2025届辽宁省丹东市高三总复习质量测试（一）英语试题

丹东市2025届高三总复习质量测试 英语 总分：150分 时间：120分钟 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 本试卷分四部分，卷面分数150分。考试用时120分钟。 第一部分：听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A．£19.15. B．£9.18. C．£9.15. 答案是：C. 1．What’s the man’s plan for the weekend? A．Seeing a doctor. B．Walking around the lake. C．Working at the hospital. 2．What does the man think highly of about the play? A．The costumes. B．The music. C．The scenery. 3．When is the woman going to take her holiday? A．In July. B．In August. C．In September. 4．How did the boy go to school today? A．By bus. B．By bike. C．By car. 5．What do we know about the man? A．He might miss this town. B．He doesn’t like the new job. C．He hasn’t been home for long. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段材料，回答第6、7小题。 6．What did Grandma just do in London? A．She acted in a movie. B．She visited the speakers. C．She attended an award ceremony. 7．When might Grandma arrive? A．At 9:00 pm. B．At 10:00 pm. C．At 11:00 pm. 听下面一段材料，回答第8至9小题。 8．What is the relationship between the speakers? A．Fellow workers. B．husband and wife. C．Salesman and customer. 9．What did Peter do last Sunday afternoon? A．He went to a car show. B．He took a day off. C．He had many meetings. 听下面一段材料，回答第10至12小题。 10．How does the man want his eggs? A．Totally raw. B．A little soft. C．Very solid. 11．Where did the man visit? A．Britain. B．France. C．Denmark. 12．Why did the woman travel to Germany? A．For pleasure. B．For work. C．For family. 听下面一段材料，回答第13至16小题。 13．Where are the speakers? A．In a restaurant. B．In a classroom. C．In an interview room. 14．What did the man dislike about Jessica’s answer? A．She sounded too casual. B．She spoke too slowly. C．She looked nervous. 15．What has Jessica already done? A．She’s worked as a waitress. B．She’s made the basketball team. C．She’s graduated from high school. 16．What is Jessica like? A．She is very smart. B．She is less confident. C．She is very funny. 听下面一段材料，回答第17至20小题。 17．What activity, does the speaker believe, is best for losing weight? A．Running. B．Cycling. C．Rowing. 18．Which is more important for losing weight according to the speaker? A．Diet is more important. B．Exercise is more important. C．Diet and exercise are equally important. 19．What does the speaker recommend to drink before exercising? A．Coffee. B．Drinks with sugar. C．Water. 20．What type of music does the speaker suggest for exercising? A．Songs that are popular. B．Songs with fast rhythm. C．Songs you can sing along to. 第二部分：阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A The Asian Winter Games, have showcased unique emblems (徽) over the last three editions, each reflecting the host city’s culture and the spirit of the Games. 2011 Astana-Almaty: Designed by Kazakh creatives, the emblem of the 7th Asian Winter Games features a central snowflake in sky blue and red, symbolizing the ice and fire of competitive spirit. Above the snowflake, the sun represents the unity of athletes. The emblem effectively captures the essence of the games, leaving a lasting impression on participants and spectators. 2017 Sapporo: The emblem symbolizes the shape of the Hokkaido island, highlighting the regional characteristics of the host. The snowflake represents the beauty and purity of winter, while the rising sun signifies the energy and spirit of the athletes. This emblem not only captures the essence of the games but also reflects the unity and cooperative spirit of the participating regions. 2025 Harbin: The emblem “Breakthrough”, combines short track speed skaters, Harbin’s lilac (丁香花) and dancing ribbons into a design that blends Chinese culture with Olympic elements. The emblem’s dynamic skaters reflect the devotion of Asian athletes. Blooming lilacs represent the city’s welcome culture, while festive ribbons look to the past and future, with the sun icon symbolizing Asian unity and ambition. The emblem’s colorful lines suggest the Chinese character for “Nine”, marking the 9th Asian Winter Games. The external lines form a stylized Chinese character for “Harmony”, expressing a desire for cooperation among Asian nations. 1. What does the sun on the emblem crafted by Kazakh designers symbolize? A. Ice and fire. B. Asian unity and ambition. C. The unity of athletes. D. The energy and spirit of the athletes. 2. What can be seen from the emblem of the 8th Asian Winter Games? A. The shape of a skater. B. The beauty of the Hokkaido island. C. The number of participating regions. D. The host region’s geographical features. 3. What is special for the emblem of 2025 Asian Winter Games? A. The mix of several flowers. B. Traditional and cultural values. C. The mix of different colors. D. Motivational and inspirational values. B Kristin Donley teaches students who have felt completely disconnected in school or just dropped out. They’re not an easy bunch to motivate. But Donley has found a surprising hook: drones (无人机). “I quickly recognized that these kids needed something to inspire them,” said Donley, who teaches at Arapahoe Ridge High School and presented her work June 24 at the International Society for Technology in Education’s annual conference here. “I wanted to bring something that was relevant, something they’d heard a lot about, that they think is interesting, but have probably never touched.” She partnered with a local post-secondary institution, Front Range Community College, which sent its students to help Donley’s classes use computer coding to fly drones through a maze (迷宫). Donley’s students already knew drones were delivering everything from packages for companies like Amazon to pizza. They were also aware that the tech is being used in the military actions. And because many of her students’ parents are agricultural workers, they’ d heard farmers use drones to monitor crops. Some even asked Donley how they could get a license to operate those drones. During the drone activities, students were fully engaged in the hands-on learning experience. Faced with the task of coding and piloting drones through a maze, they eagerly embraced the challenge. With the instructors’ guidance, they collaborated with classmates to solve technical problems, mastering the skills required to successfully navigate the drones. The activities drew students into a world of innovation and teamwork that they found far more charming than their mobile phones. Donley’s advice for educators considering teaching with drones? “Jump in,” she said. “It’s worth it.” 4. Why did Donley apply drones to her class? A. To stimulate their interest. B. To introduce new technology. C. To develop their ability in presentation. D. To partner with a local post-secondary institution. 5. What is a drone like in those students’ mind? A. Useful but dangerous. B. Advanced but inaccessible. C. Practical and appealing. D. Convenient and complicated. 6. What made the drone activities possible for the students? A. Donley’s degree. B. Students’ teamwork. C. Their parents’ perspectives. D. An institution’s support. 7. How did the students benefit from the drone activities? A. They got licenses to pilot drones. B. They were glued to their mobile phones. C. They became active learners with team spirits. D. They made progress in their academic performance. C Grocery store prices are changing faster than ever before — literally. This month, a supermarket became the latest retailer (零售商) to announce it’s replacing the price stickers with electronic shelf labels. The new labels allow employees to change prices as often as every ten seconds. “If it’s hot outside, we can raise the price of water and ice cream. If there’s something that’s close to the best before date, we can lower the price — that’s the good news,” said Phil Lempert, a grocery industry analyst. The ability to easily change prices wasn’t mentioned in its announcement that 2,300 stores will have the digitized shelf labels by 2026. Daniela Boscan, who participated in its pilot of the labels in Texas, said the label’s key benefits are “increased productivity and reduced walking time,” plus quicker restocking of shelves. Another feature of electronic shelf labels is their product descriptions. Lempert notes that barcodes on the new labels can provide useful details other than the price. “They can actually be used where you take your mobile device and you scan it and it can give you more information about the product — whether it’s the sourcing of the product, whether it’s fat free, whether it’s pregnant women friendly. That’s really the promise of what these shelf tags can do,” Lempert said. As higher wages make labor more expensive, retailers big and small can benefit from the increased productivity that digitized shelf labels enable, said Santiago Gallino, a professor specializing in retail management at the University of Pennsylvania’s Wharton School. “The bottom line, at least when I talk to retailers, is the calculation of the amount of labor that they’ re going to save by incorporating this,” Gallino said. Today the supermarket’s customers can check on their app once they’re in the store, the prices that it is offering online to ensure consistency between online and instore pricing. Electronic shelf tags should make it much easier for brick-and-mortar stores to keep pace with prices as they change online. And, he says, that consistency should be better for customers. 8 Why is the price of water and ice cream mentioned in paragraph 2? A. To illustrate the climate change globally. B. To indicate the supermarket’s economic strategy. C. To show the real-time control system of the new labels. D. To complain about the constant increase of the living cost. 9. How can the electronic labels improve the customers’ shopping experience? A. By reducing walking time considerably. B. By presenting constantly changing figures. C By giving more information about the prices. D. By providing detailed introduction of the goods. 10. What do digitized shelf labels mean to retailers? A. Labor saved. B. Products increased. C. Wages reduced. D. Management specialized. 11. What does the last paragraph focus on? A. Physical stores keep pace with online ones. B. Other supermarkets have a tendency to follow suit. C. Customers benefit more with a supermarket app downloaded. D. Electronic labels ensure consistent online-to-in-store pricing. D Underwater farming, also known as marine agriculture, is an innovative approach to cultivating crops beneath the ocean’s surface. This method takes full advantage of the unique properties of seawater and the underwater environment to grow plants, offering a sustainable solution to land-based agricultural challenges such as soil degradation and freshwater shortage. One significant example of underwater farming is the Nemo’s Garden project off the coast of Italy. This initiative uses biospheres — transparent, air-filled pods (分离舱) anchored to the seafloor — to create a controlled environment for plant growth. These pods maintain a stable temperature and humidity, which are crucial for plant development. The seawater naturally cools the pods during the day and maintains warmth at night, creating an ideal microclimate. The process begins with the installation of these biospheres at depths of about 5 to 10meters so that they receive ample sunlight. Inside the pods, plants are grown hydroponically, meaning they are cultivated in nutrient-rich water without soil. This method not only conserves freshwater but also prevents soil-borne diseases. The plants absorb carbon dioxide from the air inside the pods and release oxygen, creating a self-sustaining ecosystem. Scientific studies have shown that plants grown in these underwater environments can flourish. For instance, basil, lettuce, and strawberries have been successfully cultivated in Nemo’s Garden. Research indicates that these plants often have higher concentrations of essential oils and antioxidants (抗氧化物) compared to their land-grown counterparts, likely due to the stress-free environment and fantastic growing conditions. Underwater farming reduces the need for pesticides and herbicides, as the enclosed environment minimizes pest invasion. It does not compete with land farming, making it an option for coastal regions with limited land suitable for growing crops. Underwater farming represents a promising frontier in sustainable agriculture. By using the ocean’s natural resources, this innovative method offers a potential solution to some of the most pressing agricultural challenges, ensuring food security while preserving ecosystems on the earth. 12. What is essential for underwater farming? A. A controlled enclosed environment. B. A transparent air-removed pod. C. A temperature-controlled seafloor. D. A warm and wet microclimate. 13. Why are the pods installed at certain depths? A. To ensure enough sunshine. B. To gain nutrient-rich water. C. To prevent soil-borne diseases. D. To create a self-sustaining ecosystem. 14. What does the underlined word “flourish” probably mean in paragraph 4? A. Demand more. B. Dive deep. C. Develop better. D. Struggle hard. 15. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. A Promising Future in Agriculture. B. A Significant Example of Farming. C. A Sustainable Agricultural Innovation. D. An Environmentally Friendly Initiative. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。 How can you determine your “best” weight? It’s more complicated — and simpler — than you think. Formulas (公式) for determining a healthy weight range can easily be found online. ___16___ To calculate BMI, you plug in your height and weight, and then a formula spits out a number that falls on a scale from underweight to healthy to overweight to obese, based on an estimated percentage of body fat. Simple right? Too simple. ___17___ For individuals, BMI should also be considered with blood pressure, cholesterol levels and physical examination. More recently, some doctors have begun using the BRI, or body roundness index. “This formula doesn’t take weight into consideration at all — just waist circumference (周长), ” explains Dr. Jay. “I wouldn’t use this chart to supply a number of what someone should weigh,” says Dr. Jay. “How are they feeling, how are they doing? What’s their blood pressure, blood sugar? How well are they sleeping? ___18___” What’s Your Ideal Weight? ___19___ If you are already dealing with health problems like heart disease or diabetes that may be worsened by excess weight, doctors tend to look at percentages, not pounds. If you can’t achieve a healthy weight this way, there are new medications and surgical techniques that can help. ___20___ Instead, it is living in a healthy style that matters a lot. Whatever weight the body settles at and maintains when you live this way, it is the best weight for you. A. All these need to be considered. B. We are always wanting to know the exact number. C. So, your focus should not be the number of your weight. D. Surely, you know the definition of Body Mass Index (BMI). E. But the latest thinking is that we need to consider more than this number. F. For decades, we’ve been told that Body Mass Index (BMI) is the standard. G. The best weight is one you can comfortably maintain by eating healthily and exercising. 第三部分：语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 The pond is silent — until the first cry: “Found something!” A swimmer ducks into the water. She ___21___, fist first, holding a bright blue slipper. It is passed to a kayaker, who waves it overhead, like a prize, before putting it in a basket for safekeeping. Over the next hour, the team of 15 — all over age 65, all women—hunts for ___22___ across Mares Pond, Cape Cod. These are the Old Ladies Against Underwater Garbage (OLAUG).Since 2017, the group has made it its mission to ___23___ trash from ponds across Cape Cod. Part conservation ___24___, part social club, the group’s ___25___ is owed to a moment of spontaneity(自发性)by Susan Baur, a(n) ___26___ psychologist. In 2017, she rounded up two friends and approached a stranger with a kayak, and together they cleared “half basket” of litter from a pond. Soon others ___27___ the campaign, and, like Baur, they found a sense of wonder in the pond ___28___. While many outsiders have expressed their ___29___ to OLAUG for cleaning up the ponds, a number have ____30____ why they refer to themselves as “old ladies.” “You should call yourselves the Lovely Ladies Against Underwater Garbage!” Baur, smiling, recalls being told. Although she admits that it wasn’t initially a conscious choice, she now believes that the “old lady” ____31____ is a crucial part of what the group is about. “Over 65, if you’ re ____32____ enough to do what we’ re doing, it is the age of gratitude,” Baur says. “You are so grateful that you can still do this after retirement. You’ re just grateful anyway, grateful for the trees and grateful for clean water.” Besides, part of the ____33____ of OLAUG is to demonstrate that older women, working as a team, still can do a lot for the world. The most common ____34____ to OLAUG is “I want to join you.” And after that first dive, the new recruits always can’t contain their excitement and their smile is ____35____. “They have just swum farther than they’ve ever swum. They’ve lifted more than they’ve ever lifted. They’ve seen stuff that they’ve never seen. And they’ve done good,” says Baur. “They come back with their hearts beating.” 21. A. emerges B. dives C. starts D. jumps 22. A. treasure B. jewel C. trash D. goods 23. A. store B. remove C. book D. save 24. A. school B. company C. office D. organization 25. A. job B. existence C. task D. title 26. A. retired B. relaxed C. engaged D. unemployed 27. A. returned B. founded C. joined D. gathered 28. A. setups B. mixups C. buildups D. cleanups 29. A. gratitude B. loyalty C. attitude D. opposition 30. A. hesitated B. questioned C. decided D. doubted 31. A. classification B. concept C. foundation D. identity 32. A. busy B. wealthy C. lucky D. healthy 33. A. reason B. achievement C. goal D. arrangement 34. A. response B. answer C. entrance D. invitation 35. A. serious B. infectious C. fierce D. unwilling 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 A three-year survey on biology in Wuyishan National Park has yielded the discovery of 34new species, including plants, insects and fungi, experts said. The park, ___36___ is located in the subtropical region spanning Fujian and Jiangxi provinces, provides a diverse range of environments suitable for wildlife and plants. The baseline survey, launched in April 2021, ___37___ (cover) more than 100,000 hectares of the park’s Fujian section. It focused on various ecosystems and ___38___ (biology) groups. In addition to the 34 new species,10 species were ___39___(new) recorded in China. One of the key ___40___ (discovery) was the Wuyi forest frog. Wu Yanqing, ___41___ researcher from the College of Life and Environmental Science at Wenzhou University in Zhejiang province, found the new amphibian (两栖动物)。 After ___42___ (notice) subtle differences in the frog’ s appearance compared to other forest frogs, Wu’s discovery ___43___ (confirm) through DNA molecular identification in the lab. Wu noted, “The park’s well-preserved environment is key ___44___ the discovery of new species. Some species may have existed for millions of years but went extinct before we could document them due to environmental pollution or habitat destruction.” The baseline survey deepens the understanding of Wuyishan National Park’s wildlife and enhances the park’s conservation and management capabilities. The park plans to install an integrated monitoring system ____45____ (safeguard) its natural resources. 第四部分：写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华，春天来临，你校上周在学校菜园组织了一次种植体验活动，请给你英国朋友Ryan写一封邮件，分享该活动，内容包括： 1．种植过程； 2．你的收获与感想。 注意： 1．词数80左右； 2．适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear Ryan, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Best wishes, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面文章，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一个完整短文，续写词数应为150左右。 The school bus pulled up to a stop, and Emma stood up to get off. “Your mom’s not here yet, Emma,” the driver said. “Do you want to wait for her?” Emma reminded herself to slow down and speak clearly. “I know the way,” she said. “Mom says I can walk home by myself now.” Emma walked down the sidewalk toward home. She liked her new neighborhood. And she liked walking at her own pace today instead of having to move quick-quick-quick-quick. There was so much to see! Outside one house, a man was tending to a rosebush. He had white hair like Grandpa. Emma waved at him, and he waved back. A few houses later, a boy was drawing with chalk on the driveway. He looked up and smiled at Emma. Emma smiled back at him. Two doors away from Emma’s house, a woman placed a baby into a stroller (手推车). Then she wheeled him to the sidewalk. “Hello,” she said, smiling. “I met you and your mom last week when you moved in. I’m Mrs. Green, but I can’t remember your name.” Emma said her name. Then she looked down at the baby, who was chewing on a toy dinosaur. “What’s his name?” she asked. “This is Chris,” said Mrs. Green. “He loves stroller rides. Maybe we’ll see you again tomorrow.” Every afternoon, Emma walked home from the bus stop. She soon knew all her neighbors. She learned that the grandpa’s name was Mr. Sharaf. The little boy with the chalk was Ari. Emma stopped to draw with him sometimes. Emma liked to talk with Mrs. Green. Emma learned that because of work, Mr. Green wouldn’t be home until spring. But one day when Emma reached the Greens’ house, they weren’t outside. Maybe they went somewhere, she thought. Maybe they went to the library. Chris likes books. But they weren’t outside the next day either. Or the day after that. Emma stared at the Greens’ house. She thought something was wrong. She hurried home, telling her concern to her mom. They decided to walk to their house and rang the bell. 注意： 1．续写词数应为150左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Paragraph 1: Mrs. Green opened the door, with a bandage wrapped around her ankle. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2: Emma kept her promise and helped Mrs. Green take care of Chris for a few days. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 丹东市2025届高三总复习质量测试 英语 总分：150分 时间：120分钟 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 本试卷分四部分，卷面分数150分。考试用时120分钟。 第一部分：听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A．£19.15. B．£9.18. C．£9.15. 答案：C. 1．What’s the man’s plan for the weekend? A．Seeing a doctor. B．Walking around the lake. C．Working at the hospital. 2．What does the man think highly of about the play? A．The costumes. B．The music. C．The scenery. 3．When is the woman going to take her holiday? A．In July. B．In August. C．In September. 4．How did the boy go to school today? A．By bus. B．By bike. C．By car. 5．What do we know about the man? A．He might miss this town. B．He doesn’t like the new job. C．He hasn’t been home for long. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段材料，回答第6、7小题。 6．What did Grandma just do in London? A．She acted in a movie. B．She visited the speakers. C．She attended an award ceremony. 7．When might Grandma arrive? A．At 9:00 pm. B．At 10:00 pm. C．At 11:00 pm. 听下面一段材料，回答第8至9小题。 8．What is the relationship between the speakers? A．Fellow workers. B．husband and wife. C．Salesman and customer. 9．What did Peter do last Sunday afternoon? A．He went to a car show. B．He took a day off. C．He had many meetings. 听下面一段材料，回答第10至12小题。 10．How does the man want his eggs? A．Totally raw. B．A little soft. C．Very solid. 11．Where did the man visit? A．Britain. B．France. C．Denmark. 12．Why did the woman travel to Germany? A．For pleasure. B．For work. C．For family. 听下面一段材料，回答第13至16小题。 13．Where are the speakers? A．In a restaurant. B．In a classroom. C．In an interview room. 14．What did the man dislike about Jessica’s answer? A．She sounded too casual. B．She spoke too slowly. C．She looked nervous. 15．What has Jessica already done? A．She’s worked as a waitress. B．She’s made the basketball team. C．She’s graduated from high school. 16．What is Jessica like? A．She is very smart. B．She is less confident. C．She is very funny. 听下面一段材料，回答第17至20小题。 17．What activity, does the speaker believe, is best for losing weight? A．Running. B．Cycling. C．Rowing. 18．Which is more important for losing weight according to the speaker? A．Diet is more important. B．Exercise is more important. C．Diet and exercise are equally important. 19．What does the speaker recommend to drink before exercising? A．Coffee. B．Drinks with sugar. C．Water. 20．What type of music does the speaker suggest for exercising? A．Songs that are popular. B．Songs with fast rhythm. C．Songs you can sing along to. 第二部分：阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. D 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. A 5. C 6. D 7. C C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. D 10. A 11. D D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. A 13. A 14. C 15. C 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. F 17. E 18. A 19. G 20. C 第三部分：语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. D 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. B 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. which 37. covered 38. biological 39. newly 40. discoveries 41. a 42. noticing 43. was confirmed 44. to 45. to safeguard 第四部分：写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Ryan, How are you? Last week, our school organized a planting activity in the campus garden to celebrate the arrival of spring, which I’d love to share with you. The process was both educational and enjoyable. We started by preparing the soil, which involved removing weeds and adding compost to enrich it. Then, we carefully planted various seeds, such as tomatoes, carrots, and lettuce, following the instructions provided by our teachers. We also learned about the importance of spacing the plants correctly and watering them appropriately to ensure healthy growth. Through this activity, I not only gained practical knowledge required in gardening but also developed a profound respect for the hard work of farmers. I’m already looking forward to harvesting our vegetables soon! Best wishes, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】Paragraph 1: Mrs. Green opened the door, with a bandage wrapped around her ankle. Her face looked pale, and she leaned heavily on the doorframe while holding a crying Chris. “Oh, Emma! What a surprise!” she said weakly. Emma’s mom sighed, noticing the messy living room behind her — toys scattered everywhere and untouched meals on the table. Mrs. Green explained that she had fallen while chasing Chris and hurt her ankle. As Chris’s cries grew louder, Emma stepped forward. “I can help take care of him!” she offered. When Mrs. Green heard what Emma said, Mrs. Green’s eyes filled with grateful tears. Paragraph2: Emma kept her promise and helped Mrs. Green take care of Chris for a few days. Each afternoon, she pushed Chris’s stroller around the neighborhood, singing nursery rhymes. Ari joined them with colorful chalk drawings, and Mr. Sharaf gifted roses to cheer Mrs. Green up. By the weekend, Mrs. Green’s ankle healed enough to walk. “You’ve been an angel, Emma,” she said, hugging her tightly. That evening, the neighbors gathered for a barbecue. Laughter and chatter filled the air like a cheerful melody. Watching the joyful scene, Emma realized her new neighborhood wasn’t just a new place to live; it was a warm family woven by kindness. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$