江苏省宿迁市沭阳县2024-2025学年高一下学期期中英语试题

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2025-04-26
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学段 高中
学科 英语
教材版本 高中英语译林版必修第三册
年级 高一
章节 -
类型 试卷
知识点 -
使用场景 同步教学-期中
学年 2025-2026
地区(省份) 江苏省
地区(市) 宿迁市
地区(区县) 沭阳县
文件格式 DOCX
文件大小 57 KB
发布时间 2025-04-26
更新时间 2025-04-28
作者 匿名
品牌系列 -
审核时间 2025-04-26
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来源 学科网

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2024~2025学年度第二学期期中调研测试 高一英语试卷 (考试时间:120分钟 总分:150分) 注意事项: 1、本试卷共分两部分,第Ⅰ卷为选择题,第Ⅱ卷为非选择题。 2、所有试题的答案均填写在答题纸或答题卡上,答案写在试卷上的无效。 第Ⅰ卷(选择题) 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 回答听力部分时,请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前,你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What bill has already been paid? A. The water bill. B. The electricity bill. C. The phone bill. 2. What time will the speakers have dinner? A. At 7:00. B. At 7:30. C. At 8:00. 3. Which place does the man recommend most strongly? A. The museum. B. The castle. C. The market. 4. Where are the speakers? A. In a tower. B. In a cinema. C. In a taxi. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. How Eve got the book. B. Whether Eve used the website. C. When Eve went to the bookshop. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. What are the speakers? A. High school students. B. College students. C. College graduates. 7. Which major does the woman think leads to good job opportunities? A. Math. B. Computing. C. Science. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。 8. How has the woman been today? A. Relaxed. B. Busy. C. Stressed. 9. What will the speakers do? A. Make some iced coffee. B. Visit a company. C. Go to a cafe. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10. What is the relationship between the man and Danny? A. Cousins. B. Brothers. C. Classmates. 11. How will the speakers go to the beach? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By train. 12 What do the speakers decide on at last? A. Where to meet. B. What to take. C. When to leave. 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。 13. How far will the cyclists travel at the most on a single day? A. 35 km. B. 45km. C. 50km. 14. What does the woman think of the daily cycling distance? A. Acceptable. B. Relaxing. C. Hard. 15 What does the woman care about most in hotels? A. The gym. B. The restaurant. C. The swimming pool. 16. Which meal will the cyclists have in the open air? A. Breakfast. B. Lunch. C. Dinner. 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。 17. What is Deep Blue? A. A chess master. B. An engineer. C. A computer. 18. What can Kasparov do in a second? A. Set up the chess board. B. Think of three approaches. C. Predict the other player’s moves. 19. What do we know about the first game? A. Kasparov won it. B. It lasted over four hours. C. An engineer assisted Kasparov. 20. What did the computer try to do in the second game? A. Avoid being tricked. B. Spend less time thinking. C. Lead Kasparov to make a mistake. 第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项. A The Chocolate Museum has the world’s most complete display on cocoa’s 5,000-year history. Activities include walking through a greenhouse, visiting a 3-meter-tall chocolate fountain, appreciating ancient items from pre-Columbian Mesoamerica and running historical industrial machines. Opening hours The Chocolate Museum is open daily from 10:00 to 18:00! The last admission to the museum is at 5:00 p. m., one hour before closing time! Payment options We accept EC cards and all major credit cards as well as cash at the box office. Tickets can be easily bought in advance through our online booking system. You can pay with PayPal or credit card. Notice Our offers are particularly suitable for different age groups. Our family tours are suitable for children from pre-school age. Our courses can be booked for children from the age of 8, but children up to the age of 10 must go to the museum with an adult. This is also a food-producing company, so dogs are not allowed in the museum. Discover & experience If you are interested in a private tour or group booking, please contact our visitor service by email at service@schokoladenmuseum. de or book your tour directly on our website! 1. What can the visitors do in the Chocolate Museum? A. Taste chocolates free of charge. B. Climb a chocolate fountain. C. Buy ancient Mesoamerican items. D. Operate factory machines. 2. What should tourists pay attention to? A Visitors can enter the museum until 5:30 p. m. B. Credit cards are not accepted at the box office. C. Adults must keep children under 12 company. D. Dogs are not welcome inside the museum area. 3. Where is the text probably from? A. A travel guidebook. B. A museum website. C. A school textbook. D. A news report. B A strong 7.9 earthquake hit central Myanmar on March 28,2025, causing major damage in the area. The earthquake was centered near Mandalay, the country’s second-largest city. The number of death has reached 2,719, with 4,521 people injured and many more still missing. The disaster unfolded in two phases: the first earthquake destroyed buildings, roads, and bridges, while aftershocks continued to cause problems. The earthquake happened along the Sagaing Fault, where the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates meet. Over many years, pressure built up between the plates and finally caused this earthquake. However, Myanmar’s old buildings, especially traditional ones made of wood and mud, were not strong enough to withstand the earthquake, which made the situation even worse. Countries around the world quickly sent help. China was one of the first to respond, sending rescue teams with medical supplies, shelter materials, and special equipment to find survivors. India, Russia, and Singapore also sent aid. The United Nations helped organize the aid efforts, showing that the world is united in helping Myanmar. However, rescuers faced many challenges. Roads and bridges were destroyed, making it hard to get aid to remote villages. There were also power cuts and communication problems. Bad weather made things worse, as rain could cause floods and spread diseases. Additionally, ongoing conflicts in northern Myanmar made it hard to get supplies to the affected areas, and hospitals in Mandalay were crowded with patients. Despite the difficulties, there were also stories of hope. Local volunteers worked hard to rescue people trapped in the rubble. In Mandalay, a pregnant woman was rescued after being trapped for 50 hours. Farmers and students also adapted quickly, planting crops in temporary fields and attending classes in tents. The earthquake showed Myanmar’ s weaknesses, but it also showed the strength of the people and the world’s support. As aftershocks continue, Myanmar’ s people are determined to rebuild their lives and hope for a better future. 4. What do we know about the earthquake on March 28,2025? A. It is the strongest earthquake in history. B. It caused minor damage to the old buildings. C. The main quake destroyed many constructions. D. Pressure built up between the plates in aftershocks. 5. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the difficulties in rescue efforts? A. Affected areas. B. Power failures. C. Inaccessible roads. D. Communication problems. 6. Why does the author mention the story of a pregnant woman in the last paragraph? A. To compare victims from different jobs. B. To show the theme of hope and recovery. C. To explain the difficulty of rescue efforts. D. To give an example of the earthquake’s impact. 7. What’s the author’s tone in writing the article? A. Concerned. B. Doubtful. C. Critical. D. Objective. C When you walk along a beach, you may spot colorful bits of broken glass in the sand. But these shiny treasures didn’t start out that way — they were once discarded as useless glass waste by humans. Over time, ocean waves wash and polish the broken glass, turning it into smooth “sea glass.” This process shows how human actions interact with Earth’s natural forces to create something unexpected and beautiful. Before the 1960s, many U. S. trash sites were left open to rain and wind. Since these sites were often near rivers or coasts, rainwater could wash trash — like glass bottles — into the ocean. On their way to the ocean, glass bottles would run into rocks and other objects, which would break the glass into smaller pieces. Waves then carried the pieces to the sea. Over time, waves push the glass along the sandy ocean floor, making it roll over and over. This process smooths sharp edges and turns clear glass into cloudy, frosted sea glass. Today, selling and trading sea glass has become a profitable industry in the United States. Sea glass jewelry and collections can be found at craft fairs and markets nationwide. However, due to the rise of single-use plastics as an another way to replace glass bottles, sea glass may soon become harder to find. To solve this problem, some businessmen have begun to produce artificial sea glass using rock tumblers and chemicals. Recycling glass can be challenging because it is heavy and not always cost-effective to transport. There are few markets for recycled glass. Despite these difficulties, recent environmental activists have pushed for more green ways to replace single-use plastics. Aluminum bottles and cans are becoming increasingly popular, but glass remains an optional way. When glass is not properly recycled, it continues to be thrown away, ensuring that natural sea glass will still appear on beaches for future generations to find and appreciate. 8. What does the underlined word “discarded” in paragraph 1 mean? A. picked out. B. thrown away. C. gathered together. D. cut down. 9. What happened to glass bottles before they reached the ocean? A. They were damaged by the sun. B. They were eaten by fish. C. They hit rocks and broke into pieces. D. They were collected by people. 10. How do businessmen solve the problem that sea glass is harder to find? A. By selling more jewelry. B. By collecting sea glass. C. By using aluminum bottles. D. By creating artificial sea glass. 11. What does the author imply about the future of natural sea glass? A. It’s not going away anytime soon. B. It will be replaced by aluminum cans. C. It will become increasingly expensive. D. It will disappear due to recycling efforts. D Imagine a world where technology helps doctors see diseases earlier develop treatments faster, and care for patients more personally. That’s the promise of Artificial Intelligence, or AI, in healthcare. AI’s first big role is in diagnosis. Think of it like a super-smart assistant for doctors. In skin cancer checks, AI algorithms (算法) can analyze skin images and spot melanoma — a dangerous skin cancer — with surprising accuracy. It can even notice tiny details that human eyes might miss. Similarly, when looking at X-rays or MRI scans, AI can quickly highlight areas that need a doctor’s attention, helping catch illnesses like cancer or heart disease sooner. Beyond diagnosis, AI speeds up drug development. By simulating molecular interactions, AI recognizes potential drug candidates faster and cheaper than traditional methods. This breakthrough could lead to lifesaving treatments for conditions like Alzheimer’s and cancer. Wearable devices, like smartwatches, are getting smarter thanks to AI. They can track your heart rate, sleep, and even stress levels. If something unusual is detected, like an irregular heartbeat, the device can send a warning, which lets you and your doctor act fast. AI can also help create treatment plans tailored just for you by considering your health history, lifestyle, and even genetics. While AI is powerful, it’s not perfect. It needs lots of data to learn, and if that data is biased — for example, mostly from one group of people — it might not work well for everyone. Furthermore, ethical dilemmas also arise. While AI improves decision-making, it cannot take the place of human empathy (同理心). Doctors can listen, empathize, and make complex decisions. Their intuition and patient communication remain irreplaceable. Striking a balance between AI efficiency and human touch is significant. So AI isn’t here to replace doctors or nurses. Instead, it’s a tool to help them provide better, faster, and more personalized care. As AI technology grows, so will our ability to rise to health challenges and improve lives. The future of healthcare isn’t just about machines — it’s about how we use them to work better together. 12. What is a key advantage of AI in diagnosis? A. It reduces the cost of MRI scans. B. It can replace radiologists completely. C. It speeds up hospital check-in processes. D. It detects illnesses missed by human doctors. 13. What can be inferred about about AI’s impact on healthcare? A. AI-powered wearable device can treat heart diseases. B. AI algorithms can only be used in skin cancer checks. C. AI will cause people’s need for hospitals to disappear. D. AI’s speeding up drug discovery might lead to breakthroughs. 14. Why might AI fail to work equally well for all patients? A. Because it lacks human empathy. B. Because it may learn from biased data. C. Because it can’t replace the human touch. D. Because it can’t improve human decisions. 15. What is the best title of this article? A. The Promise of AI: Serving as a Powerful Tool B. AI in Healthcare: Opportunities and Challenges C. The Future of Healthcare: Replacing Doctors with AI D. AI in Healthcare: Revolutionizing Diagnosis and Treatment 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分) 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Holidays are often a time of indulgence (放纵), even for those who are usually careful about their diets throughout the year. However, holiday eating is not just about avoiding excess calories; what we eat significantly impacts the health of our entire body, including the immune system. ___16___ During the holidays, we are more likely to encounter sweet, salty foods, and alcoholic beverages. ___17___ But they can potentially weaken our immune system. Consuming excessive amounts of sugar can cause inflammation in the blood vessels and brain. Processed foods and restaurant meals, which are often high in salt, can raise blood pressure. Excessive alcohol consumption can lower antibody production. Therefore, it’s crucial to limit your intake of sugar, salt, and alcohol. ___18___ Don’t ignore providing your immune system with the nutrients it needs for optimal (最佳的) health. Even during holiday parties, ensure your diet is rich in fiber and fermented foods. Fruits, vegetables, nuts, seeds, beans, and whole grains are excellent sources of fiber, which can help reduce inflammation. ___19___ For example, certain types of yogurt, sauerkraut, miso, pickles, and even some cheeses contain beneficial and live bacteria. Finally, don’t forget to incorporate healthy fats and proteins into your diet, as both are essential for maintaining overall bodily function. Besides, remember that even the busiest social calendar doesn’t include parties every night. ___20___ A. They taste great. B. Just as important as what you eat is what you do in parties. C. An occasional indulgence probably won’t cause lasting damage. D. Equally important as what you avoid is what you include in your diet. E. Minimize potential harm by maintaining a healthy diet on non-holiday days. F. You can also effectively support your health by consuming fermented foods. G. To keep your immune system functioning optimally, it’s essential to celebrate more mindfully. 第三部分 完形填空(共一节,满分15分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Admitted to Ocean University of China as a master’s student in Qingdao in 2015, I never imagined the journey that was in store for me. As a Pakistani, early days were ____21____ with new language. Limited Chinese meant depending on gestures and translation apps. Yet, ____22____ followed struggles: Independently ordering food at a noodle shop for the first time ever, joyfully making a Chinese friend that patiently corrected my pronunciation. The most ____23____ chapter of my life in Shandong was my 2017 cycling adventure. We started our journey on April 22, ____24____ bicycles, tool kits and an air pump. The first few days were ____25____— steep hills and changeable weather. ____26____, the warmth of villagers left a lasting impression. Many greeted us with smiles and ____27____ water and snacks. Through this journey, we proved China is welcoming to foreigners and that language barriers can be overcome with ____28____. After ____29____ my master’s, I joined Wuhan University for my PhD, where I experienced a completely ____30____ China. During the COVID-19, I saw the city’s togetherness — neighbors helping neighbors, healthcare workers working ____31____. It enabled me to better understood the meaning of ____32____. In the last decade, I’ve also seen China’s rapid ____33____ in technology, like QR codes and high-speed trains. Now I’m working in Dalian whose beautiful coastline ____34____ me of Qingdao. It’s here that I continue to build my careers, share challenges and joys and contribute to the growing China-Pakistan ____35____. 21. A. simple B. challenging C. smooth D. comfortable 22. A. dreams B. opportunities C. plans D. successes 23. A. memorable B. disastrous C. suitable D. mysterious 24. A. took on B. equipped with C. rode on D. covered with 25. A. perfect B. natural C. tough D. normal 26. A. Meanwhile B. Therefore C. However D. Otherwise 27. A. accepted B. charged C. delivered D. offered 28. A. kindness B. devotion C. courage D. honor 29. A. signing B. completing C. furthering D. graduating 30. A. intelligent B. regular C. different D. popular 31. A. extremely B. frequently C. continuously D. secretly 32. A. unity B. living C. generosity D. wisdom 33. A. profits B. strategies C. procedures D. advances 34. A. reminds B. informs C. warns D. recalls 35. A. issues B. belts C. affairs D. ties 第Ⅱ卷(非选择题) 第四部分 语言知识运用(共四节,总分55分) 第一节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。请将答案的完整形式写在答题卡上相应题号的横线上。 Shuyang, ___36___ (locate) in northern Jiangsu Province, is a charming county with “three treasures”: flower nurseries, historical figures and distinctive food. As China’s largest flower production base, over 50% of its population works in horticulture, ___37___ (create)endless sea of blossoms every spring. The town takes pride in being the hometown of Yu Ji, ___38___ legendary beauty whose courage inspired poets through Chinese history. Her statue stands in the Nanhu Park, ___39___ attracts many people to appreciate it. There is a ___40___ (vary) of delicious food in Shuyang. Among ___41___ (it) most typical dishes is “Xiao Bing Jia Rou”. Locals claim the secret lies ___42___ the 200-year-old fermentation method of the dough, and modern versions now ___43___ (include) various fillings like pork and vegetables. Great changes ___44___ (take) place in Shuyang over the past decades. However, what makes it unique is that it preserves tradition while embracing change. Farmers still use ancestral techniques ____45____ (grow) flowers, yet sell them through live-streaming. Old recipes gain new life as young chefs add coffee infusions to traditional pastries. Here, every bite and blossom tells a story. 第二节 单词拼写(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分) 根据首字母或中文提示写出单词,并注意所填单词的适当形式。 46. S________ into the habit was easy, but it was difficult to quit the habit. (根据首字母单词拼写) 47. When you wish to go on holiday, you can make all your travel a________ (安排) just in front of the computer. (根据中英文提示单词拼写) 48. Human activities have brought many animals close to e ________. (根据首字母单词拼写) 49. It immediately o__________ to her that these were signs of an approaching tsunami. (根据首字母单词拼写) 50. Water pollution is also caused by ________ (有毒的) chemicals used in agriculture. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 51. It’s our duty to protect the environment while we aim for ________ (经济的) development. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 52. She signalled to her students to exit the classroom in an ________ (有秩序的) line covering their heads with their hands. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 53. The trials on patients were likely to be postponed because they did not have s________ safety data. (根据首字母单词拼写) 54. The Internet has also made our lives unbelievably c________, with all sorts of goods and services provided by electronic commerce. (根据首字母单词拼写) 55. Thanks to her discovery of qinghaosu, malaria patients all over the world now have had a greatly increased chance of ________(生存). (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 第三节 句子填空(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 根据所给的汉语完成下列句子,使得句子意思完整。每空只填一个单词。 56. 欢迎来到这片丛林,这是一片绿色的海洋,到处都可以听到动物发出的声音。 Welcome to the jungle, a huge sea of green _____________ _____________ the sounds of animals. 57. 最终,我拿起了那本我一直想读的经典小说,很快就沉浸在那优美的文字中。 Finally, I ________ ________ the classic novel I had always wanted to read and was soon lost in the beautiful language. 58. 当你想到一个可怕的捕猎者,狮子和鲨鱼的形象可能立刻跃入脑海。 When you think of a fearsome hunter, images of lions and sharks may________ ________ ________. 59. 不过,为工厂说句公道话,我想指出的是我们也在努力控制所产生的污染量。 ______ ______ ______ the factories, however, I’d like to point out that we also try to control the amount of pollution we produce. 60. 我向窗外望去,结果却发现巨大的树木横倒在街道上,到处都是水。 I looked out of the window, ________ ________ see huge trees lying across the street and water everywhere. 第四节 写作(满分20分) 61. 每年的4月22日是世界地球日。随着全球变暖现象日益严峻,各种环境问题正威胁着人类的生存与发展。作为地球村的一员,我们每个人都肩负着保护环境的责任。请以“Beat Global Warming”为题撰写一篇倡议书,要点包括: 1.全球变暖的现状及后果;2.解决方案(至少两条);3.发出倡议。 注意: 1.写作词数应为80左右; 2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯; 3.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Beat Global Warming ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024~2025学年度第二学期期中调研测试 高一英语试卷 (考试时间:120分钟 总分:150分) 注意事项: 1、本试卷共分两部分,第Ⅰ卷为选择题,第Ⅱ卷为非选择题。 2、所有试题的答案均填写在答题纸或答题卡上,答案写在试卷上的无效。 第Ⅰ卷(选择题) 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 回答听力部分时,请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前,你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What bill has already been paid? A. The water bill. B. The electricity bill. C. The phone bill. 2. What time will the speakers have dinner? A. At 7:00. B. At 7:30. C. At 8:00. 3. Which place does the man recommend most strongly? A. The museum. B. The castle. C. The market. 4. Where are the speakers? A. In a tower. B. In a cinema. C. In a taxi. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. How Eve got the book. B Whether Eve used the website. C. When Eve went to the bookshop. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. What are the speakers? A. High school students. B. College students. C. College graduates. 7. Which major does the woman think leads to good job opportunities? A. Math. B. Computing. C. Science. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。 8. How has the woman been today? A. Relaxed. B. Busy. C. Stressed. 9. What will the speakers do? A. Make some iced coffee. B. Visit a company. C. Go to a cafe. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10. What is the relationship between the man and Danny? A. Cousins. B. Brothers. C. Classmates. 11. How will the speakers go to the beach? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By train. 12. What do the speakers decide on at last? A. Where to meet. B. What to take. C. When to leave. 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。 13. How far will the cyclists travel at the most on a single day? A. 35 km. B. 45km. C. 50km. 14. What does the woman think of the daily cycling distance? A. Acceptable. B. Relaxing. C. Hard. 15. What does the woman care about most in hotels? A. The gym. B. The restaurant. C. The swimming pool. 16. Which meal will the cyclists have in the open air? A. Breakfast. B. Lunch. C. Dinner. 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。 17. What is Deep Blue? A. A chess master. B. An engineer. C. A computer. 18. What can Kasparov do in a second? A. Set up the chess board. B. Think of three approaches. C. Predict the other player’s moves. 19. What do we know about the first game? A. Kasparov won it. B. It lasted over four hours. C. An engineer assisted Kasparov. 20. What did the computer try to do in the second game? A. Avoid being tricked. B. Spend less time thinking. C. Lead Kasparov to make a mistake. 第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项. A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. D 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. D 14. B 15. B 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分) 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. G 17. A 18. D 19. F 20. E 第三部分 完形填空(共一节,满分15分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. D 第Ⅱ卷(非选择题) 第四部分 语言知识运用(共四节,总分55分) 第一节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. located 37. creating 38. a 39. which 40. variety 41. its 42. in 43. include 44. have taken 45. to grow 第二节 单词拼写(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分) 根据首字母或中文提示写出单词,并注意所填单词的适当形式。 【46题答案】 【答案】Sliding##liding 【47题答案】 【答案】arrangements##rrangements 【48题答案】 【答案】extinction##xtinction 【49题答案】 【答案】occurred##ccurred 【50题答案】 【答案】poisonous 【51题答案】 【答案】economic 【52题答案】 【答案】orderly 【53题答案】 【答案】sufficient##ufficient 【54题答案】 【答案】convenient##onvenient 【55题答案】 【答案】survival 第三节 句子填空(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 根据所给的汉语完成下列句子,使得句子意思完整。每空只填一个单词。 【56题答案】 【答案】 ①. alive ②. with 【57题答案】 【答案】 ①. picked ②. up 【58题答案】 【答案】 ①. spring ②. to ③. mind 【59题答案】 【答案】 ①. In ②. defence/defense ③. of 【60题答案】 【答案】 ①. only ②. to 第四节 写作(满分20分) 【61题答案】 【答案】Beat Global Warming As the global warming increases, it results in a number of environmental challenges that threatens human survival and development. As citizens of this Earth village, each one of us bears the responsibility to protect our environment. Firstly, we must adopt renewable energy sources such as solar, wind, and hydroelectric power to reduce our dependence on fossil fuels. Changing to clean energy will significantly decrease greenhouse gas emissions. Secondly, individuals and communities should employ sustainable practices in daily life, which includes reducing waste, saving water and energy, and promoting the use of eco-friendly products. Each individual should make continuous efforts to live responsibly and contribute to environmental conservation. Together, we can create a sustainable future for generations to come. 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$

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江苏省宿迁市沭阳县2024-2025学年高一下学期期中英语试题
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江苏省宿迁市沭阳县2024-2025学年高一下学期期中英语试题
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江苏省宿迁市沭阳县2024-2025学年高一下学期期中英语试题
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