内容正文:
2024-2025学年度第二学期期中学业水平检测
初三英语试题
注意事项:
1. 本试卷共10页,满分90分;考试时间100分钟。
2. 答题前,务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置上。
3. 选择题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。
4. 非选择题部分用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡指定区域内的相应位置;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带等。
5. 写在试卷上和答题卡指定区域外的答案无效。
第一部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分35分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Book Signing
The Fine Art of Small Talk
By Debra Fine
When: 7 p.m.--8:30 p.m. on May 19th, 2025
Where: At the Public Library
________________________________________________________
Does the thought of starting a conversation with a stranger make you nervous? Do you sit worriedly through job interviews (面试) waiting for the other person to speak?
Do you want to become better at making small talk with new people? If your answer is “yes”, then this is the right book for you. In the book, the communication expert Debra Fine will show you how to:
★ make a good impression (印象) from the minute you say hello.
★ feel more comfortable in any kind of social situations.
★ avoid those uncomfortable and awkward silences in a conversation.
Come and meet Debra Fine in person. Buy a book and get it signed. Maybe you will be expert at communicating.
1. What can we know about the book signing?
A. It will be held on May 9th. B. Debra Fine wrote this book.
C. It will begin in the early morning. D. It will take place in a bookstore.
2. Who might be most interested in the book?
A. Those who are good at giving talks. B. Those who enjoy going to parties.
C. Those who fear to talk with others. D. Those who are looking for new jobs.
3. What does the underlined word “awkward” probably mean?
A. Exciting. B. Usual. C. Peaceful. D. Embarrassing.
B
“Don’t forget to study for the Chinese history test on Friday,” Mrs. Green said after class. Julie closed her book and sighed (叹气). Julie was a perfect monitor (班长) and could organize all kinds of activities. But when she learned history, there was something hard for her to remember.
The following day, she went to the library and tried to remember all the facts and dates. But it was useless. Just then she looked up and found her classmate Maria was seated at a nearby table. So Julie decided to turn to Maria.
Maria was sitting there with some cards and some colored pencils. Each card showed a colorful picture. Julie was curious and asked, “Are you studying history?” “Yeah, and this is how I study,” Maria said. “Sometimes only memorizing things isn’t enough. I like art, so I use these pictures to help me remember historical events.”
“I see,” said Julie with great interest. After thinking for a while, an idea came to her mind. She had rich experience in organizing big events. And she always began with making small plans step by step. How did she connect all of them in the end? Mind maps!
“Hey, Maria,” said Julie. “How about this: I divide these history events into different kinds and use a mind map to connect each kind together. And you draw the pictures for these kinds as their explanation.” “That’s cool! Let’s start right now!” Maria agreed excitedly.
“Sure,” said Julie. At that time, studying didn’t seem so impossible. And what you need to do is find what you are good at and make full use of it.
4. What was Julie’s problem when she learned history?
A. She couldn’t catch up with the teacher.
B. She didn’t understand the meaning of some events.
C. She couldn’t memorize all the facts and dates well.
D. She had no interest in learning Chinese history.
5. How did Maria study history in the library?
A. By remembering word by word. B. By drawing pictures on the cards.
C. By discussing with other classmates. D. By asking others for help.
6. What is Julie good at?
A. Drawing mind maps. B. Making small plans.
C. Organizing big events. D. Explaining things clearly.
7. What do you think of Julie?
A. She is friendly and helpful. B. She is hard-working and humorous.
C. She is outgoing and brave. D. She is creative and clever.
C
In Luleå, a city in northern Sweden, people are asked to say “hello” to each other more often. The new campaign (活动) is called Säg hej!, meaning “say hello”. It is a simple way to connect people, but a very big step for the city.
Swedish culture cares privacy (隐私) and interpersonal distance (人际距离) so much that it has caused loneliness especially in Luleå where the sun only shines around three hours a day in the winter months. People usually like to stay warm at home alone. While most people believe that loneliness is the commonest among the elderly who usually live alone, the opposite is true. It is actually rising in young people and it has a bad influence on their mental (心理的) and physical health. A study about Luleå found that 45% of 16– to 29 - year - olds were experiencing problems because of loneliness.
Åsa Koski, who works for the city, came up with the idea of the Säg hej! campaign. “The city is developing fast and more people are coming. We don’t just want Luleå to grow to be a big city. We also want it to be a safe, friendly and happy place where there’s culture, relaxing activities, and sports,” Koski said. “Greeting people makes them feel like they belong. Research shows that it has a good effect on health and makes people want to help each other. If you say hi to your neighbors, you are more likely to help them,” Koski said.
The activity is now being encouraged on buses and in schools. There are even workshops on how to greet one another. Many people agree that saying hello should be encouraged and believe that the more international the city becomes, the friendlier people will become. “It’s really good that people say hello to each other,” 61-year-old Pontus Wikström, said. “It means that people who meet without knowing each other become a little bit happier.”
8. What do we know about the people in Luleå?
A. The elderly are the loneliest.
B. Many young people live alone.
C. The cold weather makes them lonelier.
D. They keep a distance when talking to each other.
9. Why did Koski start the campaign of Säg hej! ?
A. To encourage people to stay healthy.
B. To invite people to travel around Luleå.
C. To let more people know about the city.
D. To create a better environment for people.
10. What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Greeting people. B. Helping each other.
C. Living in the city. D. Taking part in activities.
11. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. A new campaign brings people together.
B. The next International city saying hello to you.
C. Loneliness has become a big problem in Luleå.
D. People’s way of life in Luleå needs to be changed.
D
In China, more people are choosing to visit places that aren’t very famous instead of going to popular tourist spots. This is called “reverse tourism (逆向旅游),” and it’s becoming popular among young people.
An online travel agency (旅行社) says that during the holiday, hotels in less-known cities had 30% more bookings than last year. Four-star and five-star hotels in these places also saw their bookings go up by at least 10 times. Some lesser-known spots had a big increase in visitors. For example, Baimaiquan Park in Jinan, a city in Shandong Province, had 52,100 visitors over seven days. That’s 15.78% more than last year.
People choose less-known places for a few reasons. There are fewer crowds, and it’s cheaper than going to popular places. These places are also less commercial (商业的), which means they feel more real and special. These reasons show that people’s travel needs are changing, and that may be the main cause of the rise of reverse tourism.
Zhengzhou Daily says that reverse tourism is not a bad thing. It gives travelers more choices and helps the tourism market grow. It also pushes less-known places to get better.
Jiang Han, a researcher, thinks reverse tourism is here to stay. He suggests that people should explore the hidden possibility of these less-known places. We need to learn more about local culture and show off the special things these places have to offer.
12. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about?
A. Travel agencies in China. B. Tourism and the commerce.
C. Hotels making a lot of money. D. The growth of reverse tourism.
13. What may be the main cause of the rise of reverse tourism?
A. There are fewer crowds.
B. The cheaper prices of the less-known places.
C. People’s travel needs are changing.
D. There is no improvement in famous sports.
14. What does Zhengzhou Daily think of reverse tourism?
A. It will disappear when the economy (经济) gets better.
B. It is good for both tourists and the tourism market.
C. It helps spread local culture.
D. It hurts popular tourist spots.
15. What is Jiang Han’s advice on the tourism market?
A. Improving the spots in tourist areas.
B. Making better rules for tourist spots.
C. Exploring the possibility of less-known places.
D. Encouraging local culture online.
第二节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
James and Thomas Lindesay are British brothers in Beijing. Last year, they spent months traveling the Great Wall of China on foot. The two started from the Jiayuguan Pass in Gansu Province on July 15th. 16 There the Wall meets the sea. Their Great Wall trip is 3,263 kilometers.
17 William was born in 1956 in the UK and had a dream of visiting the Great Wall from an early age. In 1987, he finally went on a trip there. 18 From then on, villagers living at the foot of the Wall often saw the tall, blonde - haired man collecting rubbish along the Wall. He loved this great structure (建筑) a lot, so he tried to help clean and protect it. William also wrote ten books on the Great Wall.
William’s works influenced (影响) his two sons. Even as children, they spent most of their weekends walking and taking pictures of the Wall. In 2016, the Lindesay brothers started to make videos to protect the Wall. 19 They wanted to follow in their father’s footsteps and experience the structure themselves, so their trip along the Wall began. The two traveled about 30 to 40 kilometers per day and finally finished it on November 22nd.
20 But the experience gave them a better understanding of the Wall and the history behind it.
A. But they thought that was not enough.
B. It took them 131 days to arrive at the Shanhaiguan Pass.
C. They sometimes spent nights in hotels and camped in the wild.
D. After that, William married a Chinese woman and lived in Beijing.
E. The brothers said the trip was not as easy as they thought before setting off.
F. The brothers’ interest in traveling the Wall came from their father William Lindesay.
16. ________ 17. ________ 18. _______ 19. ________ 20. __________
第二部分 语言知识应用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节 完形填空(共10题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
One day last July, my dad got back from work with some exciting news! “Get your bags ready for tomorrow. We’re going on a road trip”. I was so 21 that I couldn’t fall asleep that night.
The next day, we left at 6:00 am and arrived Camdenton around 8:30 am. The first thing we did there was a one-hour 22 in Bridal Caves. When I first entered, I was surprised to see what I saw. I’ve never seen anything like that in my life. It’s so interesting to learn about how the stalactite (钟乳石) 23 inside the caves.
Later on, we took a three-hour drive to Arkansas. On the way, we listened to music and did karaoke. We enjoyed this great musical 24 time together! There we visited Crystal Bridges Museum of American Art. One of the things I liked the most in the museum was that one of the walls was painted green and orange with black and white shapes. I 25 this memory in my brain because my sister and I took pictures in front of this wall. Another thing I liked was that there was a show with candies all over the floor. I 26 a handful of colorful candies and put them into my mouth. They were so sweet.
After that we went to Lake Atalanta Park. This park had a huge lake, a large playground and a tree house. It was the first time for me to 27 a tree house at a park. It was very 28 to go up all the stairs of the tree house. My sister and I climbed up and down, laughing all the way round. Afterward, my sister and I found a small pond (池塘) and 29 to splash (泼溅) water on each other.
This road trip, by far, has been the best experience of my life. When I look back at the memories, it brings a big smile on my face. It made me understand that it was very important to 30 the time you can with the people you love.
21. A. nervous B.tired C.excited D. patient
22. A. show B.tour C.play D. talk
23. A. forms B.shines C.stays D. arrives
24. A. friend B.city C.family D. museum
25. A. lost B.kept C.understood D. imagined
26. A. caught B.saw C.made D.drew
27. A. see B. hear C. smell D. notice
28. A. safe B.tiring C.strange D. enjoyable
29. A. stopped B. started C. forgot D. refused
30. A. save B.change C.create D.spend
第2节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I am very pleased 31 my successful English. Actually it is 32 long way to achieve success. I really want to go over my past experiences in English learning and share them with other people.
Since I began to study English, I 33 (dream) of speaking English well. I studied New Concept (概念) English. And it 34 (final) helped me pass CET-6. I often went to English corners while at university. In order to reach an English corner on time, I got up 35 (early) than usual in the morning and then took a bus to get there. I read English aloud every day. It was boring, but it really helped my 36 (pronounce). I watched CCTV-9 to listen to broadcasters (广播员) speaking English. This was the only way I could practice my English listening on TV. This was also my secret to 37 (learn) English.
Then I moved to Canada. Firstly, I went to a local western church. It has Bible study and ESL programs to improve new 38 (student) language skills. Secondly, when I did survival jobs (谋生工作), I tried every chance to practice English. Thirdly, 39 giving up these jobs, I decided to go back to my profession (专业). Then I was isolated (隔离) from the outside world. So I made full use of the time by watching TV. During that period I mainly 40 (pay) attention to English listening, and I made great progress. Now I have more confidence for a brighter future.
31. ________ 32. ________ 33._________ 34._________ 35._________
36. ________ 37. ________ 38. _________ 39._________ 40. _________
第三部分 书面表达(共两节,满分30分)
第1节 阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,完成短文后的问题。
Do you love nature? Are you interested in animals? Then the Galapagos Islands may be a good place for your holiday. The Galapagos Islands are famous for their wildlife. You can enjoy lots of exciting activities there.
About 1,000 kilometers away from the coast of Ecuador (厄瓜多尔海岸), in South America, the Galapagos Islands have 13 major islands and some smaller islands. These islands are home to many kinds of plants and animals that can’t be found anywhere else in the world now.
In the 19th century, the great scientist Charles Darwin studied some of the birds on the islands. That helped him develop his theory of evolution (进化论) later. The birds are now famous as “Darwin’s finches (达尔文雀)”. They can still be seen today. Besides birds, you might also see many kinds of animals on the beaches or in the sea.
The animals living on the islands are not afraid of humans. So tourists can get very close to them and take great photos. You can even do some activities with the animals. Do you want to swim with sharks? Don’t worry! The sharks are usually friendly.
In 1835, Darwin travelled to the Galapagos Islands by ship. Today, you can fly to the islands from Quito or Guayaquil in Ecuador. Come to the Galapagos Islands to enjoy the most special trip!
41. What are the Galapagos Islands known for?
42. Where are the Galapagos Islands?
43.What did Darwin do on the islands?
44.Why can tourists get very close to the animals on the islands?
45.How did Darwin get to the islands in 1835?
第二节 写作(满分20分)
“闲谈”是一种沟通方式,它可以打破沉默,消除尴尬,创造进入正式话题的机会。请根据下面的提示,以“Small Talk”为题写一篇文章。
内容提示:
1. 闲谈不是浪费时间,而是为了更好的沟通;
2. 选择合适的闲谈话题,避开不恰当的话题;
3. 你对“闲谈”的看法……(至少二点)
写作要求:
1. 包含所有内容提示,可适当发挥;
2. 不能出现个人真实姓名和校名等信息;
3. 词数在80-100词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数)。
Small Talk
Some people don’t know that making small talk is useful.________________
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初三英语试题第1页(共10页)
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
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2024—2025学年度第二学期期中学业水平检测
初三英语试题参考答案
第一部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分35分)
第1节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
1-3 BCD 4-7 CBCD 8-11 CDAA 12-15 DCBC
第二节 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
16-20 BFDAE
第二部分 语言知识应用 (共二节,满分25分)
第一节 完形填空(共10题;每小题1分,满分10分)
21-25 CBACB 26-30 AADBD
第二节 语法填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
31. with 32. a 33. have dreamed/been dreaming 34. finally
35. earlier 36. pronunciation 37. learning 38. students’
39. after 40. paid
第三部分 书面表达(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
41. They are famous for Wildlife.
42. About 1,000 kilometers away from the coast of Ecuador, in South America.
43. He studied some of the birds (on the islands).
44. Because the animals are not afraid of humans.
45. By ship.
第二节 写作(满分20分)
参考评分标准:
1. 本题满分为20分。按五个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言表达的流畅、准确程度等确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来确定本档次得分。出现考生个人信息不得分。
3. 作文词数不少于80,不多于120,否则扣1分。
4. 书写不规范,卷面不整洁,扣1分。
5. 各档次的给分范围和要求:
第一档 (17—20分):要点全面,能正确表述自己的观点,行文流畅,无语法和词汇错误。
第二档 (13—16分):能写出绝大部分要点,行文基本流畅,有少量语法和词汇错误。
第三档 (9—12分):写出大部分要点,行文尚通顺,有一些语法和词汇错误。
第四档 (5—8分):只写出部分要点,语言不通顺,有很多语法和词汇错误。
第五档 (0—4分):基本上没有实际内容,语法及拼写错误太多,不知所云。
Small Talk
Some people don’t know that making small talk is useful. They only talk about things that they think are important. As a result, they become quiet people. In fact, making small talk isn’t a waste of your time. And it can even help you communicate better.
What’s more, we should choose some right topics to talk about. The weather, the popular TV shows and sports games are all good topics. We should avoid talking about personal privacy. Family income, family problems and classmates’ looks aren’t safe topics.
Making small talk is important. Learning more skills at making small talk can help you to be a good communicator.
初三英语试题答案第1页(共2页)
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