2025年河北省邯郸市武安市西苑中学中考一模英语试题

2025年河北省初中学业水平摸底考试 英语试卷 注意事项：1. 本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3. 选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题时，请用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4. 答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 5. 考试结束时，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5题，每题1分，满分5分） 1. A. All right. B. Fine, thanks. C. Sure, please. 2. A. OK. B. Don't worry. C. My pleasure. 3. A. I think so. B. You are right. C. You are welcome. 4. A. He is over sixty. B. He is much better. C. He is very tall. 5. A. It is fantastic. B. It is on Saturday. C. It is not mine. 第二节 听对话，选择正确答案（共15题；每题1分，满分15分） 6. What is the man going to buy? A. B. C. 7. What will Sandra do later? A. B. C. 8. What's the relationship between the two speakers? A. A teacher and a student. B. A doctor and a patient. C. A sister and a brother. 9. How did Mike go to school today? A. By bike. B. By car. C. On foot. 10. Where are Jim and Steven chatting? A. At a picnic. B. At school. C. In the countryside. 11. When will Kim get the camera? A. This afternoon. B. Tomorrow morning. C. Tomorrow afternoon. 12. Who is Mr. Wang? A. An English teacher. B. A math teacher. C. A Chinese teacher. 13. How does David feel now? A. Nervous. B. Angry. C. Excited. 14. What will David do from now on? A. He will have more meetings. B. He will be nice to others. C. He will work hard on math. 15. Where is Kate going? A. To the farm. B. To the English club. C. To the library. 16. How old is Kate now? A. Ten years old. B. Fourteen years old. C. Fifteen years old. 17. Who is picking apples? A. Kate's mother. B. Kate's father. C. Kate's brother. 18. When will the meeting begin? A. At 2 o'clock. B. At 1:45. C. At 1:30. 第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7题；每题1分，满分7分） 19. What will the students do first? A. Make a report. B. Fill in the form. C. Have an interview. 20. How many questions does the teacher offer them? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 21. What will the teacher ask the students to do at 3:15? A. Act out a dialogue. B. Share a report. C. Hand in the form. 22. How is the weather today? A. Sunny and warm. B. Windy and cold. C. Sunny but cold. 23. What does Quan Hongchan's father do? A. He is a worker. B. He is a farmer. C. He is a driver. 24. When did she get her first Olympic gold medal? A. In 2007. B. In 2021. C. In 2024. 25. What does the speaker want us to do? A. Be brave when facing difficulties. B. Have a rest when we are tired. C. Make a report when we are on duty. 第四节 听短文填空（共5题；每题1分，满分5分） Information Sheet Day: 26. this ______ morning Leave: 27. at ______ o'clock Bring: 28. some ______ and snacks Wear: 29. comfortable ______ Help: 30. ______ up the park 第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10题；每题1分，满分10分） When I first joined the school basketball team I was excited but a little nervous. I had a deep love for the sport, yet I was always worried about making ___1___ in front of others. My coach, noticing my anxiety, told me, “Basketball isn’t only about scoring points. It’s about ___2___ together as a team.” During practice, I tried to pass the ball perfectly, but my hands often ___3___. One day, I missed an easy chance to shoot. I felt so bad that I wanted to ___4___. My teammate Elsa came up to me, patted my shoulder and said, “Don’t stop! Even Michael Jordan ___5___ many shots.” Her words made me realize that making mistakes is part of learning. As the season went on, I focused less on being perfect and more on ___6___ better with my team. I didn’t care so much about being perfect. I started to ___7___ with my team. We learned to trust each other. In an important game, we were losing by two points behind with only 10 seconds left. The crowd were shouting, but I stayed ___8___. When Elsa passed me the ball, I took a deep breath and shot. The ball circled the basket... and finally landed through the net! The whole team cheered ___9___. That moment taught me a truly valuable lesson: Success doesn’t come from avoiding challenges, but from ___10___ we face difficulties in life, we should always keep in mind that they are chances for growth. 1. A. changes B. friends C. mistakes D. efforts 2. A. winning B. working C. studying D. competing 3. A. rested B. hurt C. moved D. shook 4. A. give up B. hold on C. carry on D. step back 5. A. made B. took C. missed D. scored 6. A. communication B. relationship C. celebration D. performance 7. A. fight B. compare C. argue D. cooperate 8. A. excited B. calm C. nervous D. surprised 9. A. quietly B. gently C. wildly D. slowly 10. A. if B. when C. though D. because 第一节 短文填空(共15顾。每题1分。满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。 My name is Ren Yin, a 16-year-old boy from Hongcun village in Hangzhou, Zhejiang province. While many people look ____11____ chances in big cities, some turn to China’s countryside areas to chase their dreams. I am one of ____12____ (they). My parents didn’t support my ____13____ (decide). They ____14____ (think) this might not be a good use of my talents. But I chose to follow my heart, saying that’s ____15____ my generation does. I ____16____ (encourage) deeply by the rural vitalization strategy (乡村振兴战略). I wanted to have my own cafe and help my village, ____17____ I left my teaching job to start a cafe in my hometown after my ____18____ (eighteen) birthday. The people of the village helped me find ____19____ place for the cafe and improved the nearby roads. I made my cafe look different with a special shape ____20____ (bring) in more people. I also made special ____21____ (drink) like mountain walnut-flavored lattes (山核桃味拿铁). To attract (吸引) more customers, I ____22____ (hold) many activities in the cafe, such as live music nights and art shows next year. But I know it’s still hard for a business to stay ____23____ (success). Even with the challenges, I don’t regret going back ____24____ my village. I believe my hometown will ____25____ (sure) become a more charming place. “I think many countryside areas in China are like hidden treasures waiting to be found”, I said. 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15题；每题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 The Paris 2024 Olympic Games began on July 26th, 2024, in France. China sent 405 athletes to the Games, competing in 236 events across 30 sports. Chinese athletes worked hard to win honor for the country, many “Made in China” products also attracted global attention. Ping-pong balls Chinese company Double Fish provided over 35,000 balls, which were used as the official balls. These balls must go through 15 checks before reaching Paris. They met higher standards than required internationally in roundness, hardness, weight and so on. Only three to five balls out of every 100 were picked for the Olympic Games. Judo mats (柔道垫) The Taishan Sports Industry Group in Shandong Province has long provided judo mats for the Olympics. For the first time, they put smart chips (智能芯片) into these mats. These chips could collect real-time information such as movement, strength, speed, and more. This information provided better direction for athletes during review. Lazy sofas There were many other products from Chinese factories. In the Olympic Village, athletes could relax on 3,000 sets of lazy sofas, which were produced by a factory in Zhejiang Province. These sofas were not only comfortable but also filled with recyclable materials, which is a good idea to protect the environment. 26. What made Double Fish’s ping-pong balls special? A. They were made of unique materials. B. They passed 15 checks and met top standards. C. They were designed with a special shape. D. They were produced in a high-level factory. 27. What’s new about Taishan’s judo mats? A. They are made of softer materials. B. They are much lighter than before. C. They have information-collecting chips. D. They have color-changing function. 28. What do we know about the lazy sofa s in the Olympic Village? A. They were made by a factory in Shandong. B. They were only used for better direction. C. They were uncomfortable but green friendly. D. They were made with recyclable materials. Have you ever imagined holding a special party on the world’s highest mountain? Now, let’s explore a story about an amazing tea party that broke records. Last year, Andrew Hughes and his climbing team gave “high tea” a whole new meaning. They hosted a tea party at 21,312 feet above sea level at Mount Everest’s Camp 2 in Nepal (尼泊尔). They set a new Guinness World Record, and Guinness officially recognized it this month. It’s the highest tea party ever held. Hughes, an athlete from Seattle, Washington, came up with the idea during Covid-19. He said being alone made him realize he missed the community more than reaching the mountain tops. According to a news report, Hughes’ “highest tea party” was much higher than the last record by thousands of feet. And it had a lot of difficulties. For example, they had to carry things through the dangerous Khumbu Icefalls. One of the extra difficulties was a big snowfall. It was caused by a huge storm on the day when they planned to have the tea party. Another problem was thinking about how to carry the extra supplies (日用品). Hughes even brought Girl Scout cookies from Seattle to Mount Everest. The supplies had a long journey. They were first flown across the world, then carried by yak (牦牛) to the base camp. Finally, they were backpacked across the difficult land. All this effort was to make sure the cookies didn’t break into small pieces. In the end, all the extra work was worth it. Hughes said, “This record will always keep this unforgettable moment and experience alive in my life forever...” 29. Where did Hughes and his team hold the highest tea party? A. Near the base camp of Mount Everest. B. At Mount Everest’s Camp2 in Nepal. C. Below the Khumbu Icefalls in Nepal. D. On the mountain tops of Washington. 30. What was one of the difficulties they faced to prepare for the tea party? A. A huge storm caused a big snowfall. B. The highest tea party broke records. C. There were no Girl Scout cookies. D. The yak couldn’t carry the supplies. 31. What can we learn from the whole passage? A. Hughes didn’t care about the community at all. B. Last record the group had broken was the same. C. Supplies were carried by yak all the way to Camp 2. D. Hughes thought all the extra work was meaningful. Music, one of the most popular choices for fun, has a long history. Did you know that music used to be a part of an art competition in the modern Olympic Games from 1912 to 1948? Now you are going to see four different types of music. Each of them has some fun facts that you’ve maybe never heard of. Classical music has the longest musical history. It began in Europe and then spread to the whole world. Have you ever been to a classical music concert? This type of music is played using many different kinds of musical instruments. And did you hear that the world’s most expensive musical instrument is a Stradivarius violin, which was sold in 2006 for $3,544,000? Rock music became popular in the 1950s because it was simple, fast, fun and you could dance to it. It’s mainly played with an electric guitar and drums. As one of the world’s oldest instruments. drums have stayed the same shape for thousands of years. When you listen to rap (说唱) music, your heart beats faster than usual and you feel excited. That’s because your heart beat changes to copy the music you listen to. People who perform rap music are called rappers. Rapper No Clue is one of the world’s fastest rappers. He can say 14 syllables (音节) per second. You probably hear pop music everywhere you go without even noticing it. It is often played on TV, the radio, in taxis, stores, and even in public toilets! Pop music makes a lot of money too. Many famous pop stars don’t actually write their own songs. Barry Manilow, an American singer, didn’t write the words or music of his song called I Write the Songs. 32. What is mentioned as one of the most popular choices for fun in Paragraph 1? A. Sports. B. Music. C. Art. D. Songs. 33. What is the main musical instrument used in rock music? A. The large piano. B. The expensive violin. C. The classical drum. D. The electric guitar. 34. Which of the following is TRUE according to the text? A. Pop music is often heard on radio, in taxis, stores and public toilets. B. Rock music got popular in the 1950s for its songs and slow beats. C. Rap music makes your heart beat quicker with its soft sounds. D. Classical music has the shortest history and uses just one instrument. 35. What is the author’s purpose of writing this passage? A. To explain why rock music became very popular. B. To introduce how much money pop music can make. C. To show some facts of the four kinds of music. D. To tell people the history of classical music. My phone is showing that little red low-battery sign. What if I didn’t recharge (充电) it—no, that would stress me out. But what if I took a few minutes to recharge myself—yes, that would help. But how? Here are a few ways to recharge yourself. Tell yourself the truth. When something stressful happens, we often can’t help taking a deep breath at first. But we control what happens next. It’s possible to work with our stress, rather than against it. Thank it and remind yourself: “My body is producing energy to help me deal with it.” Turn your attention to joy. To protect energy stores, turn your attention to being present. Focus on what you can feel grateful for. Smiling can reduce stress. Joy can recharge us. Plan something in your day that you look forward to. Work your stress out. You might think all your feelings live in your brain. But in fact, we feel them with our whole bodies. Doing exercise can help your body reduce stress. It can change how you feel. Also, heating up and cooling down, like taking a shower, may cheer you up. Relax yourself in green. Being in crowded and busy places sends our bodies signs of danger. We can recharge our batteries with green space time—look for a park, gardens or plants to calm our bodies and minds. Life is short. It’s even shorter living on half a battery. We can break our daily stress habits and create more energy. 36. What does the author suggest when seeing the low-battery sign on the phone? A. Turning off the phone right away. B. Taking time to recharge yourself instead. C. Looking for a charger immediately. D. Forgetting and continuing to use the phone. 37. Why should we tell ourselves the truth when something stressful occurs? A. To make ourselves more stressed. B. To avoid dealing with the stress. C. To work with stress, not against it. D. To complain to body about stress. 38. How can turning attention to joy help recharge ourselves? A. By making us forget all the problems. B. By making us more stressed about the future. C. By reducing stress and planning hopeful things. D. By making us focus only on unhappy things. 39. Why is it beneficial to relax in green spaces? A. Because it can calm our bodies and minds. B. Because it sends signs of danger to our bodies. C. Because it makes us feel more crowded. D. Because it makes us more energetic about danger. 40. What is the best title for the text? A. Purposes of reducing stress in daily life. B. Methods of dealing with low-battery signs. C. Reasons why people are often stressed. D. Ways to recharge ourselves when stressed. 第二节 阅读表达（共5题；每题2分，满分10分） 第二节 阅读表达(共5题；每题2分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。 In 2027, the first space hotel named Voyager Station is set to open. It will be built by Orbital Assembly Corporation. The 50,000-square-metre hotel will start being built in 2026 and welcome its first guests in 2027. The hotel can hold up to 440 people and will have gravity (重力) about one-sixth of the Earth’s. In 2019, the Gateway Foundation first introduced its design, then called the Von Braun Space Station. The goal is enable more people to travel to space. The hotel will have nice villas, single bedrooms, restaurants, bars and gyms. The first part to be built is a central ring with a place for ships to dock (停靠). Then a 200-metre-wide outer ring will be put together and connected to it. The inside of the hotel will use materials and colors from nature, different from the cold look in movies. For example, there will be 500-square-metre villas and 30-square-metre hotel rooms. Also, an activity and gym module (舱) will be used for low-gravity games and concerts. It was first planned to open in 2025, but because of the COVID-19 outbreak, the opening was put off to 2027. Many people are working on space tourism, and this hotel is a big step forward. 41. When is the first space hotel Voyager Station set to open? ___________________________________ 42. How many people can the Voyager Station hold up to? ___________________________________ 43. What is the goal of building the space hotel Voyager Station? ___________________________________ 44. What will the first part to be built of the hotel be? ___________________________________ 45. If you could stay in the space hotel, what part would you be most interested in and why? ___________________________________ 第四部分 情景交际(满分10分) 补全对话(共5题：每题2分，满分10分) 根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 (During the break time, Robin and Lisa are talking in the school hallway.) Robin: Hi, Lisa, the winter holiday is coming. _____46_____ Lisa: Yeah, I am thinking of doing something meaningful. _____47_____ Robin: That sounds great! I’ve always wanted to be a volunteer at the library. I love books so much! What can we volunteer to do in the library? Lisa: Well, _____48_____ We can also help the readers find the books they need. Robin: Oh, that sounds fun. _____49_____ Lisa: It’s only 10 minutes’ ride. How about you? Robin: My house is a little far from the library. But I like riding for exercise. We can go there by bike together. Lisa: _____50_____ The class is ringing. Let’s chat on WeChat later. Goodbye! Robin: Bye! 第五部分 写作(满分15分) 书面表达 51. 随着中国免签政策的实施，越来越多的外国友人计划来中国游玩。为了帮助他们更好地了解中国文化，学校正在举办以“Introducing Chinese Culture to the World”为主题的演讲活动。请从节日（festivals）、美食（food）、艺术（art）和名胜古迹（places of interest）等方面用英语写一篇演讲稿向世界介绍中国文化。 注意：（1）短文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名。 （2）词数80个左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。 Dear friends, China has many traditions that attract people from all over the world. Let me introduce some of them to you! ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025年河北省初中学业水平摸底考试 英语试卷 注意事项：1. 本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3. 选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题时，请用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4. 答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 5. 考试结束时，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5题，每题1分，满分5分） 1. A. All right. B. Fine, thanks. C. Sure, please. 2. A. OK. B. Don't worry. C. My pleasure. 3. A. I think so. B. You are right. C. You are welcome. 4 A. He is over sixty. B. He is much better. C. He is very tall. 5. A. It is fantastic. B. It is on Saturday. C. It is not mine. 第二节 听对话，选择正确答案（共15题；每题1分，满分15分） 6. What is the man going to buy? A. B. C. 7. What will Sandra do later? A. B. C. 8. What's the relationship between the two speakers? A. A teacher and a student. B. A doctor and a patient. C. A sister and a brother. 9. How did Mike go to school today? A. By bike. B. By car. C. On foot. 10. Where are Jim and Steven chatting? A. At a picnic. B. At school. C. In the countryside. 11. When will Kim get the camera? A. This afternoon. B. Tomorrow morning. C. Tomorrow afternoon. 12. Who is Mr. Wang? A. An English teacher. B. A math teacher. C. A Chinese teacher. 13. How does David feel now? A. Nervous. B. Angry. C. Excited. 14. What will David do from now on? A He will have more meetings. B. He will be nice to others. C. He will work hard on math. 15. Where is Kate going? A. To the farm. B. To the English club. C. To the library. 16. How old is Kate now? A. Ten years old. B. Fourteen years old. C. Fifteen years old. 17. Who is picking apples? A. Kate's mother. B. Kate's father. C. Kate's brother. 18. When will the meeting begin? A. At 2 o'clock. B. At 1:45. C. At 1:30. 第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7题；每题1分，满分7分） 19. What will the students do first? A. Make a report. B. Fill in the form. C. Have an interview. 20. How many questions does the teacher offer them? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 21. What will the teacher ask the students to do at 3:15? A. Act out a dialogue. B. Share a report. C. Hand in the form. 22. How is the weather today? A. Sunny and warm. B. Windy and cold. C. Sunny but cold. 23. What does Quan Hongchan's father do? A. He is a worker. B. He is a farmer. C. He is a driver. 24. When did she get her first Olympic gold medal? A. In 2007. B. In 2021. C. In 2024. 25. What does the speaker want us to do? A. Be brave when facing difficulties. B Have a rest when we are tired. C. Make a report when we are on duty. 第四节 听短文填空（共5题；每题1分，满分5分） Information Sheet Day: 26. this ______ morning Leave: 27. at ______ o'clock Bring: 28. some ______ and snacks Wear: 29. comfortable ______ Help: 30. ______ up the park 第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10题；每题1分，满分10分） 【1~10题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. B 第一节 短文填空(共15顾。每题1分。满分15分) 【11~25题答案】 【答案】11. for 12. them 13. decision 14. thought 15. what 16. was encouraged 17. so 18. eighteenth 19. a 20. to bring 21. drinks 22. will hold 23 successful 24. to 25. surely 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15题；每题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 【26~28题答案】 【答案】26. B 27. C 28. D 【29~31题答案】 【答案】29. B 30. A 31. D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. B 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. D 第二节 阅读表达（共5题；每题2分，满分10分） 第二节 阅读表达(共5题；每题2分，满分10分) 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. In 2027. 42. 440. 43. To enable more people to travel to space. 44. A central ring with a place for ships to dock. 45. I would be most interested in the activity and gym module because I enjoy low-gravity games and concerts. 第四部分 情景交际(满分10分) 补全对话(共5题：每题2分，满分10分) 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. Do you have any plans for the holiday? 47. How about volunteering at the library? 48. we can help organize the books on the shelves. 49. How far is the library from your house? 50. Sounds great! 第五部分 写作(满分15分) 书面表达 【51题答案】 【答案】例文： Dear friends, China has many traditions that attract people from all over the world. Let me introduce some of them to you! China is famous for its traditional festivals, such as the Spring Festival and Mid-Autumn Festival, which are celebrated with great enthusiasm. Chinese food, including dumplings and Peking duck, is not only delicious but also reflects the rich culture of the country. In addition, China’s artistic treasures like calligraphy and traditional Chinese painting have a history of thousands of years. Finally, historical sites such as the Great Wall and the Forbidden City show the country’s long and fascinating history. We warmly welcome you to visit China and experience its unique culture! Thank you! 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$