内容正文:
听力考试正式开始。A cold day isn't IT. I wonder how long the snowy weather will last. It's already february IT will be Sunny next week. A cold day isn't IT. I wonder how long the snowy weather will last. It's already february. Its will be Sunny next week. Listen to the next question. Excuse me, could you tell me where the nearest restaurant is? Sure, the restaurant is across from the street next to a bank. Excuse me, could you tell me where the nearest restaurant is? Sure, the restaurant is across from the street next to a bank. Listen to the next question. What do you want to be in the future, tom? My parents like the food I made very much, so I would like to be a cook when I grow up. What do you want to be in the future, tom? My parents like the food I made very much, so I would like to be a cook when I grow up. Listen to the next question. Sorry, you must not smoke in the library. Oh, sorry, I didn't see the sign here. Sorry, you mustn't smoke in the library. Oh, sorry, I didn't see the sign here. Listen to the next question. Look, there's something jumping in the tree. They be monkeys. They are good at climbing trees. Look, there's something jumping in the tree. They must be monkeys. They are good at climbing trees. Listen to the next question. You look worried, bob. Yes, mary, I am having trouble learning english. You said you liked english. What's the problem? I can't get the pronunciation right. Well, listening can help. Why don't you borrow the teachers tapes? You can listen to them at home and repeat the sentences that are difficult for you. That's a good idea. Thank you. You look worried, bob. Yes, mary, I am having trouble learning english. You said you like englished. What's the problem? I can't get the pronunciation right. Well, listening can help. Why don't you borrow the teacher's tapes? You can listen to them at home and repeat the sentences that are difficult for you. That's a good idea. Thank you. Listen to the next question. What are you doing, tina? I'm clearing out my old things. Oh, what are the things over there? There are some soft toys and board games. Let me have a look. This toy panda look so pretty. Who gave IT to you. my and gave IT to me on my tenth birthday. What will you do with IT? I'll give IT to sunshine home for children. That's a good idea. What are you doing, tina? I'm clearing out my old things. Oh, what are the things over there? There are some soft toys and board games. Let me have a look. This toy panda looks so pretty. Who gave IT to you my. and gave IT to me on my tenth birthday. What will you do with IT? I'll give IT the sunshine home . for children. That's a good idea. Listen to the next question. What do you usually do in your free time? Frank. I usually listen to music at home. really. What kind of music do you like? Pop music? What about you? kate? I like rock music. Wow, such a quiet girl. Like you enjoys rock music. IT always makes me . feel excited. What do you usually do in your free time? Frank. I usually listen to music at home. Really, what kind of music do you like? Pop music? What about you? kate? I like rock music. Wow, such a quiet girl like you enjoys rock music. IT always makes me feel excited. Listen to the next question. Come on, maria. Help yourself to some fish. Okay, it's delicious. Who cooked IT? My sister bought IT from the . restaurant lily. Where is he? Ask her to join us for dinner. SHE is cooking chicken soup in the kitchen. Chicken soup is my favorite, by the way, is IT polite to eat noise ily in your country? No, IT isn't. But in japan, it's polite to do that. IT means you like the food very much. The chicken soup is ready. Have a taste, please. Come on, maria, help yourself to some fish. Okay, it's delicious. Who cooked IT? My sister bought IT from the restaurant lily. Where is he? Ask her to join us for dinner. SHE is cooking chicken soup in the kitchen. Chicken soup is my favorite, by the way, is IT polite to eat noise y in your country? No, IT isn't. But in japan, it's polite to do that. IT means you like the food very much. The chicken soup is ready. Have a taste, please. Listen to the next question. Happy new year, Frank. The same to you, Cindy. how time flies. One year has been a history already. Yeah, it's true. Have you made some resolutions for the coming . new year resolutions? Yes, I want to be healthier this year, so I think I should take more exercise and eat more helpfully. How about you? I am going to play tennis more to keep healthy, and I think I will do more reading to improve myself. Anything else? You know, resolutions are the promise you make to yourself. yeah. Or maybe I should make a plan about learning physics. My physics teacher said that I should spend more time . on IT sounds great. Let's go to make our plans. Let's go. Happy new year, friend. The same to you, Cindy. how time flies. One year has been a history already. Yeah, it's true. Have you made some resolutions for the coming . new year resolutions? Yes, I want to be healthier this year, so I think I should take more exercise and eat more helpfully. How about you? I am going to play tennis more to keep healthy, and I think I will do more reading to improve myself. Anything else? You know, resolutions are the promise you make to yourself. yeah. Or maybe I should make a plan about learning physics. My physics teacher said that I should spend more time . on IT sounds great. Let's go to make our plans. Let's go. Listen to the next question. dear amy, i'm very glad to tell you something about one of the most important traditional chinese festivals, the mid autumn festival every year. IT falls on the fifteenth day of the eight lunar month and is celebrated by chinese people all over the world. On this day, the moon is usually big and bright. People like to meet in the evening and watch the moon. The mid autum festival is important because IT is a special occasion for the chinese to get together with their families. IT is also a day for special foods like moon cakes. There are all kinds of moon cakes. Traditional moon cakes are usually made with being paced, but nowadays there are many different kinds of moon cakes, including fruit, coffee, chocolate and even ice cream moon cakes among them. I like fruit moon cakes best. I really hope we can celebrate the mid auto festival together next year and enjoy moon cakes while watching the moon. Yours. lisa. Dear amy, i'm very glad to tell you something about one of the most important traditional chinese festivals, the mid autumn festival every year. IT falls on the fifteenth day of the eighth lunar month and is celebrated by chinese people all over the world on this day, the moon is usually big and bright. People like to meet in the evening and watch the moon. The mid autumn festival is important because IT is a special occasion for the chinese to get together with their families. IT is also a day for special foods like moon cakes. There are all kinds of moon cakes. Traditional moon cakes are usually made with being paced, but nowadays there are many different kinds of moon cakes, including fruit, coffee, chocolate and even ice cream moon cakes among them. I like fruit moon cakes best. I really hope we can celebrate the mid autom festival together next year and enjoy moon cakes while watching the moon. Yours, lisa. 听力部分到此结束。
2025年中考第二次模拟考试(湖南长沙卷)
英语·答题卡
名:
条码粘贴处
考
缺考标记口
注意事项
违纪标记一
1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚
以上标记由监考
2.请将准考正条码锅贴在右的条码粘贴处的方框内。
3.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用0.5mm黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整
人员用2B铅笔
4,请按题号顺序在各题的塔题区内答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
填涂刻
5.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮利纸刀。
填涂样例正确■错误「一√】[×]
选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂)
(1一20小题,每小题1分21-35每小题2分;36一45小题,
每小题15分)
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英语第1页(共2页)
五、短文填空(10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
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六、阅读短文回答问题(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)。
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八、书面表达(15分)
英语第2页(共2页)
2025年中考第二次模拟考试(湖南长沙卷)
英 语
(考试时间:90分钟 试卷满分:100分)
注意事项:
1、答题前,请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚,并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考室和座位号;
2、必须在答题卡上答题,在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效;
3、答题时,请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示;
4、请勿折叠答题卡,保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁;
5、答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸;
6、本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
I.听力(共两节,满分20分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前,你都有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。(共5小题,计5分)
1.How’s the weather now?
A.Sunny. B.Rainy. C.Cold.
【答案】C
【原文】W: A cold day, isn’t it? I wonder how long the snowy weather will last?
M: It’s already February. It will be sunny next week.
2.What is next to the restaurant?
A.A hotel. B.A post office. C.A bank.
【答案】C
【原文】W: Excuse me, could you tell me where the nearest restaurant is?
M: Sure, the restaurant is across from the street, next to a bank.
3.What does Tom want to be?
A.A policeman. B.A scientist. C.A cook.
【答案】C
【原文】W: What do you want to be in the future, Tom?
M: My parents like the food I made very much. So I would like to be a cook when I grow up.
4.Where are the speakers?
A.In a library. B.On a bus. C.On the road.
【答案】A
【原文】W: Sorry, you mustn’t smoke in the library.
M: Oh, sorry. I didn’t see the sign here.
5.Which animal are the speakers talking about?
A.Birds. B.Tigers. C.Monkeys.
【答案】C
【原文】W: Look, there’s something jumping in the tree.
M: They must be monkeys. They are good at climbing trees.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
6.What’s Bob’s trouble?
A.He can’t get the pronunciation right.
B.He makes mistakes in grammar.
C.He can’t spell some new words.
7.What’s Mary’s advice on English learning?
A.Making flashcards. B.Listening to tapes. C.Joining an English language club.
【答案】6.A 7.B
【详解】W: You look worried, Bob?
M: Yes, Mary. I am having trouble learning English.
W: You said you liked English. What’s the problem?
M: I can’t get the pronunciation right.
W: Well, listening can help. Why don’t you borrow the teacher’s tapes? You can listen to them at home and repeat the sentences that are difficult for you.
M: That’s a good idea. Thank you!
听一段材料,回答下面两个小题。
8.Who gave the toy panda to Tina?
A.Her aunt. B.Her parents. C.Her grandma.
9.When did she get the toy panda?
A.On her fifth birthday. B.On her tenth birthday. C.On her fourth birthday.
【答案】8.A 9.B
【原文】M: What are you doing, Tina?
W: I’m clearing out my old things.
M: Oh. What are the things over there?
W: They are some soft toys and board games.
M: Let me have a look. This toy panda looks so pretty. Who gave it to you?
W: My aunt gave it to me on my tenth birthday.
M: What will you do with it?
W: I’ll give it to Sunshine Home for Children.
M: That’s a good idea.
听一段材料,回答下面两个小题。
10.What does Frank usually do in his free time?
A.He listens to music. B.He reads books. C.He watches movies.
11.How does rock music make Kate feel?
A.Bored. B.Relaxed. C.Excited.
【答案】10.A 11.C
【原文】W: What do you usually do in your free time, Frank?
M: I usually listen to music at home.
W: Really? What kind of music do you like?
M: Pop music. What about you, Kate?
W: I like rock music.
M: Wow, such a quiet girl like you enjoys rock music?
W: Yes. It always makes me feel excited.
听一段材料,回答下面三个小题。
12.What are the speakers doing?
A.Having dinner. B.Cooking meals. C.Buying fish.
13.Who cooked the fish?
A.Lily. B.Lily’s sister. C.The cook in the restaurant.
14.What does it mean when you eat noisily in Japan?
A.The food is hot. B.You still need more food. C.The food is delicious.
【答案】12.A 13.C 14.C
【原文】M: Come on, Maria. Help yourself to some fish.
W: OK, it’s delicious. Who cooked it?
M: My sister bought it from the restaurant.
W: Lily, Where is she? Ask her to join us for dinner.
M: She is cooking chicken soup in the kitchen.
W: Chicken soup is my favorite. By the way, is it polite to eat noisily in your country?
M: No, it isn’t.
W: But in Japan, it’s polite to do that. It means you like the food very much.
M: The chicken soup is ready. Have a taste, please.
听一段材料,回答下面三个小题。
15.What are they talking about?
A.New Year’s resolutions. B.Their school subjects. C.The history about the promise.
16.How is Cindy going to be healthier?
A.By reading more. B.By spending more time on tennis.
C.By taking more exercise and eating more healthily.
17.Which of the following is NOT Frank going to do?
A.Make a plan for physics.B.Stay in good health. C.Spend more time on the piano.
【答案】15.A 16.C 17.C
【原文】W: Happy New Year, Frank!
M: The same to you. Cindy.
W: How time flies! One year has been a history already.
M: Yeah, it’s true. Have you made some resolutions for the coming New Year?
W: Resolutions? Yes, I want to be healthier this year. So I think I should take more exercise, and eat more healthily. How about you?
M: I am going to play tennis more to keep healthy, and I think I will do more reading to improve myself.
W: Anything else? You know resolutions are the promise you make to yourself.
M: Yeah. Or maybe I should make a plan about leaning physics. My physics teacher said that I should spend more time on it.
W: Sounds great. Let’s go to make our plans.
M: Let’s go.
听一段材料,回答下面三个小题。
18.What is the moon like on the Mid-Autumn Festival?
A.Small but bright. B.Big and bright. C.Small and round.
19.Why is the Mid-Autumn Festival important?
A.Because it’s a special occasion for family reunions (团聚).
B.Because people can enjoy the moon together.
C.Because people can eat mooncakes on this day.
20.What are the speaker’s favorite mooncakes?
A.Ice-cream mooncakes. B.Coffee mooncakes. C.Fruit mooncakes.
【答案】18.B 19.A 20.C
【原文】Dear Amy,
I’m very glad to tell you something about one of the most important traditional Chinese festivals—the Mid-Autumn Festival. Every year, it falls on the 15th day of the eighth lunar month, and is celebrated by Chinese people all over the world. On this day, the moon is usually big and bright. People like to meet in the evening and watch the moon. The Mid-Autumn Festival is important because it is a special occasion for the Chinese to get together with their families. It is also a day for special foods like mooncakes. There are all kinds of mooncakes. Traditional mooncakes are usually made with bean paste, but nowadays, there are many different kinds of mooncakes, including fruit, coffee, chocolate and even ice-cream mooncakes. Among them, I like fruit mooncakes best. I really hope we can celebrate the Mid-Autumn Festival together next year, and enjoy mooncakes while watching the moon.
Yours,
Lisa
II.阅读(共三节,满分30分)
第一节 (共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)
阅读下列材料,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Here are 3 kinds of apps that are useful in our daily life now.
**DeepSeek**: A smart platform (平台) that uses AI to help people with tasks like writing and learning. It makes technology easy to use and helps everyone work faster.
**Quizlet**: A study tool that helps users master subjects through flashcards, quizzes (小测试), and games. It supports a wide range (范围) of topics and allows users to create their own study sets.
**Duolingo**: A popular language-learning app offering small lessons in over 30 languages. It uses games to make learning fun, with exercises in reading, writing, listening, and speaking.
21.If you want to write a passage quickly, you can use the app _______.
A.Deepseek B.Quizlet C.Duolingo
22.Which is right about the app Duolingo?
A.It can help people create their own study sets.
B.It uses quizzes to help people learn.
C.It uses games to help people learn languages.
【答案】21.A 22.C
【导语】本文介绍了三种现在日常生活中非常有用的应用程序,它们分别是DeepSeek、Quizlet和Duolingo。每款应用都有其独特的功能,旨在帮助用户提高工作效率、学习成绩或语言能力。
21.细节理解题。根据文中对DeepSeek的描述,“A smart platform that uses AI to help people with tasks like writing and learning”可知,DeepSeek可以帮助写作和学习,适合快速写作。故选A。
22.细节理解题。根据文中对Duolingo的描述,“It uses games to make learning fun, with exercises in reading, writing, listening, and speaking”可知,Duolingo通过游戏来帮助学习语言。故选C。
B
“Ne Zha 2” is an exciting animated (动画的) movie that continues the story of the brave young hero, Ne Zha. In the first movie, Ne Zha was born with special powers, but people were afraid of him because they thought he was a demon (恶魔) . However, NeZha didn’t give up. He fought against evil (邪恶) and proved that he could be a hero with his courage and determination (决心).
In “NeZha 2”, NeZha faces new challenges and meets new friends. Together, they go on an exciting adventure, solving problems and facing dangers. The movie has beautiful animations (动画) with bright colors and lively characters. The action scenes are thrilling, and the story is full of surprises.
One of the important messages in the movie is that anyone can be a hero if they believe in themselves. Ne Zha learns to control his powers and make the right choices. He also discovers that true strength comes from the heart. The movie teaches us about friendship, bravery, and never giving up. It is a great movie for both children and adults, and it reminds us that we can all overcome our challenges and become the best version of ourselves.
23.What was the problem with Ne Zha in the first movie?
A.He didn’t have any powers.
B.He didn’t want to be a hero.
C.People were afraid of him because they though the was a demon.
24.What does the underlined word “thrilling” in Paragraph 2 mean?
A.Boring. B.Exciting. C.Terrible.
25.Who is the movie suitable (适合的) for?
A.Only children. B.Only adults. C.Children and adults.
26.What does the movie “Ne Zha 2” mainly teach us?
A.We should always avoid challenges.
B.It’s OK to give up when things get difficult.
C.It teaches us about friendship, bravery, and the spirit of never giving up.
【答案】23.C 24.B 25.C 26.C
【导语】本文介绍了动画电影《哪吒2》的故事情节和主题。电影讲述了哪吒在面对新的挑战时,展现出勇气和决心,最终成为英雄的故事。
23.细节理解题。根据文中“In the first movie, Ne Zha was born with special powers, but people were afraid of him because they thought he was a demon (恶魔) .”可知,第一部《哪吒》中,哪吒的问题在于人们认为他是恶魔,因此害怕他。故选C。
24.词句猜测题。根据文中“The movie has beautiful animations (动画) with bright colors and lively characters. The action scenes are thrilling, and the story is full of surprises.”可知,电影中动作场面惊险刺激,故事充满惊喜,所以“thrilling”一词用来形容动作场面,结合上下文可以推测其意为“激动人心的”。故选B。
25.细节理解题。根据文中“It is a great movie for both children and adults”可知,这部电影适合儿童和成年人观看。故选C。
26.主旨大意题。根据文中“The movie teaches us about friendship, bravery, and never giving up.”可知,电影主要传递了友谊、勇敢和永不放弃的精神。故选C。
C
The UNESCO added “Spring Festival, social practices of the Chinese people in celebration of the traditional New Year” to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity (人类非物质文化遗产代表作名录) on December 4, 2024.
The Spring Festival, also called Chinese New Year, is one of the most important festival practiced in China and around the world. During this festival, people wish for good things to happen in the future and for everyone to be happy and healthy.
Celebrations for the Spring Festival last for 15 days, ending with the Lantern Festival, to give full play to family gatherings and different cultural activities. Many of these celebrations and events that have been passed down from generation (代;辈) to generation are practiced in China, Asia and around the world. They include paper-cuttings, the dragon dance and lantern festival events, together forming the happiest days for those who celebrate this event.
On the second day of the Spring Festival, people usually go to visit temples (寺庙) to pray (祈祷) for good luck and celebrate the new year. There are many activities at the temple fairs, like traditional shows, folk art, and selling local handicrafts (手工艺品) and foods.
The Lantern Festival, traditionally held on the 15th day of the Spring Festival, marks (标志) the end of Chinese New Year celebrations. During this festival, lively lanterns of all shapes and sizes are shown. People gather in public spaces to admire the lanterns, solve riddles (谜语) written on them, and enjoy performances like dragon dances. Many Lantern Festival events, including the famous Zigong lantern show in Southwest China’s Sichuan Province, have been listed as National Intangible Cultural Heritage items.
根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。
27.How long do the celebrations for the Spring Festival last (持续)?
A.7 days. B.10 days. C.15 days.
28.What do people usually do on the second day of the Spring Festival?
A.Have a big family feast. B.Visit temples. C.Watch the Lantern Festival show.
29.What is special about the Lantern Festival?
A.It’s the first day of the Spring Festival.
B.It marks the end of Chinese New Year celebrations.
C.There are no traditional performances during it.
30.When was the Spring Festival added to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
A.On December 4, 2024. B.On January 1, 2024. C.On January 1, 2025.
【答案】27.C 28.B 29.B 30.A
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要讲述了春节作为中国最重要的传统节日之一,被联合国教科文组织列入人类非物质文化遗产代表作名录,并详细介绍了春节的庆祝活动、习俗以及元宵节的特殊意义。
27.细节理解题。根据“Celebrations for the Spring Festival last for 15 days, ending with the Lantern Festival”可知,春节庆祝活动持续15天。故选C。
28.细节理解题。根据“On the second day of the Spring Festival, people usually go to visit temples to pray for good luck and celebrate the new year”可知,春节第二天人们通常会去寺庙祈福。故选B。
29.细节理解题。根据“The Lantern Festival, traditionally held on the 15th day of the Spring Festival, marks the end of Chinese New Year celebrations”可知,元宵节标志着春节庆祝活动的结束。故选B。
30.细节理解题。根据“The UNESCO added ‘Spring Festival, social practices of the Chinese people in celebration of the traditional New Year’ to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity on December 4, 2024”可知,春节于2024年12月4日被列入人类非物质文化遗产代表作名录。故选A。
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余项。
Ever since the first cars were built, carmakers have been working to make them better. There have been a lot of changes. So here are some interesting ideas!
A Cleaner, Cheaper Car?
There are already a lot of electric cars on the road. Someday, they may be great. 31 Some electric cars run on gasoline part of the time. So they still dirty the air. Also, someday they might cost less, but now most electric cars cost a lot of money.
Many of today’s electric cars run on batteries. 32 The driver has to wait for the batteries to be charged up before using the car again. And if a driver is away from home, he or she may have a hard time finding a place to plug in the car to recharge.
A Faster Car?
Some inventors think that a flying car is a great idea. 33 If driving on the road is too slow, these cars will rise up in the air. Someday, there may be a lot of flying cars. Could that lead to traffic jams in the sky?
A Safer Car?
34 But some inventors think that cars would be safer if they drove themselves. They say that people usually make mistakes but a self-driving car would not.
At least one company is getting ready to sell cars that drive themselves. 35 But not everyone is ready to accept that a machine would be a better driver than a human.
Someday, there may even be self-driving cars that can also fly and run on electricity. That could solve a lot of problems!
A.But right now there are still some problems.
B.Seat belts and airbags help keep you safe now.
C.They say it would help people get to places faster.
D.The cars use special cameras and other tools to drive.
E.The batteries may not take the car very far because they easily run out of power.
【答案】31.A 32.E 33.C 34.B 35.D
【导语】本文是一篇说明文,主要讲述了汽车制造商为改进汽车所做的一些创新,包括更清洁、更便宜的汽车、更快的汽车以及更安全的汽车,并探讨了这些创新的优缺点。
31.根据“Some electric cars run on gasoline part of the time. So they still dirty the air. Also, someday they might cost less, but now most electric cars cost a lot of money.”可知,电动汽车目前存在的一些问题,如部分时间靠汽油驱动污染空气、价格昂贵等,所以此空应引出这些问题,选项A“但目前仍然存在一些问题”符合语境。故选A。
32.根据“The driver has to wait for the batteries to be charged up before using the car again. And if a driver is away from home, he or she may have a hard time finding a place to plug in the car to recharge.”可知,电动汽车的电池续航能力有限,此空应围绕电池的问题展开,选项E“电池可能无法让汽车行驶很远,因为它们很容易没电”符合语境。故选E。
33.根据“Some inventors think that a flying car is a great idea..... If driving on the road is too slow, these cars will rise up in the air.”可知,此空应说明飞行汽车好的原因,选项C“他们说它能帮助人们更快地到达目的地”符合语境。故选C。
34.根据“But some inventors think that cars would be safer if they drove themselves. They say that people usually make mistakes but a self-driving car would not.”可知,空后说的是自动驾驶,有转折词but,说明此空应先提到手动驾驶目前让汽车安全的方式,选项B“现在安全带和安全气囊帮助保证你的安全”符合语境。故选B。
35.根据“At least one company is getting ready to sell cars that drive themselves....But not everyone is ready to accept that a machine would be a better driver than a human.”可知,此空应说明自动驾驶汽车的相关情况,选项D“这些汽车使用特殊的摄像头和其他工具来驾驶”符合语境。故选D。
III.语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Thousands of plastic bottles are thrown away every second. While a small part of them get recycled, most of them end up in the 36 . There, they break up into smaller pieces. Fish often consider them as food by mistake. Robert Bezeau 37 the world’s plastic problem, so he thinks of an idea to make people pay attention to it.
Bezeau started a recycling project in 2012, after noticing plastic waste being 38 thrown on the beautiful beaches. During one year and a half, Bezeau and his volunteers collected over a million plastic bottles! But how could they deal with these bottles? He thought that they could use the bottles to 39 houses, and then the Plastic Bottle Village was born. The project is still in its 40 . So far, only a small number of houses have been built. But 41 Bezeau keeps doing it, there will soon be a special community and 90 to 120 families will live in the village.
Interestingly, the bottles are good insulators (隔热材料) which help keep the houses at 42 temperature. People living in the houses don’t need air conditioners (空调) in summer.
Bezeau also plans to build a training center. He wants more people to 43 how to make good use of the plastic waste.
Recycling plastic bottles is 44 in the plastic problem. However, the smartest thing to do is to 45 the use of plastic completely. So please do your part!
36.A.grass B.earth C.ocean
37.A.worries about B.agrees with C.finds out
38.A.politely B.carelessly C.quickly
39.A.cover B.buy C.build
40.A.decision B.beginning C.discussion
41.A.before B.though C.if
42.A.high B.comfortable C.dangerous
43.A.teach B.forget C.learn
44.A.helpful B.terrible C.useless
45.A.allow B.avoid C.doubt
【答案】
36.C 37.A 38.B 39.C 40.B 41.C 42.B 43.C 44.A 45.B
【导语】本文主要介绍了Robert Bezeau关注到塑料垃圾的问题,并且尽自己的努力来改善,文章呼吁我们应当尽自己的一份力。
36.句意:他们中的一小部分被回收了,大多数还是最终落入大海。
grass草;earth地球;ocean海洋。根据“thrown on the beautiful beaches.”可知,此处应当是落入大海。故选C。
37.句意:Robert Bezeau担忧这个世界性的塑料问题。
worries about担忧;agrees with同意;finds out查明。根据“the world’s plastic problem, so he thinks of an idea to make people pay attention to it.”可知,塑料问题应当是让人担忧。故选A。
38.句意:在注意到塑料垃圾被粗心地扔在美丽的沙滩上之后,Robert Bezeau在2012年开展了一个回收项目。
politely礼貌地;carelessly粗心地;quickly快速地。根据“thrown on the beautiful beaches.”可知,垃圾被扔在沙滩上,应当是一件坏事,排除A选项;另外扔垃圾不是一件快慢的事情,排除C选项。故选B。
39.句意:他认为他们可以用塑料瓶建造房屋。
cover覆盖;buy购买;build建造。根据“So far, only a small number of houses have been built.”可知,此处是建造房屋。故选C。
40.句意:这个项目仍然在开始当中。
decision决定;beginning开始;discussion讨论。根据“So far, only a small number of houses have been built.”可知,只有一小部分房子建好了,因此还在开始中。故选B。
41.句意:但是如果Bezeau继续做这件事,很快将会有一个特殊社区,90到120户家庭将会生活在这个村庄里。
before在之前;though尽管;if如果。根据“Bezeau keeps doing it, there will soon be a special community and 90 to 120 families will live in the village.”可知,横线后的第一句话,是创设了一个前提条件,应用条件状语从句的连词。故选C。
42.句意:有趣的是,塑料瓶是极好的隔热材料能帮助房子保持在一个合适的温度。
high高的;comfortable舒适的;dangerous危险的。根据“People living in the houses don’t need air conditioners (空调) in summer.”可知,居住在房子里的人夏天不需要开空调,因此温度很舒适。故选B。
43.句意:他想要更多的人们来学习如何充分利用塑料垃圾。
teach教授;forget忘记;learn学习。根据“how to make good use of the plastic waste.”可知,如何充分利用塑料瓶,是一种技巧,应当是学习。故选C。
44.句意:在塑料问题当中,回收塑料瓶子是有帮助的。
helpful有帮助的;terrible糟糕的;useless无用的。根据“Recycling plastic bottles is”可知,回收是一件好事,能促进资源的再利用,因此是有帮助的。故选A。
45.句意:然而,最明智的选择是,完全避免使用塑料。
allow允许;avoid避免;doubt怀疑。根据“the use of plastic completely.”结合选项可知,完全避免使用塑料,符合语境。故选B。
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
On January 28, 2025, a special performance called YangBOT amazed audiences at the CCTV Spring Festival Gala, China’s most-watched TV show. 46 (direct) by famous filmmaker Zhang Yimou, the show mixed traditional Chinese yangko dance 47 modern robot technology.
In the performance, robots shaped like 48 (human) dressed in colorful costumes danced yangko, a joyful folk dance from northern China often seen during festivals. They spun handkerchiefs (手绢) instantly and 49 (form) creative group patterns. These robots 50 (develop) by Unitree (宇树科技), a Chinese robotics company. This was not Unitree’s first success—in 2021, robot cows named “Ben Ben” (犇犇) danced as backup for singer Andy Lau.
The robots learned dance moves through AI and used laser navigation (激光导航) 51 (move) safely on the uneven stage. 52 (they) strong joints (like knees with 360N·m power) helped them balance perfectly during fast steps. Zhang Yimou explained, “This dance isn’t just fun—it shows 53 technology can bring new life to traditions.”
Thanks to these innovations (创新), the robots won the hearts of millions. On 54 (society) media, topics like “Robot Yangko” trended quickly. Young viewers called it “cool,” while older audiences loved its humor and festive spirit.
The YangBOT program is a perfect mix of China’s tech progress and cultural pride. 55 one fan said, “It’s like watching the future and past dance together!”
【答案】
46.Directed 47.with 48.humans 49.formed 50.were developed 51.to move 52.Their 53.how 54.social 55.As
【导语】本文主要讲述了在 2025央视春晚上,由著名电影导演张艺谋执导的将中国传统的秧歌舞蹈与现代机器人技术相结合的特别节目。
46.句意:该节目由著名导演张艺谋执导,将中国传统秧歌与现代机器人技术结合在一起。分析句子结构可知,句中已有谓语动词“mixed”,此处“direct”与句子主语“the show” 之间是被动关系,即节目是被张艺谋执导,所以用过去分词作状语。故填Directed。
47.句意:该节目由著名导演张艺谋执导,将中国传统秧歌与现代机器人技术结合在一起。mix...with...是固定短语,意为“把……和……混合”,这里表示将传统的中国秧歌舞蹈与现代机器人技术相结合。故填with。
48. 句意:在表演中,穿着五颜六色服装的人形机器人跳秧歌,这是一种来自中国北方的欢快的民间舞蹈,经常在节日期间出现。 根据“robots shaped like…”可知,此处表示像人类的机器人,human表示 “人”时是可数名词,此处是指多个机器人像人类,所以应该用复数形式,故填humans。
49. 句意:他们立刻旋转着手绢,并形成了富有创意的团体图案。根据“spun handkerchiefs (手绢) instantly and...”可知,“formed”与 “spun”是并列关系,都作谓语动词,且句子时态为一般过去时,所以用过去式。故填formed。
50. 句意:这些机器人是由中国的一家机器人公司——宇树科技研发的。“These robots”与“develop”之间是被动关系,即机器人是被开发的,且句子描述的是过去发生的事情,所以用一般过去时的被动语态,其结构为“was/were + 过去分词”,这里These robots是复数,故填were developed。
51.句意:机器人通过人工智能学习舞蹈动作,并使用激光导航在不平坦的舞台上安全移动。根据“used laser navigation (激光导航)…safely”可知,此处表示使用激光导航来安全移动,动词不定式作目的状语。故填to move。
52.句意:他们强壮的关节(如膝盖有360N·m的力量)帮助他们在快速行走中保持完美的平衡。根据空后的“joints”可知,此处需要一个形容词性物主代词来修饰名词,they的形容词性物主代词是their,表示“它们的”,且句首首字母大写,故填Their。
53.句意:张艺谋解释说:“这种舞蹈不仅有趣,它还展示了科技如何给传统带来新的生命。” 根据“it shows…technology can bring new life to traditions.”可知,此处是指“它展示了技术如何能给传统带来新的活力”,how表示 “如何”,引导宾语从句。故填how。
54.句意:在社交媒体上,像“机器人秧歌”这样的话题迅速流行起来。根据空后的“media”可知,此处需要一个形容词修饰名词,society的形容词形式是social,social media意为“社交媒体”。故填social。
55.句意:正如一位粉丝所说:“这就像在看未来和过去一起跳舞!”。根据“…one fan said”可知,此处表示 “正如一位粉丝所说”,as意为“正如,如同”。故填As。
第三节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,根据短文内容回答问题。
In 2027, the first space hotel named Voyager Station is set to open. It will be built by Orbital Assembly Corporation. The 50,000-square-metre hotel will start being built in 2026 and welcome its first guests in 2027. The hotel can hold up to 440 people and will have gravity (重力) about one-sixth of the Earth’s.
In 2019, the Gateway Foundation first introduced its design, then called the Von Braun Space Station. The goal is enable more people to travel to space. The hotel will have nice villas, single bedrooms, restaurants, bars and gyms. The first part to be built is a central ring with a place for ships to dock (停靠). Then a 200-metre-wide outer ring will be put together and connected to it.
The inside of the hotel will use materials and colors from nature, different from the cold look in movies. For example, there will be 500-square-metre villas and 30-square-metre hotel rooms. Also, an activity and gym module (舱) will be used for low-gravity games and concerts.
It was first planned to open in 2025, but because of the COVID-19 outbreak, the opening was put off to 2027. Many people are working on space tourism, and this hotel is a big step forward.
56.When is the first space hotel Voyager Station set to open?
57.How many people can the Voyager Station hold up to?
58.What is the goal of building the space hotel Voyager Station?
59.What will the first part to be built of the hotel be?
60.If you could stay in the space hotel, what part would you be most interested in and why?
【答案】56.In 2027. 57.440. 58.To enable more people to travel to space. 59.A central ring with a place for ships to dock. 60.I would be most interested in the activity and gym module because I enjoy low-gravity games and concerts.
【导语】本文是一篇说明文,主要介绍了即将在2027年开业的首个太空酒店“Voyager Station”的相关信息,包括其建造时间、容量、目标、结构设计等。
56.根据“In 2027, the first space hotel named Voyager Station is set to open.”可知,Voyager Station计划在2027年开业。故填In 2027.
57.根据“The hotel can hold up to 440 people”可知,Voyager Station最多可容纳440人。故填440.
58.根据“The goal is enable more people to travel to space.”可知,建造Voyager Station的目标是让更多人能够前往太空。故填To enable more people to travel to space.
59.根据“The first part to be built is a central ring with a place for ships to dock.”可知,酒店首先建造的部分是一个带有船只停靠位置的中央环。故填A central ring with a place for ships to dock.
60.本题为开放性题目。参考答案为:我可能对活动和健身房模块最感兴趣,因为我喜欢低重力游戏和音乐会。故填I would be most interested in the activity and gym module because I enjoy low-gravity games and concerts.
IV.写作(满分15分)
61.假如你校校报英语专栏正在以“Take care of ourselves (照顾好自己)” 为题举办征文活动,请根据以下内容要点和要求写一篇短文投稿。
内容要点:
1.我们应从哪些方面做起。比如:生活习惯、生活技能、情绪状态;
2.具体应该怎么做;
3.这样做的好处是什么。
写作要求:
1.包含所有要点,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
2.文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称;
3.词数为80左右。开头已经给出,不计入词数。
参考词汇: exercise (锻炼),life skills (生活技能),mood state (情绪状态)
take actions (采取行动)
Take care of ourselves
As students, taking care of ourselves is very important.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】例文
Take care of ourselves
As students, taking care of ourselves is very important. We can start from three aspects: living habits, life skills and mood state.
For living habits, we should get up early and go to bed early to have enough sleep. And we should have a balanced diet with more vegetables and fruits but less junk food. Regular exercise like running or cycling can strengthen our bodies too.
For life skills, we can learn to cook simple meals. It can not only help us to be independent but also allows us to enjoy the fun of cooking. We can also learn to manage our time.
For mood state, we should learn to relax. When we feel stressed, we can listen to music or do some deep breathing exercises to calm ourselves down. Keeping a positive mood can make us more energetic and optimistic.
By taking these actions, we can have a healthy body, strong life skills and a good mood. We will be able to enjoy a better life.
【详解】[总体分析]
①题材:本文是一篇材料作文;
②时态:时态为“一般现在时”;
③提示:写作要点已给出,考生应注意不要遗漏,适当添加细节,并突出写作重点。
[写作步骤]
第一步,表明写作意图,借用“照顾好自己很重要”来引出重点介绍的内容;
第二步,具体阐述写作内容,从生活习惯、生活技能、情绪状态三个方面重点介绍;
第三步,书写结语。
[亮点词汇]
①have a balanced diet 饮食均衡
②junk food 垃圾食品
③not only...but also... 不仅……而且……
④independent 独立的
⑤allows sb to do 允许某人做某事
⑥deep breathing 深呼吸
⑦calm down 冷静
[高分句型]
①For living habits, we should get up early and go to bed early to have enough sleep. (to do不定式作目的状语)
②When we feel stressed, we can listen to music or do some deep breathing exercises to calm ourselves down. (when引导的时间状语从句)
③Keeping a positive mood can make us more energetic and optimistic. (动名词作主语)
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2025年中考第二次模拟考试(湖南长沙卷)
英 语
(考试时间:90分钟 试卷满分:100分)
注意事项:
1、答题前,请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚,并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考室和座位号;
2、必须在答题卡上答题,在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效;
3、答题时,请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示;
4、请勿折叠答题卡,保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁;
5、答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸;
6、本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
I.听力(共两节,满分20分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前,你都有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。(共5小题,计5分)
1.How’s the weather now?
A.Sunny. B.Rainy. C.Cold.
2.What is next to the restaurant?
A.A hotel. B.A post office. C.A bank.
3.What does Tom want to be?
A.A policeman. B.A scientist. C.A cook.
4.Where are the speakers?
A.In a library. B.On a bus. C.On the road.
5.Which animal are the speakers talking about?
A.Birds. B.Tigers. C.Monkeys.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
6.What’s Bob’s trouble?
A.He can’t get the pronunciation right.
B.He makes mistakes in grammar.
C.He can’t spell some new words.
7.What’s Mary’s advice on English learning?
A.Making flashcards. B.Listening to tapes. C.Joining an English language club.
听一段材料,回答下面两个小题。
8.Who gave the toy panda to Tina?
A.Her aunt. B.Her parents. C.Her grandma.
9.When did she get the toy panda?
A.On her fifth birthday. B.On her tenth birthday. C.On her fourth birthday.
听一段材料,回答下面两个小题。
10.What does Frank usually do in his free time?
A.He listens to music. B.He reads books. C.He watches movies.
11.How does rock music make Kate feel?
A.Bored. B.Relaxed. C.Excited.
听一段材料,回答下面三个小题。
12.What are the speakers doing?
A.Having dinner. B.Cooking meals. C.Buying fish.
13.Who cooked the fish?
A.Lily. B.Lily’s sister. C.The cook in the restaurant.
14.What does it mean when you eat noisily in Japan?
A.The food is hot. B.You still need more food. C.The food is delicious.
听一段材料,回答下面三个小题。
15.What are they talking about?
A.New Year’s resolutions. B.Their school subjects. C.The history about the promise.
16.How is Cindy going to be healthier?
A.By reading more. B.By spending more time on tennis.
C.By taking more exercise and eating more healthily.
17.Which of the following is NOT Frank going to do?
A.Make a plan for physics.B.Stay in good health. C.Spend more time on the piano.
听一段材料,回答下面三个小题。
18.What is the moon like on the Mid-Autumn Festival?
A.Small but bright. B.Big and bright. C.Small and round.
19.Why is the Mid-Autumn Festival important?
A.Because it’s a special occasion for family reunions (团聚).
B.Because people can enjoy the moon together.
C.Because people can eat mooncakes on this day.
20.What are the speaker’s favorite mooncakes?
A.Ice-cream mooncakes. B.Coffee mooncakes. C.Fruit mooncakes.
II.阅读(共三节,满分30分)
第一节 (共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)
阅读下列材料,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Here are 3 kinds of apps that are useful in our daily life now.
**DeepSeek**: A smart platform (平台) that uses AI to help people with tasks like writing and learning. It makes technology easy to use and helps everyone work faster.
**Quizlet**: A study tool that helps users master subjects through flashcards, quizzes (小测试), and games. It supports a wide range (范围) of topics and allows users to create their own study sets.
**Duolingo**: A popular language-learning app offering small lessons in over 30 languages. It uses games to make learning fun, with exercises in reading, writing, listening, and speaking.
21.If you want to write a passage quickly, you can use the app _______.
A.Deepseek B.Quizlet C.Duolingo
22.Which is right about the app Duolingo?
A.It can help people create their own study sets.
B.It uses quizzes to help people learn.
C.It uses games to help people learn languages.
B
“Ne Zha 2” is an exciting animated (动画的) movie that continues the story of the brave young hero, Ne Zha. In the first movie, Ne Zha was born with special powers, but people were afraid of him because they thought he was a demon (恶魔) . However, NeZha didn’t give up. He fought against evil (邪恶) and proved that he could be a hero with his courage and determination (决心).
In “NeZha 2”, NeZha faces new challenges and meets new friends. Together, they go on an exciting adventure, solving problems and facing dangers. The movie has beautiful animations (动画) with bright colors and lively characters. The action scenes are thrilling, and the story is full of surprises.
One of the important messages in the movie is that anyone can be a hero if they believe in themselves. Ne Zha learns to control his powers and make the right choices. He also discovers that true strength comes from the heart. The movie teaches us about friendship, bravery, and never giving up. It is a great movie for both children and adults, and it reminds us that we can all overcome our challenges and become the best version of ourselves.
23.What was the problem with Ne Zha in the first movie?
A.He didn’t have any powers.
B.He didn’t want to be a hero.
C.People were afraid of him because they though the was a demon.
24.What does the underlined word “thrilling” in Paragraph 2 mean?
A.Boring. B.Exciting. C.Terrible.
25.Who is the movie suitable (适合的) for?
A.Only children. B.Only adults. C.Children and adults.
26.What does the movie “Ne Zha 2” mainly teach us?
A.We should always avoid challenges.
B.It’s OK to give up when things get difficult.
C.It teaches us about friendship, bravery, and the spirit of never giving up.
C
The UNESCO added “Spring Festival, social practices of the Chinese people in celebration of the traditional New Year” to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity (人类非物质文化遗产代表作名录) on December 4, 2024.
The Spring Festival, also called Chinese New Year, is one of the most important festival practiced in China and around the world. During this festival, people wish for good things to happen in the future and for everyone to be happy and healthy.
Celebrations for the Spring Festival last for 15 days, ending with the Lantern Festival, to give full play to family gatherings and different cultural activities. Many of these celebrations and events that have been passed down from generation (代;辈) to generation are practiced in China, Asia and around the world. They include paper-cuttings, the dragon dance and lantern festival events, together forming the happiest days for those who celebrate this event.
On the second day of the Spring Festival, people usually go to visit temples (寺庙) to pray (祈祷) for good luck and celebrate the new year. There are many activities at the temple fairs, like traditional shows, folk art, and selling local handicrafts (手工艺品) and foods.
The Lantern Festival, traditionally held on the 15th day of the Spring Festival, marks (标志) the end of Chinese New Year celebrations. During this festival, lively lanterns of all shapes and sizes are shown. People gather in public spaces to admire the lanterns, solve riddles (谜语) written on them, and enjoy performances like dragon dances. Many Lantern Festival events, including the famous Zigong lantern show in Southwest China’s Sichuan Province, have been listed as National Intangible Cultural Heritage items.
根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。
27.How long do the celebrations for the Spring Festival last (持续)?
A.7 days. B.10 days. C.15 days.
28.What do people usually do on the second day of the Spring Festival?
A.Have a big family feast. B.Visit temples. C.Watch the Lantern Festival show.
29.What is special about the Lantern Festival?
A.It’s the first day of the Spring Festival.
B.It marks the end of Chinese New Year celebrations.
C.There are no traditional performances during it.
30.When was the Spring Festival added to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
A.On December 4, 2024. B.On January 1, 2024. C.On January 1, 2025.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余项。
Ever since the first cars were built, carmakers have been working to make them better. There have been a lot of changes. So here are some interesting ideas!
A Cleaner, Cheaper Car?
There are already a lot of electric cars on the road. Someday, they may be great. 31 Some electric cars run on gasoline part of the time. So they still dirty the air. Also, someday they might cost less, but now most electric cars cost a lot of money.
Many of today’s electric cars run on batteries. 32 The driver has to wait for the batteries to be charged up before using the car again. And if a driver is away from home, he or she may have a hard time finding a place to plug in the car to recharge.
A Faster Car?
Some inventors think that a flying car is a great idea. 33 If driving on the road is too slow, these cars will rise up in the air. Someday, there may be a lot of flying cars. Could that lead to traffic jams in the sky?
A Safer Car?
34 But some inventors think that cars would be safer if they drove themselves. They say that people usually make mistakes but a self-driving car would not.
At least one company is getting ready to sell cars that drive themselves. 35 But not everyone is ready to accept that a machine would be a better driver than a human.
Someday, there may even be self-driving cars that can also fly and run on electricity. That could solve a lot of problems!
A.But right now there are still some problems.
B.Seat belts and airbags help keep you safe now.
C.They say it would help people get to places faster.
D.The cars use special cameras and other tools to drive.
E.The batteries may not take the car very far because they easily run out of power.
III.语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Thousands of plastic bottles are thrown away every second. While a small part of them get recycled, most of them end up in the 36 . There, they break up into smaller pieces. Fish often consider them as food by mistake. Robert Bezeau 37 the world’s plastic problem, so he thinks of an idea to make people pay attention to it.
Bezeau started a recycling project in 2012, after noticing plastic waste being 38 thrown on the beautiful beaches. During one year and a half, Bezeau and his volunteers collected over a million plastic bottles! But how could they deal with these bottles? He thought that they could use the bottles to 39 houses, and then the Plastic Bottle Village was born. The project is still in its 40 . So far, only a small number of houses have been built. But 41 Bezeau keeps doing it, there will soon be a special community and 90 to 120 families will live in the village.
Interestingly, the bottles are good insulators (隔热材料) which help keep the houses at 42 temperature. People living in the houses don’t need air conditioners (空调) in summer.
Bezeau also plans to build a training center. He wants more people to 43 how to make good use of the plastic waste.
Recycling plastic bottles is 44 in the plastic problem. However, the smartest thing to do is to 45 the use of plastic completely. So please do your part!
36.A.grass B.earth C.ocean
37.A.worries about B.agrees with C.finds out
38.A.politely B.carelessly C.quickly
39.A.cover B.buy C.build
40.A.decision B.beginning C.discussion
41.A.before B.though C.if
42.A.high B.comfortable C.dangerous
43.A.teach B.forget C.learn
44.A.helpful B.terrible C.useless
45.A.allow B.avoid C.doubt
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
On January 28, 2025, a special performance called YangBOT amazed audiences at the CCTV Spring Festival Gala, China’s most-watched TV show. 46 (direct) by famous filmmaker Zhang Yimou, the show mixed traditional Chinese yangko dance 47 modern robot technology.
In the performance, robots shaped like 48 (human) dressed in colorful costumes danced yangko, a joyful folk dance from northern China often seen during festivals. They spun handkerchiefs (手绢) instantly and 49 (form) creative group patterns. These robots 50 (develop) by Unitree (宇树科技), a Chinese robotics company. This was not Unitree’s first success—in 2021, robot cows named “Ben Ben” (犇犇) danced as backup for singer Andy Lau.
The robots learned dance moves through AI and used laser navigation (激光导航) 51 (move) safely on the uneven stage. 52 (they) strong joints (like knees with 360N·m power) helped them balance perfectly during fast steps. Zhang Yimou explained, “This dance isn’t just fun—it shows 53 technology can bring new life to traditions.”
Thanks to these innovations (创新), the robots won the hearts of millions. On 54 (society) media, topics like “Robot Yangko” trended quickly. Young viewers called it “cool,” while older audiences loved its humor and festive spirit.
The YangBOT program is a perfect mix of China’s tech progress and cultural pride. 55 one fan said, “It’s like watching the future and past dance together!”
第三节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,根据短文内容回答问题。
In 2027, the first space hotel named Voyager Station is set to open. It will be built by Orbital Assembly Corporation. The 50,000-square-metre hotel will start being built in 2026 and welcome its first guests in 2027. The hotel can hold up to 440 people and will have gravity (重力) about one-sixth of the Earth’s.
In 2019, the Gateway Foundation first introduced its design, then called the Von Braun Space Station. The goal is enable more people to travel to space. The hotel will have nice villas, single bedrooms, restaurants, bars and gyms. The first part to be built is a central ring with a place for ships to dock (停靠). Then a 200-metre-wide outer ring will be put together and connected to it.
The inside of the hotel will use materials and colors from nature, different from the cold look in movies. For example, there will be 500-square-metre villas and 30-square-metre hotel rooms. Also, an activity and gym module (舱) will be used for low-gravity games and concerts.
It was first planned to open in 2025, but because of the COVID-19 outbreak, the opening was put off to 2027. Many people are working on space tourism, and this hotel is a big step forward.
56.When is the first space hotel Voyager Station set to open?
57.How many people can the Voyager Station hold up to?
58.What is the goal of building the space hotel Voyager Station?
59.What will the first part to be built of the hotel be?
60.If you could stay in the space hotel, what part would you be most interested in and why?
IV.写作(满分15分)
61.假如你校校报英语专栏正在以“Take care of ourselves (照顾好自己)” 为题举办征文活动,请根据以下内容要点和要求写一篇短文投稿。
内容要点:
1.我们应从哪些方面做起。比如:生活习惯、生活技能、情绪状态;
2.具体应该怎么做;
3.这样做的好处是什么。
写作要求:
1.包含所有要点,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
2.文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称;
3.词数为80左右。开头已经给出,不计入词数。
参考词汇: exercise (锻炼),life skills (生活技能),mood state (情绪状态)
take actions (采取行动)
Take care of ourselves
As students, taking care of ourselves is very important.
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