2025届山东省Eternal7社区4月高考模拟考试英语试题

2025年山东省高考模拟考试 英语试题(B) 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。全卷共12页，选择题部分1至10页，非选择题部分11至12页。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 考生注意： 1.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 2.答题时，请在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试卷上的作答一律无效。 选择题部分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where does the conversation take place? A. In the street. B. At the cinema. C. At the concert. 2. What sport did the man like to play in high school? A. Basketball. B. Badminton. C. Volleyball. 3. What is the boy likely to do next? A. Get changed. B. Have another cup of juice. C. Go to the doctor. 4. What are the speakers talking about? A. Their hobbies. B. Their desired talents. C. Their plans. 5. How much does the item cost today? A. $6. B. $14. C. $20. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the man ask Anna to do? A. Tidy her room. B. Do the laundry. C. Wash the dishes. 7. How does the man sound in the end? A. Sorry. B. Annoyed. C. Understanding 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What is the man? A. A driver. B. A passenger. C. A radio host. 9. When does Winner’s Chinese usually end? A. At 7:00 a. m. B. At 6:40 a. m. C. At 6:20 a. m. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What is the man doing at the beginning of the conversation? A. Listening to his new CD. B. Doing his homework. C. Practicing pronunciation. 11. Which aspect of English is the woman poor at? A. Reading. B. Writing. C. Speaking. 12. What does the man advise the woman to do? A. Go to the English corner. B. Meet his foreign friends. C. Practice English with him. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. How does the man sound at first? A. Angry. B. Confused. C. Excited. 14. What problem do the speakers have? A. They arrive at different places. B. They can’t agree on a place for sightseeing. C. They don’t know where the exhibition is. 15. Where is the man now? A. At the sculpture exhibit. B. At the entrance. C. At the “Evolutions in Light” exhibit. 16. What is the woman going to do? A. Visiting artworks further. B. Standing still. C. Going to find the man. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the speaker doing? A. Tracking her monthly costs. B. Offering financial advice. C. Making a spending plan. 18. When does the speaker receive her salary every month? A On the 5th. B. On the 7th. C. On the 15th. 19. What did the speaker buy on the last day of June? A. Beauty products. B. Clothes. C. Cat food. 20. What does the speaker plan to do? A. Find a part-time job. B. Watch her spending. C. Cut costs. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Hardly the most popular holiday hotspots, these places are known for their extreme cold. If you are planning a visit, grab a blanket and get ready to hunker down — they hold the record for the coldest temperatures ever recorded. Eastern Antarctic Plateau, Antarctica (-94℃) The Eastern Antarctic Plateau claims the title of coldest place on Earth. Satellite data collected between 2004 and 2016 across Dome Argus and Dome Fuji, an area around the size of Australia, suggests that air temperatures could be around -94°C. If these remote measurements are correct, this would be the coldest air temperature on Earth, and researchers think that land temperatures could get as low as -98℃. Vostok Station, Antarctica (-89.2℃) Located in the Southern Pole of Cold, an area in the southern hemisphere with some of the lowest-recorded surface temperatures, the Vostok research station was created by the Soviet Union in 1957. Thermometers here reached a low of -89.2℃ in July 1983, the lowest air temperature ever directly recorded. It is also one of the driest places on Earth, receiving around 20 millimetres of precipitation (降水量) a year, all of which is snow. Amundsen-Scott Station, Antarctica (-82.8℃) Located on the South Pole, the Amundsen-Scott Station was built in 1956 and gets six months of sunlight in the summer and six months of total darkness in the winter months. The highest temperature recorded on this part of the East Antarctic Plateau was on Christmas Day in 2011, where thermometers rose to a positively balmy -12.3℃. The coldest on record was -82.8℃ in June 1982. Klinck Station, Greenland (-69.6℃) The Klinck weather station holds the record for the coldest place in the Arctic Circle. Located in central Greenland, it beat the previous record held by Oymyakon by around 2 degrees in December 1991, reaching -69.6°C. Despite these cold temperatures, much of Greenland’s ice is melting rapidly. 1. Which place is the coldest place in Arctic Circle? A. Eastern Antarctic Plateau. B. Vostok Station. C. Amundsen-Scott Station. D. Klinck Station. 2. What can we learn about Vostok Station? A. It was created in 1956. B. Weather there is dry. C. There is snowy all the time. D. It’s in the northern hemisphere. 3. What may the passage be taken from? A. From the academic essay. B. From the scientific article. C. From the guidance book. D. From the publisher. B More than 40 years after buying Eng’s, a Chinese restaurant in New York state, Tom Sit is unwillingly considering retirement. For much of his life, he worked here seven days a week, 12 hours a day, He cooks in the same kitchen where he worked as a young immigrant from China. He parks in the same lot where he would take breaks and read his wife’s letters sent from Canada in the late 1970s. He seats his regulars (老主顾) at the same tables where his three daughters did homework. Three years ago, at the insistence of his wife, Sit started taking of one days a week. Still, it is not sustainable. He is 76, and they are going to be grandparents soon. Working over 70 hours a week is just too hard. However, his grown daughters have no intention of taking it over. Across the country, owners of Chinese restaurants like Eng’s are ready to retire but have no one to pass the business on to. Their children, raised and educated in the United States, are pursuing professional careers that do not demand the same tiring labor as food service. According to new data from the restaurant reviewing website Yelp, the share of Chinese restaurants in the top 20 metropolitan areas has been continuously falling. In 2014, an average of 7.3 percent of all restaurants in these areas were Chinese, compared with 6.5 percent in 2015. That reflects 1,200 fewer Chinese restaurants at a time when around 15,000 restaurants were added to these large cities. It does not appear that people have lost interest in the cuisine. On Yelp, the average share of page views of Chinese restaurants has not declined, nor has the average rating. Meanwhile, the percentages of Indian, Korean and Vietnamese restaurants many of which are also owned and operated by immigrants from Asian countries are holding steady or increasing nationwide. Rising rents, delivery apps, and tightening regulations on immigration and accounting have made the already tough restaurant business an even more difficult one in recent years. However, those are not factors specific to Chinese restaurants, and do not explain the wave of closing. Instead, a big reason seems to be the economic mobility (流动性) of the second generation. “It’s a success that these restaurants are closing,” said Jennifer Lee, a former New York Times journalist, “These people came to cook so their children wouldn’t have to.” Sit has not yet found the right person to run the restaurant. If he ever does hand Eng’s to someone else, he will miss his customers. However, he is proud of what he has built. He is also proud that his daughters are working jobs they have chosen, jobs that they love. 4. According to the article, which of the following statements about Tom Sit is true? A. He and his wife lived in Canada in the late 1970s. B. He worked more than 90 hours a week before 2017. C. He decided to retire because of his declining health. D. He doesn’t want to retire now. 5. How many restaurants were there in the top 20 metropolitan areas in the United States in 2014? A. 262,125. B. 271,875. C. 281,625. D. Unknown. 6. Paragraphs 5 and 6 explain the real reason why ________. A. Chinese food has become less popular in the United States. B. fewer Chinese people now immigrate to the United States. C. the number of Chinese restaurants is steadily declining. D. more Southeast Asians open restaurants for a living in the United States. 7. According to the article, that Sit’s daughters refused to take over Eng’s ________. A. was a difficult decision. B. made him disappointed. C. came as no surprise to him. D. was what their mother desired to see. C We enjoy music not just through our ears, but also the rest of our body. When the music hits just right, we tap our feet, snap our (弹动) fingers and begin to move — impulses that are near irresistible. This pleasurable urge to move to music is what scientists call groove (律动). Researchers have reported that even 3-month-old babies naturally move to the music when they listen to “Everybody” by the Backstreet Boys. Psychological and neuroscience research suggests that the phenomenon of groove reveals something fundamental about how our brains work: We enjoy trying to predict how the music will go, and we move to help us make that prediction. “The power of groove is that it makes music a distributed process that we actively take part in and kind of blurs the boundary between music and body and mind.” said Maria Witek, an associate professor of music at Britain’s University of Birmingham who researches music cognition. Examples of “groove-based music” genres include funk, hip-hop, jazz and Afro-Cuban music. Musicians also use groove in a larger context, such as describing a rhythmic part or feeling interlocked as a group when playing. Scientists, though, use the term more narrowly to mean the pleasurable urge to move to music. People tend to find music that is moderately complex in rhythm elicits (引发) more feelings of groove than music with a low-or high-complexity rhythm. There seems to be a Goldilocks zone (宜居带) for music’s predictability and complexity: Too little complexity, and it is boring — no need to predict anything. Too much complexity, and it is too difficult — we can’t make sense of what we are listening to, let alone predict what comes next. The reason we tend to groove to music instead of, say, the sounds of a babbling brook (潺潺小溪) or a lecture, is that music has more predictable patterns than the sounds of nature or human speech. Music has a time signature that we can predict, but the notes in the song may deviate from it, adding to its complexity and difficulty in predicting. Moving to music — whether it’s clapping our hands, bobbing (上下摇晃) our head or dancing — is a way of adding a new sensory input that can minimize the prediction error by reinforcing the underlying musical time signature. But with just the right amount of complexity, trying to figure out what comes next becomes enjoyable. “We like a challenge,” said Matthews, who theorizes in a recent paper that the process of minimizing prediction errors in music is innerly rewarding. “We’re drawn to something that is challenging and isn’t just perfectly regular.” 8. The Paragraph.1~2 are written to ________. A. Addressing a problem. B. Introducing a topic. C. Attracting interests. D. Demonstrating a phenomenon. 9. What is the meaning of the underlined word “distributed”? A. Spreading out. B. Gathering together. C. More united. D. More chaotic. 10. It can be learned from the passage that ________. A. We tend to predict rhythm in a simple music. B. It’s more likely for people to groove in hip-hop songs. C. Scientists agree grooving can enhance music performance. D. People don’t groove in a lecture because of its incomplexity. 11. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. How music influence our lives? B. Groove — challenging but enjoyable. C. Why our brain loves to groove? D. How do humans move to music? D It wasn’t until I’d finished reading a fourth article ranking “the best wellies (雨靴) for children” that it dawned on me that maybe I could be doing something better with this precious time on Earth. Many websites use a five-star rating to rank the boots, just as one might rate films or albums or restaurants. These ratings, though subjective and often fickle (多变), take on a life and meaning of their own. A spiteful (心怀恶意的) customer can sink a small business with one-star online reviews. I wouldn’t buy a three-star welly, even though it’s not clear how much anyone should expect from a rubber boot. The American psychologist Barry Schwartz observed that faced with apparently endless consumer choice, people respond in two ways. “satisficers” are happy to pick a good enough option and are unlikely to spend their free time reading hundreds of product reviews, but “maximisers” feel necessary to make the best possible choice. This means the more choices they are offered, the worse off they are: an expansion of possibilities makes decision — making harder and regret the more likely outcome. Studies suggest that maximisers often do better professionally — in this sense, their high standards pay off — but even then they feel worse. Maximisers tend to be less happy, and more likely to depression and negative social comparison. Unfortunately, the number of online rankings for things like “the best doormats of 2023” or “the best toilet brushes” suggest we live in a world of restless maximisers. And where do you stop? There are endless ways to assess your life and your choices, and to fail to measure up. You can track your steps, your heart rate and your sleep cycles, monitor your weight and BMI, assess your social media engagement and obsess over performance indicators at work. We treat these standards with a respect they rarely deserve: the 10,000 steps goal is random, your BMI is a very imperfect indicator of your health, online approval doesn’t define your social worth. Much writing about maximising — and related trends, such as self-optimisation and perfectionism — focuses on our individual responses. But by considering how we relate to others, we can begin to see why the desire to be the best and to have the best is fundamentally a collective problem, a shared delusion (错觉). My extensive Googling of “the best wellies for children” was not truly about boots; it stems from my feelings of inadequacy (不胜任) in motherhood. I believe my children deserve a perfect mother, yet I doubt my ability to be enough for them. Parenthood, like any love or care, resists the pursuit of perfection. Being a good parent, like being a good friend, is about presence and kindness, not achievement. While relationships can reinforce perfectionism,we can choose to break this cycle and remind others they are more than their achievements. Perhaps, with the new year upon us, you are feeling a little penitent. Maybe you have resolved to exercise more and eat better, to take up a self-improving hobby, to really go for that promotion at work, to become the best version of you. But instead of taking up another new year’s resolution — a self-reproach disguised as a good intention — perhaps it’s worth asking why you feel sure it’s you that needs to change. What if you’re already good enough? 12. What can we learn from Paragraph 1? A. Objective reviews is widely accepted. B. Subjective and spiteful ratings wouldn’t make a difference. C. Author thinks it’s unnecessary to rank wellies. D. People consider ratings more important than expectations. 13. Which people is categorized in satisficers? A. Who ignore others’ reviews. B. Who set themselves high standards. C. Who make choices without thinking. D. Who assess their lives regularly. 14. What seem to be most author’s attitude towards contemporary world? A. Objective. B. Pessimistic. C. Positive. D. Indifferent. 15. According to author, which routine is he/she most likely to agree with? A. Struggling to get a promotion at work. B. Encouraging yourself to keep fit and do better. C. Being contented with the present. D. Spending your times seeking the best solution. 第二节(每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 There is quite a lot of research suggesting that fear of death is at the unconscious centre of being human. William James, an American philosopher, called the knowledge that we must die “the worm at the core” of the human condition. ____16____. This suggests that the experience of dying is more pleasant — or, at least, less unpleasant — than we might picture it. ____17____. In the BBC interview, he mentioned the importance of enjoying life and prioritising meaningful experiences, suggesting that acknowledging death can enhance our appreciation for life. Despite the pain and difficulties, Boas seemed cheerful, hoping his attitude would support his wife and parents during the difficult times ahead. In my work as a clinical psychologist, I sometimes meet people who have — or eventually arrive at — a similar outlook on life as Boas. One person especially comes to mind — let’s call him Johan. The first time I met Johan, he came to the clinic by himself, with a slight limp (瘸着走). We talked about life, about interests, relationships and meaning. Johan appeared to be lucid, clear and articulate. ____18____. One foot had begun to lag and he couldn’t trust his balance. When I asked him what his concerns were, he burst into tears. He said: “That I won’t get to celebrate my birthday next month.” We sat quietly for a while and took in the situation. ____19____. Johan arrived in a wheelchair the last time we met. There was one more thing he wanted to do. “If by some miracle I were to get out of this alive, I would like to volunteer in domestic care services.” Johan said. My experience of patients with life-threatening disease is that it’s possible to feel happiness alongside sadness, and other seemingly conflicting emotions. Over a day, patients can feel gratitude, remorse, longing, anger, guilt and relief — sometimes all at once. ____20____. A. But a study in Psychological Science shows that people nearing death use more positive language to describe their experience than those who just imagine death B. The second time, he came with crutches C. Facing the limits of existence can add perspective and help a person appreciate life more than ever D. The Roman philosopher Seneca once advised that: “To have lived long enough depends neither upon our years nor upon our days, but upon our minds.” E. It wasn’t the moment of death itself that weighed on him the most, it was all the things he wouldn’t be able to do again F. Simon Boas, who wrote a candid account of living with cancer, passed away on July 15 at the age of 47 G. We sat quietly for a while, digesting the situation 第三部分 语言运用(共二节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A heroin and crack cocaine addict (海洛因和快克可卡因成瘾者) who is approaching a decade of abstinence (禁欲期) is now on a ____21____ to give other addicts hope. Steve Wyatt, from Poole, Dorset, spent three years homeless on the streets, three years in prison and four years in ____22____ in the 22 years he ____23____ drink and drugs. His salvation (救赎)came in turning battered and beaten pieces of furniture into something beautiful. He is now sharing his story in some of the prisons he did time in to inspire others to follow his lead. “It’s taking that negative behaviour and turning it into something positive,” says Mr Wyatt, who now ____24____ restoring a whole range of iconic mid-century pieces. “Whatever I’ve got going on in my life, this is my best thinking time.” He has cured hangovers with heroin and plunged filthy used needles into his veins. The bigger the hole he jumped in, the deeper he ____25____. “I put my family through living hell,” he admits, ____26____ he did not see it at the time. “I thought it wasn’t affecting them. I thought it was all about me. I had an inability to accept personal responsibility. Nothing was ever my fault.” He was adopted by his parents when he was six months old. “My dad worked really hard and mum looked after us,” he says. But he describes feeling “totally different” ____27____ other children. He was bullied at school and set fire to things, smashing windows and bottles as an “escape”. He soon ____28____ the nickname “Wyatt-the-Riot”. He describes his journey into drug addiction as like “ ____29____ a ladder”. “The first time I really went ____30____ on the drink, I was about 12 years old,” he says. By the start of his teens, he was smoking cannabis. He ended up on heroin and crack cocaine, living on the streets and in hostels. During previous long spells in rehab, he had learned to restore antique ____31____. As he progressed through the drug rehabilitation programme in 2014, he decided to start a social enterprise restoring furniture with a friend. “I did it. I finally got ____32____,” he says proudly, acknowledging he could not have done it without the help and support of his family. Getting through the pandemic and subsequent cost of living ____33____ has been a struggle, but he is still passionate about what he does. “I’ve now had the great opportunity of going back into ____34____ and share my story,” he tells me, in the hope he can inspire other addicts. When I ask him what his message to others battling addiction might be, he is suddenly overwhelmed with ____35____. “I battled for twenty-two years, and I didn’t give up.” he says fighting back tears, “Every time you fail, get back up and keep fighting.” 21. A. mission B. punishment C. plan D. instruction 22. A. home B. recovery C. falling D. escape 23. A. backed down B. gave up C. left out D. took up 24. A. majors in B. devotes to C. separates from D. specialises in 25. A. lost B. fell C. dug D. saw 26. A. and B. but C. though D. so 27. A. with B. to C. by D. from 28. A. earned B. lost C. named D. refused 29. A. removing B. creating C. scaling D. breaking 30. A. heavy B. crazy C. lightly D. casually 31. A. toys B. furniture C. calligraphy D. collections 32. A. successful B. clean C. free D. innocent 33. A. happiness B. benefit C. crisis D. consumption 34. A. home B. shop C. school D. prison 35. A. emotion B. admiration C. gratitude D. longing 非选择题部分 第二节(每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，根据括号内提示在空白处填入适当1个单词或单词的适当形式。 Why make things simple when they can be complicated, then ____36____ (short)? French officialdom is abuzz with preparations for the PFUE, which the MEAE and SGAE are organising for the PR in 2022. Lost? Spare a thought for the outsider ____37____ must daily navigate the French passion for acronyms and initialisms. All countries use them, but France has a particular penchant. The ____38____ (late) PFUE refers to the French Presidency of the European Union, which starts ____39____ January 2022. No matter. The abbreviation is already everywhere, and, as the opening sentence says, officials from the foreign ministry and a secretariat in the prime minister’s office are preparing this occasion ____40____ the president. The ____41____ (prefer) of the French for abbreviations is so ingrained ____42____ they scarcely notice it. Britain may have its NHS, or America NASA. What is behind this zeal? Some date it to the ____43____ (organise) of the modern state in the late 19th century, when bodies such as unions (CGT) or the political movements that later joined together as the SFIO, the precursor to the Socialist Party (PS), emerged, and with them the complex names that deserved shortening. Perhaps it is also the result of the state’s tendency to bureaucratic complication; an acronym can ____44____ (simple) rather than confuse. So the Société Nationale des Chemins de fer Français (the national railway) becomes the less indigestible SNCF. The fact that practitioners of such an elegant language infect it with such abominations has not gone unnoticed. The Académie Française, ____45____ polices such matters, recommends that when it comes to acronyms “moderation is a good thing and abuse dangerous.” Curiously one of the few spheres in which the French leave pro li x descriptions alone is food. No CDC for confit de canard, nor BDV for blanquette de veau. Organisational or bureaucratic life, it seems, is to be tolerated and shortened. Gastronomy can take its time. 第四部分 写作(共二节，满分40分) 第一节 应用文写作(满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华，你今天在学校观看了经典话剧——老舍的《茶馆》，深有感触，想写一篇关于本话剧的推荐词投稿到某英文报刊上，内容包括： (1)《茶馆》的主要内容； (2)你的观后感触； (3)《茶馆》的时代意义。 注意： 1.所写短文的词数应为100左右； 2.可能用到的词：feudalism封建主义。 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 读后续写(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 My birth was a little more dramatic than the standard way a baby enters the world. Within minutes of coming out, I was whisked away into another room while doctors gave my parents the difficult news: I was born missing my left hand. I’m sure it was quite jarring for them. An entire hand was just…not there? Indeed, that announcement of my limb difference would come to define the rest of my life, and it might have been a disaster if it hadn’t been for what happened next. I’m told that a nurse bundled me up, took me back into the room, placed me in my mother’s arms and instructed: “You will take her home. You will love her. You will raise her like you would any child. You will treat her as normal.” Which is exactly what happened. That fact that I was different hit me hard my first day of high school. I was 13, an age when kids are already very self-conscious and the need to fit in is magnified (扩大). I remember getting on the yellow school bus and one of the other kids stared just a little too long at my left arm. The staring unnerved me in a way it never had before, and I felt a sudden urge to hide my hand, so I impulsively slipped it into my pocket. I told myself that I’d just hide it that one day, while I was trying to make friends. But one day of hiding turned into a week, which turned into a month, which became years — 25 of them to be exact. In my mind, I had decided that my missing hand made me hideous and that if people knew about it they would be scared of me and not want to be around me anymore. I internalized this self-loathing (自我厌恶), and it only strengthened over the years. Honestly, I was terrified that if I exposed my limb difference that people would find me as ugly as I found myself. I felt lonely and scared all the time. Everyone I shared my disability with — friend, co-worker or boyfriend — took it well and said kind things like, “You shouldn’t hide it” or “It’s no big deal.” But their words didn’t matter to me. The only words that really mattered were the ones I was telling myself, that story of how I was awful and unworthy of love. Hiding feels a lot like lying, and it’s hard to build close relationships when you constantly feel like you’re lying to your loved ones. And the more you hide, the harder it becomes to stop hiding. 注意： 1.所续写短文的词数应为150左右； 2.续写部分分为两段，每段的开头语已为你写好。 Paragraph 1 Interestingly enough, it was a date (约会) that convinced me to stop hiding my limb difference. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2 I changed my career, and my mission now is to expand the conversation about disability. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025年山东省高考模拟考试 英语试题(B) 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。全卷共12页，选择题部分1至10页，非选择题部分11至12页。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 考生注意： 1.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 2.答题时，请在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试卷上的作答一律无效。 选择题部分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where does the conversation take place? A. In the street. B. At the cinema. C. At the concert. 2. What sport did the man like to play in high school? A. Basketball. B. Badminton. C. Volleyball. 3. What is the boy likely to do next? A. Get changed. B. Have another cup of juice. C. Go to the doctor. 4. What are the speakers talking about? A. Their hobbies. B. Their desired talents. C. Their plans. 5. How much does the item cost today? A. $6. B. $14. C. $20. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the man ask Anna to do? A Tidy her room. B. Do the laundry. C. Wash the dishes. 7. How does the man sound in the end? A. Sorry. B. Annoyed. C. Understanding 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What is the man? A. A driver. B. A passenger. C. A radio host. 9. When does Winner’s Chinese usually end? A. At 7:00 a. m. B. At 6:40 a. m. C. At 6:20 a. m. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What is the man doing at the beginning of the conversation? A. Listening to his new CD. B. Doing his homework. C. Practicing pronunciation. 11. Which aspect of English is the woman poor at? A. Reading. B. Writing. C. Speaking. 12. What does the man advise the woman to do? A. Go to the English corner. B Meet his foreign friends. C. Practice English with him. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. How does the man sound at first? A. Angry. B. Confused. C. Excited. 14. What problem do the speakers have? A. They arrive at different places. B. They can’t agree on a place for sightseeing. C. They don’t know where the exhibition is. 15. Where is the man now? A. At the sculpture exhibit. B. At the entrance. C At the “Evolutions in Light” exhibit. 16. What is the woman going to do? A. Visiting artworks further. B. Standing still. C. Going to find the man. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the speaker doing? A. Tracking her monthly costs. B. Offering financial advice. C. Making a spending plan. 18. When does the speaker receive her salary every month? A. On the 5th. B. On the 7th. C. On the 15th. 19. What did the speaker buy on the last day of June? A. Beauty products. B. Clothes. C. Cat food. 20. What does the speaker plan to do? A. Find a part-time job. B. Watch her spending. C. Cut costs. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. B 3. C B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. D 5. B 6. C 7. C C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. A 10. B 11. C D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. C 13. A 14. B 15. C 第二节(每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. A 17. F 18. B 19. E 20. C 第三部分 语言运用(共二节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. B 23. D 24. D 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. A 非选择题部分 第二节(每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. shortened 37. who##that 38. latest 39. in 40. for 41. preference 42. that 43. organisation##organization 44. simplify 45. which 第四部分 写作(共二节，满分40分) 第一节 应用文写作(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】范文 Teahouse, a masterpiece by Lao She, vividly portrays the social changes in China through the life of Wang Lifa, a teahouse owner, across three historical periods: the late Qing Dynasty, warlord conflicts, and pre-1949 China. The play captures the struggles of ordinary people under feudalism and war, reflecting their hopes and despair. Deeply moved by the play, I was struck by its rich characters and emotional depth. The blend of humor and tragedy highlights human resilience, leaving me pondering history’s lessons. Teahouse remains timeless as it critiques social injustice and emphasizes collective strength during upheavals. It serves as a mirror to China’s past, urging us to cherish peace and progress. This classic is a must-watch for its historical insight and enduring relevance. 第二节 读后续写(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】范文 Interestingly enough, it was a date that convinced me to stop hiding my limb difference. During dinner, my trembling left sleeve accidentally slipped out of my pocket. Panicked, I tried to retreat, but he gently held my arm and said, “This is part of you, and it makes you unique.” His eyes held no pity, only sincere admiration. For the first time, I felt my imperfection could coexist with being loved. That night, I left my hand naturally exposed on the way home, feeling both fear and unprecedented liberation. I changed my career, and my mission now is to expand the conversation about disability. Through social media, I share stories of adapting to daily tasks with one hand. I collaborate with schools to design inclusion workshops where children touch prosthetic limbs and ask candid questions. Most importantly, I tell parents: “Your acceptance determines how your child sees themselves.” Every time I show my left arm publicly, it becomes a bridge connecting differences with understanding. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $