑤After that, Li travelled to many places and got much first-hand experience. He also read hundreds of medical books and collected different kinds of herbs. After 27 years of efforts, his first draft (初稿) of Ben Cao Gang Mu was completed in 1578. The book is highly detailed and well-organized and is considered one of the greatest scientific achievements of the Ming Dynasty.
33.Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 2?
A.Li’s father was not as famous as his grandfather.
B. Li’s grandfather sold herbs by ringing a bell.
C. Li’s father followed in his father’s footsteps.
34.How did Li learn medicine as a child?
A. Through receiving education at school. B. Through personal practice.
C. By learning it from his grandfather.
35.What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. Wrong information about herbs. B. Writing his new book.
C. A child’s illness.
36.What’s the best title for the passage?
A. Li Shizhen: the man behind Ben Cao Gang Mu B. Li Shizhen’s interest in herbs
C. How to write a medical book
(二)阅读下面短文,根据短文内容,从下列选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
E篇
The shape of a room can’t make you any smarter than you were before, but we do know that the environments we’re in have an influence on us. 37
A recent study shows that big and open rooms, with high ceilings(天花板), make it harder for students to focus on what’s in front of them.
In a previous study by some of the same researchers, a link was found between a person’s mental ability and how he/she feels about the size of his/her environment. 38 “We wanted to see if being in a large space like a gym while having to focus on an important task would result in a poorer performance,”says Isabella Bower, one of the researchers.
The researchers collected exam results from 15,400 students over 8 years and across three schools. They compared these scores to expected scores based on the coursework(课程作业)the students had previously handed in.
In exam rooms with high ceilings, students generally performed less well than those in rooms with a “standard” ceiling height, even after considering things that could influence the results, such as age, gender, exam subject and previous exam experience.
39 For example, what we’re not yet sure is whether the room’s actual size is having an influence, or whether it’s something else related to the environment-like the temperature inside the space, or even how many other students there are. What’s clear, though, is that the environment matters.
Education expert Jaclyn Broadbent says, “ 40 . They influence students’ future careers and lives. It’s important to understand the possible influence of the physical environment on student performance and make necessary changes to ensure all students have a fair chance to succeed.”
A.That includes our ability to pay attention and work on mental tasks.
B.Exams have been a key part of our education for over 1,300 years.
C.These spaces are often built for purposes other than exams.
D.Here, the team wanted to do some real-world testing.
E.However, there are still questions we need to answer.
答案:37. ________ 38. ________ 39. ________ 40. ________
三、语言运用(共20小题;每小题1分,计20分)
A. 阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从方框中选出恰当的单词或短语填空,使语意通顺完整。第一个方框供41—45小题选用,第二个方框供46—50小题选用。每个选项只能使用一次,每框有一项剩余。
A. if B.was responsible for C.canceled D.drove me crazy E. relaxed F. nervous
When I was young, my family would often travel into the heart of Algonquin Park by boat. It made me feel 41 However, for years, I was caught up in the busy life-completing my education and then raising my children. Therefore, our traditional family trip was 42 . Last month, I wanted to go back to Algonquin, so I decided to plan a trip there again.
My family’s expertise (专长) in the outdoors has been valuable for such trips. My sister 43
planning our trips. My dad dealt with things like setting up the camp and preparing meals. And my husband was strong and good at moving things around.
But as the trip got closer, my husband accidentally hurt his leg. It 44 , because that meant I had to manage the first part of the trip alone. I wondered 45 I could drive my daughters to meet my dad and carry the boat.
A. courage B. shoulders C.plenty of D.legs E.sensed F. brought back
I had driven across Canada alone in my twenties. I was pretty sure that I could steer (驾驶)the boat. However, I feared to carry a boat. Lifting it onto my 46 seemed impossible for someone of my strength (力气). Soon, I remembered how brave and independent I was when I was young, which gave me the 47 to start my trip.
With my sister’s help, I learned how to carry the boat. On the day of the trip, I did it successfully without difficulty.
The trip was enjoyable. I saw 48 beautiful trees, blue lakes and colorful flowers.And I 49
the peace that came with being in nature. This experience 50 the adventurous spirit of my younger self.
答案: 41. ________ 42. ________ 43. ________ 44. ________ 45. ________
46. ________ 47. ________ 48. ________ 49. ________ 50. ________
B. 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
There are about 7 billion people on Earth today and we use a lot of energy. Most people use natural gas or oil, and some people 51 (start) to use new energy since several years ago. These new energies come 52 the wind or the sun.
The first energy source was probably wood. Wood was easy to find and use. Early humans used wood 53 (keep) warm and cook food. We don’t know when early humans learned 54 (they) ways of making fire. Maybe it was at least 1 million years ago. Even today, wood is still a common and convenient energy source.
One of the world’s 55 (old) energy sources is coal (煤炭). Coal looks like 56 black rock,
but it is made of ancient plants. During the 1800s, coal became important for social development. At that time, it 57 (use) by people around the world to power ships, trains and factories. 58
burning coal causes serious air pollution, people still use it today.
Water is another old source of energy. Research shows the ancient Greeks were using water over 2,000 years ago. How? They 59 (build) big wheels (轮子) out of wood, and then they put part of the wheel underwater. The moving water caused the wheel to turn and make energy. Today in many 60 (country), people still use water for energy and the wheels are much larger.
答案: 51.________ 52. ________ 53. ________ 54. ________ 55. ________
56. ________ 57. ________ 58. ________ 59. ________ 60. ________
四、阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,计10分)
阅读下面短文,完成短文后的问题。
Sophie, a 14-year-old British girl, suddenly changed her behavior in class. She lost interest in studies and would sit in the corner with her head mostly down.
Ethan Miller, one of Sophie’s teachers, discovered that she was bullied (欺凌) online. Sophie was receiving abusive (辱骂) messages on her phone and on Facebook. Miller shared Sophie’s story on the official website of The Children’s Society, a children’s charity in the UK.
Sophie was not alone. One in three young people, in 30 countries, said they have experienced online bullying. Twenty percent of those bullied students were not willing to go to school because of it, according to a report in September. The study surveyed more than 170, 000 young people aged 13—24 from countries in Europe, Asia, Africa and South America. Seventy-five percent of them said that the most common online bullying cases happened on social media, like Facebook and Twiter. The growth of social media has left many young people hurt through unfriendly and abusive messages, comments and pictures online.
The Internet world makes it easier for people to communicate with each other, but there is more danger for young people as well —and it is surprising that online bullying troubles many young people more than anything else. What’s more, online bullying could lead to serious results for young people. Such bullying makes young people more than twice as likely to hurt themselves or even kill themselves, according to a 2018 study by the university of Oxford, UK. The research also found that young people facing online bullying were not as likely to ask for help as those bullied by traditional ways.
To deal with the problem, UNICEF has called for national helplines to support people who are bullied, along with training for teachers and parents to prevent and deal with online bullying.
Here is some advice to keep yourself away from danger on the Internet.
● Make sure that you’re careful and respectful to others, even if you don’t share similar opinions, values or beliefs.
● If you experience online bullying, the best response (回应) to a bully is no response at all.
● Keep a record of anything that shows proof (证据) of online bullying, like screenshots. You can use this to report and stop them.
61.Why did Sophie suddenly change her behavior?
62.According to the survey, where do young people most probably meet online bullying?
63.How does online bullying hurt young people?
64.What is the best response to a bully?
65.What other advice can you offer to stop bullying? (请自拟一句话作答)
五、补全对话(共4小题;67小题2分,其它每小题1分,计5分)
阅读下面对话,在每个空白处填入一个适当的句子,使对话完整,合乎情境。
W:Hello? This is Rose speaking.
M: Hi,Rose. It’s Tom here.
W: 66._______________________________?
M: I’m going to see a movie at Wanda cinema this evening . Would you like to go with me?
W: Really? But it is too far. How about Renmin cinema?
M: No. I don’t like it.
W: Why?
M:67._______________________________.
W: Oh, that’s too bad. This Saturday evening, we can go to Wanda cinema in my father’s car.
M: Great. But before Saturday, what else shall we do in these two evenings?
W: How about dancing and swimming?
M:68._______________________________. But which swimming pool should we go to? There are so many around here.
W: We can go to the one near our school. It’s clean and not too crowded.
M: Sounds good. And we need to buy tickets.69._______________________________?
W: It’s 30 yuan for each person. I’m not sure. Maybe we can check online.
M: OK. And if we go dancing, where can we go?
W: There is a new dance studio on Main Street. We can try it.
答案:66. ____________________________________________________________________
67. ____________________________________________________________________
68. ____________________________________________________________________
69. ____________________________________________________________________
六、书面表达(计15分)
某英文网站正在开展以“用心交流,学会沟通”为主题的征文活动。假如你是李华,请用英语写一篇短文投稿,谈谈你生活中一次有效沟通的经历以及你的收获。
提示问题:What’s your experience?
How did you communicate with others in the experience ?
What have you learned from the experience?
要求:
1.短文中不得出现任何真实人名、校名及其它相关信息, 否则不予评分;
2.全文不少于80词。
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九年级英语阶段性作业 第 1 页 共 10 页
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九年级英语 阶段性作业
参考答案
2025.04
一、听力测试(共20小题,计20分)
(一)1--5 EBCAD
(二)6--10 AABAC
(三)11--15 BABBA
(四)16.garden 17.Saturday evening 18. Chinese food 19.15 / Fifteen 20. play cards
二、阅读理解(每小题1.5分,共20小题,计30分)
21--24 BBBB 25--28CABC
29--32 CCBA 33--36 CBAA 37--40 ADEB
三、语言知识运用(共20小题,计20分)
A: 41--45 ECBDA 46--50 BACEF
B: 51.have started 52.from 53.to keep 54.their 55.oldest 56.a 57.was used 58.Although 59.built 60.countries
四、阅读表达(共5小题,计10分)首字母无大小写变化扣1分.
66.Because she was bullied online.
67.On social media, like Facebook and Twitter.
68.Through unfriendly and abusive messages, comments and pictures online.
69.No response(at all)./ The best response to a bully is no response at all.
70.You/We/I can ask teachers or parents for help./ You/We/I can call the police./You should protect your information./......(开放性问题:只要符合本题要求,句意和语法正确,即可得分;有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误,可酌情扣分)
五、补全对话(共4小题,计5分)
66.What are you going to do this evening?
67.Because the seats there are dirty.(言之有理即可)
68.Good idea.
69.How much is it?
评分标准:保证准确性,允许多样性
1. 本大题共5分,67小题2分,其他小题1分。
2. 注意问句与答句的时态必须保持一致,出现大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误等,每处扣1分,直到扣完为止。
3. 有与答案不符者,只要符合本题要求,句意、语法正确,合理地达成语言沟通交流目的,即可得分。
六、书面表达(计15分)
参考范文
It is very important for us to get along with other people. It’s necessary to learn to communicate well with others. I think the most useful skill to communicate better is to respect others. I would like to share my experience with you.
Last year I went travelling with my good friend. When I made the plan, he disagreed. We argued about it because I thought he should follow my advice. Later, I thought about it and realized that his advice was actually pretty good. We should respect each other. I said sorry to him and then we had a good trip.
In my opinion, the good communication is very helpful. I should learn how to get on well with others. I should learn to be a good listener and understand others. I should also respect others politely.
评分标准:
评分原则
1.本题总分为15分,按4个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
一档
12—15分
包含提供的所有信息,并能根据内容合理发挥;语篇结构完整;应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇;用词准确,句子通顺,行文连贯,表达清晰;没有或基本没有(不超过1-2处)语言错误;书写工整;字数符合要求。
二档
9—11分
包含提供的所有信息,但内容欠丰富;语篇结构基本完整;应用的语言结构和词汇虽不太丰富,但能满足任务要求;句子基本通顺,表达基本清楚;语言虽有一些错误(不超过5处),但基本不影响意义表达;书写较工整;字数基本符合要求。
三档
5—8分
虽包含提供的大部分信息,但内容过少或部分内容偏离;语篇结构不够完整;应用的语言结构单一,不能满足任务要求;句子不够通顺,行文不够连贯;语言错误多,一定程度上影响意义表达;书写不够工整;字数不足40。
四档
0—4分
只写出一些与内容相关的词汇或句子,但语言错误多,几乎难以理解;所写内容杂乱,不知所云;书写潦草;字数不足20;抄袭试卷中的文段均为0分。
听力材料
(一)听对话,选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每组对话读两遍。
1.M:Would you like some dumplings?
W:Yes, please!
2.W: How will your family travel to Hainan during the May Day holiday?
M: By plane. It only takes about two hours.
3.M:The guide just told us not to take photos in the museum
W:oh, I'm sorry, I won't do that again.
4.M:Where is your brother?
W:Oh, he's swimming in the swimming pool with his friend.
5.W: What's your favorite animal?
M: Cats. I have a cat called Lazy because she sleeps all day.
(二)听对话和问题,根据对话内容,选择最佳答案。每组对话和问题读两遍。
6.W: Do you like music, Peter?
M: Yeah, I prefer music that has great lyrics.
Q:What kind of music does Peter like?
7.W: How long have you learned Chinese in China, Dave?
M: For twelve years. And I started to learn it when I was fifteen.
Q: How old is Dave now?
8.M: How is it going, Anna?
W: Terrible! I am having some problems with my math. It's too difficult for me.
M: Why not ask your math teacher for help?
W: She is too busy. There are always students around her.
Q: What is Anna’s problem?
9.W: Bill, could you stop using your phone while having dinner?
M: I’m just checking the soccer score.
W: You’d better not spend so much time on your phone. It’s really bad for your eyes.
M: I’m sorry, Mom.
Q: What’s the relationship between the two speakers?
10.W: Hi, Jason. How is your life at the new school?
M: Pretty good! The teachers and students there are very kind and helpful. I’ve made a lot of new friends.
W: That sounds great! What’s your favorite subject there?
M: I like Chinese and computer science, but geography is my favorite.
Q:What is Jason’s favorite subject at the new school?
(三).听短文,根据短文内容,判断下列句子正误,正确的用“A”表示,不正确的用“B”表示。短文读两遍。听短文前,你们有20秒钟的时间阅读下列句子。
Dear parents, welcome to our school on School Day! My name is Tom Green. I am very glad to tell you what you are going to do in our school. Our headmaster, Mr Brown will meet you on the playground at 9:30 am. He is going to introduce the history of our school to all of you. Then there will be a speech competition. Each student will have 5 minutes to talk about their favorite traditional festivals. After the competition, there will be a performance at 11:30. Some students will show traditional Chinese dances, like the fan dance. And there will also be a Kung - fu show. You will have lunch at the dining hall at noon. You can taste many different kinds of food there. In the afternoon, you will visit our art center first. After that, Miss Sullivan will show you around the school library and the music room. Hope you can have a good time! If you have any question, please call me at 4356791.
(4) 听写。听对话,根据对话内容,完成下列句子,每空词数不限。对话读三遍。听对话前,你们有20秒钟的时间阅读下列句子。
W: Louis, have you decided where to hold the welcome party for our new neighbors?
M: How about in the garden? We can enjoy the natural beauty while having dinner.
W: That sounds nice. As for the party time, can we make it on Friday evening?
M: I’m OK with that, but I’m afraid some of our old neighbors can’t come because of late work. Let’s change it to Saturday evening.
W: Yeah, you’re right. About the party food, I want to make some Chinese food.
M: I agree with you. Our new neighbors come from China. I think they will love it.
W: I hope so. By the way, how much food should we prepare?
M: Let me see. There will be fifteen people, including five children. I think it’s better to prepare more food, right?
W: Yes. Any ideas about activities after dinner?
M: For adults, we can discuss some latest news! For the children, they can play cards.
W: That sounds great!
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九
年级
英语阶段性
作业答题卡
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)
学校 班级 姓名 考号 座号___
(
注意事项:
1、答题前,务必认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号和座号,将区县、学校、班级、姓名、准考证号、座号完整的填写在相应位置。
2、答第I卷时,必须使用
2B铅笔
填涂答题卡上相应题目的答案标号,修改时,要用橡皮擦干净。
3、答第II卷时,必须使用
0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写
,
做图时,可用2B铅笔
,要求字体工整、笔迹清晰。务必在题号所指示的答题区域内作答,
选做题必须用2B铅笔将所选题号涂黑
。
4、保证答题卡清洁、完整。严禁折叠、严禁在答题卡上做任何标记,严禁使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带。
5、若未按上述要求填写、答题。影响评分质量,后果自负。
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贴 条 形 码 区
由监考员负责粘贴
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须用2B 铅笔填涂
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填涂样例 正确填涂
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须用黑色签字笔书写
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一
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听力测试
(四)听对话,根据对话内容完成下列句子,每空词数不限。对话读三遍。听对话前,你们有20秒钟的时间阅读下列句子。注意:请将答案填写在答题卡指定区域。
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出边框的答案无效
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三、语言运用(共20小题;每小题1分,计20分)
B. 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
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五、补全对话(共4小题;(67)小题2分,其它每小题1分,计5分)
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出边框的答案无效
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六
、书面表达(15分)
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出边框的答案无效
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出边框的答案无效
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九年级英语阶段性作业答题卡 第2页/共4页
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