江苏省泰州市B卷-2024-2025学年七年级下学期核心素养期中素质调研英语试题

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2025-03-29
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英语 第 1页(共 2页) 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 江苏泰州卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研试题 选择题(请用 2B铅笔填涂) 注意事项 1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。 2.请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内。 3.选择题必须使用 2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用 0.5 mm黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整。 4.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 5.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 6.填涂样例 正确 [■] 错误 [--][√] [×] 缺考标记 违纪标记 以上标记由监考 人员用 2B 铅笔 填涂! 条 码 粘 贴 处 准考证号: 姓 名:________________________________ 1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D] 18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D] 19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 35.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 英语 第 2页(共 2页) 第二部分 非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读 阅读下面短文, 请根据短文内容, 在文后表格中填入恰当的单词, 每空 一词。 (共 10空;每空 1. 5分, 满分 15分) 46._____________ 47. _____________ 48. _____________ 49. _____________ 50. _____________ 51._____________ 52. _____________ 53. _____________ 54. _____________ 55. _____________ 五、综合填空(共 10小题,每小题 1.5分,满分 15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不限 一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 56._____________ 57. _____________ 58. _____________ 59. _____________ 60. _____________ 61._____________ 62. _____________ 63. _____________ 64. _____________ 65. _____________ 六、书面表达(满分 25分) Dear Alice, I am very happy to invite you to my new home._________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ Welcome to my home. I think you’ll have a good time here. Yours, Millie 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 英语 第 1页(共 2页) 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 ( ………………○……………… 外 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ) ( ………………○……………… 内 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ) ( 此卷只装订 不密封 ) ( ………………○……………… 内 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ………………○……………… 外 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… … 学校: ______________ 姓名: _____________ 班级: _______________ 考号: ______________________ ) 江苏泰州B卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研试题 注意事项: 1.本试卷分第一部分选择题和第二部分非选择题,满分120分;时间100分钟; 2.答题前,考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、考场号、考试号、座位号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡相对应的位置上,并用2B铅笔认真正确填涂考试证号下方的数字; 3.答选择题时必须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑.如需改动,请用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案;答非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔写在答题卡指定的位置上,不在答题区域内的答案一律无效,不得用其他笔答题; 4.考生答题必须答在答题卡上,答在试卷和草稿纸上一律无效. 一、单项选择 (共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分) 从下列每题所给的四个选项中, 选择一个最佳答案。 1.We must do something ________ our classroom ________. A.keep; clean B.keep; cleaning C.to keep; cleaning D.to keep; clean 2.Mum tried many ways to help my dad ________ . A.stops to smoke B.stopped smoking C.stop to smoke D.stop smoking 3.The shop near our school ________ at eight in the morning and it ________ for twelve hours a day. A.is open; opens B.opens; is open C.is opening; is open D.opens; is opening 4.—Do you know __________? —Sorry, I don’t know. A.how old is Tom B.how old Tom is C.where is Tom D.where Tom live 5.—There is _______ food in the fridge. —OK, I will buy something to eat and _______. A.a little, two glasses of milk B.little, two glasses of milk C.few, two glasses of milks D.a few, two glasses of milk 6.—________ is it from your home to the nearest police station? —It's about three kilometres ________. A.How far; away B.How far; far C.How long; far D.How long; away 7.—How tall is ________ CN Tower? —It is ________. A.the; 1,815-foot-tall B./; 1,815 feet tall C./; 1,815-foot-tall D.the; 1,815 feet tall 8.Teachers often tell us ________ honest children. A.to be B.be C.are D.being 9.To get to the museum, you must go ________ the busy street. A.cross B.through C.pass D.across 10.New York is ________ its Wall Street. We can see many banks there. A.known as B.famous as C.known to D.famous for 二、完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分, 满分15分) 阅读短文,从每题所给选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Is there a connection between music and language? According to recent studies, the answer is 11 : Music improves certain (某种) language abilities (能力) in the brain. Here, we look at two examples. A recent study by researcher Kraus shows that playing a musical instrument can improve a person’s 12 ability. In his study, two groups of people listened to a person talking in a 13 room: The people in the first group were musicians, while those in the second group had no musical training. The musicians were able to hear the talking person 14 . Musicians hear better 15 they learn to pay attention to certain sounds. Think about violinists in an orchestra. When the violinists play with the group, they hear their own instrument and many other 16 , too. But the violinists must listen closely to what they are playing, and pay 17 attention to the other sounds. 18 , musicians are able to focus on (专注于) certain sounds, even in a room with lots of noise. Schlaug, a 19 at Harvard Medical School, works with stroke (中风) patients (病人). 20 their illness, these people cannot say their names, addresses, or other information normally. However, they can 21 sing. Schlaug was surprised to 22 that singing words helped his patients to speak. Why does this work? Schlaug isn’t sure. Music 23 to make different parts of the brain work, and even the damaged (损坏的) parts. This might 24 patients to use that part of the brain again. Music improves concentration (注意力), memory, listening skills, and our overall language abilities. It can even help sick people get better. Playing an instrument or singing can help us do better in school and keep our brain sharp (敏锐的) as we get 25 . Music is not only enjoyable, it’s also good for us in many other ways. 11.A.yes B.unknown C.no D.possible 12.A.language B.speaking C.hearing D.singing 13.A.large B.dirty C.beautiful D.noisy 14.A.clearly B.more clearly C.quickly D.more quickly 15.A.so B.because C.when D.after 16.A.voices B.people C.noises D.instruments 17.A.no B.a lot of C./ D.a little 18.A.Anyway B.By the way C.On the way D.In this way 19.A.headmaster B.scientist C.doctor D.student 20.A.When B.Because of C.After D.Thanks to 21.A.hardly B.finally C.still D.only 22.A.find B.see C.know D.learn 23.A.trains B.starts C.gets D.seems 24.A.explain B.teach C.help D.stop 25.A.stronger B.older C.cleverer D.taller 三、 阅读理解(共40分) 阅读下列短文, 根据内容选择最佳答案。(共20小题;每小题2分, 满分40分) A MNT Zoo We have all kinds of American and African animals here! Opening time: 9:00 am—5:00 pm (Tuesday—Friday) 9:00 am—6:00 pm (Saturday—Sunday) Ticket: Adults—20 yuan       Children—10 yuan Rules (规则): 1. Don’t touch the animals.    2. Don’t give the animals food. 3. No photos in the zoo because some animals are shy (胆小的). 4. Don’t throw away trash (垃圾).     Telephone: 5432517 To know more, please visit www.mntzoo.org.tw. 26.When can’t we go to the zoo? A.On Mondays. B.On Tuesdays. C.On Saturdays and Sundays. D.On Fridays. 27.Where are the animals from? A.Asia and America. B.America and Africa. C.Europe and Africa. D.Asia and Europe. 28.Mrs Wang and her husband will go to the zoo with their two children. They will spend ________. A.80 yuan B.60 yuan C.40 yuan D.20 yuan 29.What can we do in this zoo? A. B. C. D. 30.Which one is NOT right? A.We can’t throw away trash in the zoo. B.We know the zoo’s telephone number. C.All the animals are dangerous in the zoo. D.We can know something about the zoo on the Internet. B Alice is my good friend. She is twenty-two years old. Now she lives in Beijing, China. She teaches English in a junior high school. She loves making friends with the students and they like her very much. Every morning she gets up very early. At about 7:00, she usually has a glass of milk and some bread for breakfast at home. Then she walks to work and gets to school at about a quarter to eight. At 12:00 she eats a hamburger and an apple for lunch. Her favorite drink is Coke. She goes home at 5 o’clock in the afternoon. She likes to have noodles(面条)and chicken for dinner. On Sunday, she often comes to see me. Sometimes we go to a Chinese restaurant to have lunch.                                    31.Alice is _______. A.a doctor B.a nurse C.a driver D.a teacher 32.—What does Alice usually have for breakfast at home? —_______ A.A glass of milk and some bread. B.An egg and some bread. C.A cup of coffee and some bread. D.A glass of milk and a hamburger. 33.Alice gets to school _______ a. m. A.at 8:15 B.at 7:45 C.at 7:40 D.at 8:00 34.—What does Alice often do on Sunday? —She often ________. A.has dinner with me B.goes to the restaurant C.comes to see me D.eats noodles 35.Which of the following is NOT true? A.Alice lives in China now. B.Alice likes Coke best. C.Alice gets home at 5:00 in the afternoon. D.On weekdays she has a hamburger and an apple for lunch. C We are learning English, but how can we learn English well? A student can know a lot about English, but maybe he can not speak English. If you want to know how to swim, you must get into the river. And if you want to be a football player, you must play football. So , you see, you can learn English only by using it. You listen to your teacher carefully in class. You must read your lessons every day. You must speak English to your English teacher and classmates and also you must write in English. Then one day, you may find your English very good. 36.You know a lot about English but maybe you ______. A.can’t speak it B.can study it C.can’t study it D.can’t use it 37.You must get into the river ______. A.to play with water B.to go boating C.to learn how to swim D.to catch a fish 38.Do you want to be a football player? Please____. A.put your football away B.buy a good football C.play football D.watch others play football 39.According to the passage,how can we learn English well ? A.We must have a good English book. B.We must have a good English teacher. C.We must see more English films. D.We must use it often. 40.Who can you speak English to in your class? A.Only my classmates. B.My English teacher and classmates. C.My father and mother. D.All my friends. D The train started moving. It was packed with people of all ages. Most of them were working men and women and young college boys and girls. Near the window sat an old man with his son, who looked about thirty years old. As the train moved, the son was filled with joy because he was very excited at the scenery outside. He said in a high voice, “See Dad, the green trees and the scenery are very beautiful!” It made the other people feel very strange. Everyone started talking in a low voice about the old man’s son. Suddenly, it started raining. Raindrops fell on the travelers through the open window. Seeing the rain, the old man’s son said happily, “See Dad, how beautiful the rain is!” Hearing these words, a young lady became angry with the man, as the raindrops were dropping on her new clothes. She couldn’t help shouting at the noisy son and his father. “Can’t you see it is raining? You! Old man! If your son is not feeling well, get him to a mental hospital quickly and please don’t disturb us any more!” The old man’s face turned slightly red and then in a low voice, he replied, “We are on the way back from hospital. He was blind at birth. Only last week he can see again. The rain and the nature are new to him. Please forgive him.” All the other people became quiet. 41.How old was the old man’s son? A.About 7 years old. B.About 20 years old. C.About 50 years old. D.About 30 years old. 42.What did people think of the son’s behavior(行为)? They thought he was _________. A.lovely B.funny C.strange D.clever 43.What was wrong with the son when he was born? A.He had mental illness. B.He couldn’t see. C.He couldn’t hear. D.He couldn’t talk. 44.What do you think of the young lady? A.She was friendly to the man. B.She was rude to the old man. C.She was clever. D.She was too noisy. 45.According to the passage, what does the writer want to tell us? A.We should be friendly to sick people. B.We should learn to enjoy the nature. C.We should respect the elder people. D.We should know the truth before complaining. 第二部分 非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读 (共10空;每空1. 5分, 满分15分) 阅读下面短文, 请根据短文内容, 在文后表格中填入恰当的单词, 每空一词。 We all want to live comfortably and safely in our community,so we put up this notice here to tell you something we think you should follow. ·The main streets are cleaned twice a week,so please try to keep them tidy and clean and do not leave furniture or rubbish on the streets. ·The main lights are on a timer(定时器)and they stay on for five minutes when you press them. Please tell us if any lights are not working. ·Please keep noise to a minimum(最小值).Loud music and other loud noise can disturb(妨碍)other people and we will get in touch with you if you make too much noise. ·Make sure the outside door is always locked and do not let any strangers get into your house. ·Each flat has one car parking space(停车位).These are numbered and are at the back of the building. If you have more than one car,you will have to park it on the road. If you have any problems or questions,please call us at 080-00969000. A 46 of living in the community We all want to live in a 47 and safe community, so we had better follow these steps. Cleaning We clean the streets 48 a week. Please help keep them clean and tidy. Lights The lights can stay on for five 49 If the lights are 50 , please tell us. Noise Please keep 51 and don't disturb others. Safety Lock the outside door and never let strangers 52 . Parking Each parking space has a 53 .If you have 54 one car you will have to park it on the road. If you have any 55 or questions, please call us. 五、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不限一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 I have a good friend, and his name is Jack. He is 56 Australia, It’s Sunday today. He gets up at half 57 five. And then he begins(开始) to do sports at six o’clock. After breakfast, he does his homework from eight o’clock to eleven thirty. In the afternoon, he goes to the zoo with his uncle. They see many 58 like elephants, 59 (monkey) and tigers. He likes pandas very much. And he thinks 60 (them) are very nice. His uncle says, “ 61 come from China. I like them, too. ” They have 62 good time in the zoo In the evening, Jack 63 (watch) Animal World on TV at half past eight. It’s about two baby (幼小的) pandas. 64 (They) names are Tuantuan and Yuanyuan. They are six 65 ( month) old. He drinks a glass of milk(喝一杯牛奶) and then goes to bed at ten o’clock. 六、书面表达(满分25分) 66.“五一小长假”快到了。假如你是Millie,想要邀请你的朋友Alice来你的新家做客。根据下面提供的信息,用英语写一封邀请信。 地理位置 市中心公寓里,住在十九楼 社区 绿树环绕,……(至少再描写一个细节) 邻居友好,志愿者……(至少举一例) 路线 乘819路公共汽车在人民桥(Renming Bridge)下,往前; 第1个路口右转,然后你就会看见一个超市,我家就在超市的后面。 要 求: 1)词数70左右。短文的开头和结尾已经写好,不计入总词数。 2)短文须包含所有要点,不要逐词翻译,可适当发挥,使短文连贯,通顺。 3)短文不得体现真实的人名,校名等相关信息。 Dear Alice, I am very happy to invite you to my new home. ________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Welcome to my home. I think you’ll have a good time here. Yours, Millie 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$ 江苏泰州B卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研试题 注意事项: 1.本试卷分第一部分选择题和第二部分非选择题,满分120分;时间100分钟; 2.答题前,考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、考场号、考试号、座位号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡相对应的位置上,并用2B铅笔认真正确填涂考试证号下方的数字; 3.答选择题时必须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑.如需改动,请用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案;答非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔写在答题卡指定的位置上,不在答题区域内的答案一律无效,不得用其他笔答题; 4.考生答题必须答在答题卡上,答在试卷和草稿纸上一律无效. 一、单项选择 (共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分) 从下列每题所给的四个选项中, 选择一个最佳答案。 1.We must do something ________ our classroom ________. A.keep; clean B.keep; cleaning C.to keep; cleaning D.to keep; clean 2.Mum tried many ways to help my dad ________ . A.stops to smoke B.stopped smoking C.stop to smoke D.stop smoking 3.The shop near our school ________ at eight in the morning and it ________ for twelve hours a day. A.is open; opens B.opens; is open C.is opening; is open D.opens; is opening 4.—Do you know __________? —Sorry, I don’t know. A.how old is Tom B.how old Tom is C.where is Tom D.where Tom live 5.—There is _______ food in the fridge. —OK, I will buy something to eat and _______. A.a little, two glasses of milk B.little, two glasses of milk C.few, two glasses of milks D.a few, two glasses of milk 6.—________ is it from your home to the nearest police station? —It's about three kilometres ________. A.How far; away B.How far; far C.How long; far D.How long; away 7.—How tall is ________ CN Tower? —It is ________. A.the; 1,815-foot-tall B./; 1,815 feet tall C./; 1,815-foot-tall D.the; 1,815 feet tall 8.Teachers often tell us ________ honest children. A.to be B.be C.are D.being 9.To get to the museum, you must go ________ the busy street. A.cross B.through C.pass D.across 10.New York is ________ its Wall Street. We can see many banks there. A.known as B.famous as C.known to D.famous for 二、完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分, 满分15分) 阅读短文,从每题所给选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Is there a connection between music and language? According to recent studies, the answer is 11 : Music improves certain (某种) language abilities (能力) in the brain. Here, we look at two examples. A recent study by researcher Kraus shows that playing a musical instrument can improve a person’s 12 ability. In his study, two groups of people listened to a person talking in a 13 room: The people in the first group were musicians, while those in the second group had no musical training. The musicians were able to hear the talking person 14 . Musicians hear better 15 they learn to pay attention to certain sounds. Think about violinists in an orchestra. When the violinists play with the group, they hear their own instrument and many other 16 , too. But the violinists must listen closely to what they are playing, and pay 17 attention to the other sounds. 18 , musicians are able to focus on (专注于) certain sounds, even in a room with lots of noise. Schlaug, a 19 at Harvard Medical School, works with stroke (中风) patients (病人). 20 their illness, these people cannot say their names, addresses, or other information normally. However, they can 21 sing. Schlaug was surprised to 22 that singing words helped his patients to speak. Why does this work? Schlaug isn’t sure. Music 23 to make different parts of the brain work, and even the damaged (损坏的) parts. This might 24 patients to use that part of the brain again. Music improves concentration (注意力), memory, listening skills, and our overall language abilities. It can even help sick people get better. Playing an instrument or singing can help us do better in school and keep our brain sharp (敏锐的) as we get 25 . Music is not only enjoyable, it’s also good for us in many other ways. 11.A.yes B.unknown C.no D.possible 12.A.language B.speaking C.hearing D.singing 13.A.large B.dirty C.beautiful D.noisy 14.A.clearly B.more clearly C.quickly D.more quickly 15.A.so B.because C.when D.after 16.A.voices B.people C.noises D.instruments 17.A.no B.a lot of C./ D.a little 18.A.Anyway B.By the way C.On the way D.In this way 19.A.headmaster B.scientist C.doctor D.student 20.A.When B.Because of C.After D.Thanks to 21.A.hardly B.finally C.still D.only 22.A.find B.see C.know D.learn 23.A.trains B.starts C.gets D.seems 24.A.explain B.teach C.help D.stop 25.A.stronger B.older C.cleverer D.taller 三、 阅读理解(共40分) 阅读下列短文, 根据内容选择最佳答案。(共20小题;每小题2分, 满分40分) A MNT Zoo We have all kinds of American and African animals here! Opening time: 9:00 am—5:00 pm (Tuesday—Friday) 9:00 am—6:00 pm (Saturday—Sunday) Ticket: Adults—20 yuan       Children—10 yuan Rules (规则): 1. Don’t touch the animals.    2. Don’t give the animals food. 3. No photos in the zoo because some animals are shy (胆小的). 4. Don’t throw away trash (垃圾).     Telephone: 5432517 To know more, please visit www.mntzoo.org.tw. 26.When can’t we go to the zoo? A.On Mondays. B.On Tuesdays. C.On Saturdays and Sundays. D.On Fridays. 27.Where are the animals from? A.Asia and America. B.America and Africa. C.Europe and Africa. D.Asia and Europe. 28.Mrs Wang and her husband will go to the zoo with their two children. They will spend ________. A.80 yuan B.60 yuan C.40 yuan D.20 yuan 29.What can we do in this zoo? A. B. C. D. 30.Which one is NOT right? A.We can’t throw away trash in the zoo. B.We know the zoo’s telephone number. C.All the animals are dangerous in the zoo. D.We can know something about the zoo on the Internet. B Alice is my good friend. She is twenty-two years old. Now she lives in Beijing, China. She teaches English in a junior high school. She loves making friends with the students and they like her very much. Every morning she gets up very early. At about 7:00, she usually has a glass of milk and some bread for breakfast at home. Then she walks to work and gets to school at about a quarter to eight. At 12:00 she eats a hamburger and an apple for lunch. Her favorite drink is Coke. She goes home at 5 o’clock in the afternoon. She likes to have noodles(面条)and chicken for dinner. On Sunday, she often comes to see me. Sometimes we go to a Chinese restaurant to have lunch.                                    31.Alice is _______. A.a doctor B.a nurse C.a driver D.a teacher 32.—What does Alice usually have for breakfast at home? —_______ A.A glass of milk and some bread. B.An egg and some bread. C.A cup of coffee and some bread. D.A glass of milk and a hamburger. 33.Alice gets to school _______ a. m. A.at 8:15 B.at 7:45 C.at 7:40 D.at 8:00 34.—What does Alice often do on Sunday? —She often ________. A.has dinner with me B.goes to the restaurant C.comes to see me D.eats noodles 35.Which of the following is NOT true? A.Alice lives in China now. B.Alice likes Coke best. C.Alice gets home at 5:00 in the afternoon. D.On weekdays she has a hamburger and an apple for lunch. C We are learning English, but how can we learn English well? A student can know a lot about English, but maybe he can not speak English. If you want to know how to swim, you must get into the river. And if you want to be a football player, you must play football. So , you see, you can learn English only by using it. You listen to your teacher carefully in class. You must read your lessons every day. You must speak English to your English teacher and classmates and also you must write in English. Then one day, you may find your English very good. 36.You know a lot about English but maybe you ______. A.can’t speak it B.can study it C.can’t study it D.can’t use it 37.You must get into the river ______. A.to play with water B.to go boating C.to learn how to swim D.to catch a fish 38.Do you want to be a football player? Please____. A.put your football away B.buy a good football C.play football D.watch others play football 39.According to the passage,how can we learn English well ? A.We must have a good English book. B.We must have a good English teacher. C.We must see more English films. D.We must use it often. 40.Who can you speak English to in your class? A.Only my classmates. B.My English teacher and classmates. C.My father and mother. D.All my friends. D The train started moving. It was packed with people of all ages. Most of them were working men and women and young college boys and girls. Near the window sat an old man with his son, who looked about thirty years old. As the train moved, the son was filled with joy because he was very excited at the scenery outside. He said in a high voice, “See Dad, the green trees and the scenery are very beautiful!” It made the other people feel very strange. Everyone started talking in a low voice about the old man’s son. Suddenly, it started raining. Raindrops fell on the travelers through the open window. Seeing the rain, the old man’s son said happily, “See Dad, how beautiful the rain is!” Hearing these words, a young lady became angry with the man, as the raindrops were dropping on her new clothes. She couldn’t help shouting at the noisy son and his father. “Can’t you see it is raining? You! Old man! If your son is not feeling well, get him to a mental hospital quickly and please don’t disturb us any more!” The old man’s face turned slightly red and then in a low voice, he replied, “We are on the way back from hospital. He was blind at birth. Only last week he can see again. The rain and the nature are new to him. Please forgive him.” All the other people became quiet. 41.How old was the old man’s son? A.About 7 years old. B.About 20 years old. C.About 50 years old. D.About 30 years old. 42.What did people think of the son’s behavior(行为)? They thought he was _________. A.lovely B.funny C.strange D.clever 43.What was wrong with the son when he was born? A.He had mental illness. B.He couldn’t see. C.He couldn’t hear. D.He couldn’t talk. 44.What do you think of the young lady? A.She was friendly to the man. B.She was rude to the old man. C.She was clever. D.She was too noisy. 45.According to the passage, what does the writer want to tell us? A.We should be friendly to sick people. B.We should learn to enjoy the nature. C.We should respect the elder people. D.We should know the truth before complaining. 第二部分 非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读 (共10空;每空1. 5分, 满分15分) 阅读下面短文, 请根据短文内容, 在文后表格中填入恰当的单词, 每空一词。 We all want to live comfortably and safely in our community,so we put up this notice here to tell you something we think you should follow. ·The main streets are cleaned twice a week,so please try to keep them tidy and clean and do not leave furniture or rubbish on the streets. ·The main lights are on a timer(定时器)and they stay on for five minutes when you press them. Please tell us if any lights are not working. ·Please keep noise to a minimum(最小值).Loud music and other loud noise can disturb(妨碍)other people and we will get in touch with you if you make too much noise. ·Make sure the outside door is always locked and do not let any strangers get into your house. ·Each flat has one car parking space(停车位).These are numbered and are at the back of the building. If you have more than one car,you will have to park it on the road. If you have any problems or questions,please call us at 080-00969000. A 46 of living in the community We all want to live in a 47 and safe community, so we had better follow these steps. Cleaning We clean the streets 48 a week. Please help keep them clean and tidy. Lights The lights can stay on for five 49 If the lights are 50 , please tell us. Noise Please keep 51 and don't disturb others. Safety Lock the outside door and never let strangers 52 . Parking Each parking space has a 53 .If you have 54 one car you will have to park it on the road. If you have any 55 or questions, please call us. 五、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不限一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 I have a good friend, and his name is Jack. He is 56 Australia, It’s Sunday today. He gets up at half 57 five. And then he begins(开始) to do sports at six o’clock. After breakfast, he does his homework from eight o’clock to eleven thirty. In the afternoon, he goes to the zoo with his uncle. They see many 58 like elephants, 59 (monkey) and tigers. He likes pandas very much. And he thinks 60 (them) are very nice. His uncle says, “ 61 come from China. I like them, too. ” They have 62 good time in the zoo In the evening, Jack 63 (watch) Animal World on TV at half past eight. It’s about two baby (幼小的) pandas. 64 (They) names are Tuantuan and Yuanyuan. They are six 65 ( month) old. He drinks a glass of milk(喝一杯牛奶) and then goes to bed at ten o’clock. 六、书面表达(满分25分) 66.“五一小长假”快到了。假如你是Millie,想要邀请你的朋友Alice来你的新家做客。根据下面提供的信息,用英语写一封邀请信。 地理位置 市中心公寓里,住在十九楼 社区 绿树环绕,……(至少再描写一个细节) 邻居友好,志愿者……(至少举一例) 路线 乘819路公共汽车在人民桥(Renming Bridge)下,往前; 第1个路口右转,然后你就会看见一个超市,我家就在超市的后面。 要 求: 1)词数70左右。短文的开头和结尾已经写好,不计入总词数。 2)短文须包含所有要点,不要逐词翻译,可适当发挥,使短文连贯,通顺。 3)短文不得体现真实的人名,校名等相关信息。 Dear Alice, I am very happy to invite you to my new home. ___________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Welcome to my home. I think you’ll have a good time here. Yours, Millie 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$江苏泰州卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研试题 ( 注意事项 1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。 2.请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内 。 3.选择题必须 使用2B 铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用 0.5 mm 黑 色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整 。 4.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 5.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 6. 填涂样例 正确 [ ■ ] 错误 [ -- ][ √ ] [ × ] 缺考标记 违纪标记 以上标记由监考人员用 2B 铅笔填涂! 条 码 粘 贴 处 准考证号 : 姓 名 : ________________________________ ) 选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂) ( 1 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 2 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 3 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 4 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 5. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 6 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 7 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 8 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 9 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 10. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ][ D ] 11 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 12 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 13 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 14 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 15 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 1 6 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 1 7 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 1 8 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 19 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 20 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 35 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 36 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 37 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 38 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 39 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 40 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 4 1 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 4 2 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 4 3 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 4 4 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 4 5 . [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] ) ( 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! ) ( 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! ) ( 第二部分 非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读 阅读下面短文, 请根据短文内容, 在文后表格中填入恰当的单词, 每空 一词。 (共10空;每空1. 5分, 满分15分) 4 6. _____________ 4 7. _____________ 4 8. _____________ 4 9. _____________ 5 0. _____________ 5 1 . _____________ 5 2 . _____________ 5 3 . _____________ 5 4 . _____________ 5 5 . _____________ 五、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不限一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 5 6. _____________ 5 7. _____________ 5 8. _____________ 5 9. _____________ 6 0. _____________ 6 1 . _____________ 6 2 . _____________ 6 3 . _____________ 6 4 . _____________ 6 5 . _____________ 六、 书面表达(满分 25 分) Dear Alice, I am very happy to invite you to my new home. _________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Welcome to my home. I think you’ll have a good time here. Yours, Millie ) ( 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! ) ( ) ( 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! ) ( ) ( ) 英语 第2页(共2页) 英语 第1页(共2页) 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$ 江苏泰州B卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研试题 注意事项: 1.本试卷分第一部分选择题和第二部分非选择题,满分120分;时间100分钟; 2.答题前,考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、考场号、考试号、座位号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡相对应的位置上,并用2B铅笔认真正确填涂考试证号下方的数字; 3.答选择题时必须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑.如需改动,请用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案;答非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔写在答题卡指定的位置上,不在答题区域内的答案一律无效,不得用其他笔答题; 4.考生答题必须答在答题卡上,答在试卷和草稿纸上一律无效. 一、单项选择 (共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分) 从下列每题所给的四个选项中, 选择一个最佳答案。 1.We must do something ________ our classroom ________. A.keep; clean B.keep; cleaning C.to keep; cleaning D.to keep; clean 【答案】D 【难度】0.4 【知识点】动词不定式作目的状语、形容词作宾语补足语 【详解】句意:我们必须做些什么来保持我们的教室干净。 考查非谓语动词及形容词用法。“保持教室干净”是目的,用动词不定式to keep作目的状语;keep后接形容词clean作宾语补足语。故选D。 2.Mum tried many ways to help my dad ________ . A.stops to smoke B.stopped smoking C.stop to smoke D.stop smoking 【答案】D 【难度】0.4 【知识点】动名词作宾语、动词不定式作宾语补足语 【详解】句意:妈妈尝试了很多方法来帮助爸爸戒烟。 考查动词短语。help sb do sth“帮助某人做某事”,排除AB;stop to do sth“停下来去做另一件事”;stop doing sth“停止做某事”。根据“Mum tried many ways to help my dad...”及语境可知,应是帮助爸爸戒烟,用stop doing。故选D。 3.The shop near our school ________ at eight in the morning and it ________ for twelve hours a day. A.is open; opens B.opens; is open C.is opening; is open D.opens; is opening 【答案】B 【难度】0.4 【知识点】is、形容词作表语、“三单"形式的变化规则、be动词 【详解】句意:我们学校附近的商店早上八点开门,每天营业十二小时。 考查动词时态及形容词的用法。根据in the morning可知,第一空是一般现在时态,主语是the shop,可知,此处是商店早上八点开门,open“打开”,是动词,此处变第三人称单数;第二空,根据“for twelve hours a day”可知,此处表示状态,open“开着的”,是形容词,主语是it,be动词用is。故选B。 4.—Do you know __________? —Sorry, I don’t know. A.how old is Tom B.how old Tom is C.where is Tom D.where Tom live 【答案】B 【难度】0.4 【知识点】主现从不限、宾语从句的语序 【详解】句意:——你知道Tom多大吗?——不好意思,我不知道。 考查宾语从句。此句是宾语从句,从句语序是陈述句语序,排除A和C;主句一般现在时,从句时态不限,询问事实 ,用一般现在时,D选项中,谓语动词live应该用第三人称单数形式,故排除。故选B。 5.—There is _______ food in the fridge. —OK, I will buy something to eat and _______. A.a little, two glasses of milk B.little, two glasses of milk C.few, two glasses of milks D.a few, two glasses of milk 【答案】B 【难度】0.4 【知识点】a few/few/a little/little、不可数名词及其数的表达、little(adj. 小的)、a little+n.、a few+n.、milk 【详解】句意:——冰箱里几乎没有食物了。 ——好的,我去买些吃的和两杯牛奶。 考查不定代词和不可数名词以及数的表达。a little一些,修饰不可数名词;little几乎没有,修饰不可数名词;a few一些,修饰可数名词;few几乎没有,修饰可数名词。第一空后“food”表示“食物”,是不可数名词,且表示冰箱“没有食物了”,因此第一空是little;第二空表示“两杯牛奶”,milk是不可数名词,因此正确表达是“two glasses of milk”。故选B。 6.—________ is it from your home to the nearest police station? —It's about three kilometres ________. A.How far; away B.How far; far C.How long; far D.How long; away 【答案】A 【难度】0.4 【知识点】特殊疑问句、how long、how far、far、away 【详解】句意:——从你家到最近的警察局有多远?——大约3公里远。 考查特殊疑问句。how long多长时间,提问时间段;how far多远,提问路程;away副词,离开。根据“3 miles”可知是距离,所以用how far提问;结合空前是具体距离,可推测出此处是“away”,故选A。 7.—How tall is ________ CN Tower? —It is ________. A.the; 1,815-foot-tall B./; 1,815 feet tall C./; 1,815-foot-tall D.the; 1,815 feet tall 【答案】D 【难度】0.4 【知识点】用在某些专有名词前、深度高度等表达 【详解】句意:——加拿大国家电视塔有多高?——它有1815英尺高。 考查冠词和高度的表达。根据“CN Tower”可知特指加拿大的国家电视塔,用定冠词the;“1,815-foot-tall”结构只能作定语用,句中缺少表语,用1,815 feet tall表示“1815英尺高”。故选D。 8.Teachers often tell us ________ honest children. A.to be B.be C.are D.being 【答案】A 【难度】0.4 【知识点】动词不定式作宾语补足语 【详解】句意:老师们经常告诉我们要做诚实的孩子。 考查非谓语动词辨析。to be是动词不定式;be是动词原形;are用于第二人称和主语是复数;being是动名词。短语tell sb. to do sth.意为告诉某人做某事,跟动词不定式作宾语补足语,故选A。 9.To get to the museum, you must go ________ the busy street. A.cross B.through C.pass D.across 【答案】D 【难度】0.4 【知识点】地点方位介词、介词辨析 【详解】句意:为了到达博物馆,你必须穿过这条繁忙的街道。 考查介词。A. cross动词,穿越、横穿;B. through介词,穿过,指在物体中间穿过;C. pass动词,通过;D. across介词,穿越、横穿,指在物体表面穿过。根据空前动词go可知,空处的词应用介词“穿过”并且是“在物体的表面穿过”,故选D。 10.New York is ________ its Wall Street. We can see many banks there. A.known as B.famous as C.known to D.famous for 【答案】D 【难度】0.4 【知识点】形容词短语 【详解】句意:纽约以其华尔街而闻名。我们可以看到那里有很多银行。 考查形容词性短语辨析。A. known as作为……而出名;B. famous as作为……而出名;C. known to    为……所知;D. famous for因为……而出名。纽约是因为华尔街而闻名,故选D。 【点睛】牢记词组的含义,并做好区分: be known as 作为……而出名;be known for 因为……而出名;be known to 为……所知; be famous as作为……而出名;be famous for因为……而出名 因此be famous as=be known as;be famous for= be known for这道题中A、B意思一样,能轻松排除掉。 二、完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分, 满分15分) 阅读短文,从每题所给选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Is there a connection between music and language? According to recent studies, the answer is 11 : Music improves certain (某种) language abilities (能力) in the brain. Here, we look at two examples. A recent study by researcher Kraus shows that playing a musical instrument can improve a person’s 12 ability. In his study, two groups of people listened to a person talking in a 13 room: The people in the first group were musicians, while those in the second group had no musical training. The musicians were able to hear the talking person 14 . Musicians hear better 15 they learn to pay attention to certain sounds. Think about violinists in an orchestra. When the violinists play with the group, they hear their own instrument and many other 16 , too. But the violinists must listen closely to what they are playing, and pay 17 attention to the other sounds. 18 , musicians are able to focus on (专注于) certain sounds, even in a room with lots of noise. Schlaug, a 19 at Harvard Medical School, works with stroke (中风) patients (病人). 20 their illness, these people cannot say their names, addresses, or other information normally. However, they can 21 sing. Schlaug was surprised to 22 that singing words helped his patients to speak. Why does this work? Schlaug isn’t sure. Music 23 to make different parts of the brain work, and even the damaged (损坏的) parts. This might 24 patients to use that part of the brain again. Music improves concentration (注意力), memory, listening skills, and our overall language abilities. It can even help sick people get better. Playing an instrument or singing can help us do better in school and keep our brain sharp (敏锐的) as we get 25 . Music is not only enjoyable, it’s also good for us in many other ways. 11.A.yes B.unknown C.no D.possible 12.A.language B.speaking C.hearing D.singing 13.A.large B.dirty C.beautiful D.noisy 14.A.clearly B.more clearly C.quickly D.more quickly 15.A.so B.because C.when D.after 16.A.voices B.people C.noises D.instruments 17.A.no B.a lot of C./ D.a little 18.A.Anyway B.By the way C.On the way D.In this way 19.A.headmaster B.scientist C.doctor D.student 20.A.When B.Because of C.After D.Thanks to 21.A.hardly B.finally C.still D.only 22.A.find B.see C.know D.learn 23.A.trains B.starts C.gets D.seems 24.A.explain B.teach C.help D.stop 25.A.stronger B.older C.cleverer D.taller 【答案】 11.A 12.C 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.D 17.A 18.D 19.C 20.B 21.C 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.B 【难度】0.4 【知识点】音乐与舞蹈 【分析】本文谈论的是音乐和语言之间的联系。结果表明,演奏乐器可以提高一个人的听力能力,甚至能帮助一个生病的人变得更好。 11.句意:根据最近的研究,答案是肯定的:音乐可以提高大脑中某种语言能力。 yes是;unknown未知的;no不;possible可能的。根据“Is there a connection between music and language?”和“Music improves certain (某种) language abilities (能力) in the brain.”可知,答案是肯定的。故选A。 12.句意:研究员克劳斯最近的一项研究表明,演奏一种乐器可以提高一个人的听力。 language语言;speaking说;hearing听;singing唱。根据“In his study, two groups of people listened to a person talking in a   3   room”可知,此处表示与“听力”相关内容。故选C。 13.句意:在他的研究中,两组人听一个人在嘈杂的房间里说话。 large大的;dirty脏的;beautiful美丽的;noisy吵闹的。根据“The musicians were able to hear the talking person   4  .”可知,房间里有人在说话,所以表示“吵闹的”,故选D。 14.句意:音乐家们能更清楚地听到说话人的声音。 clearly清晰地;more clearly更清晰地;quickly迅速地;more quickly更迅速地。根据“they learn to pay attention to certain sounds”可知,他们学会注意某些声音,所以能更清楚地听到说话人的声音。故选B。 15.句意:音乐家听得更好,因为他们学会注意某些声音。 so所以,表结果;because因为,表原因;when当……时;after在……之后。分析句子可知,此处表明音乐家听得更好的原因。故选B。 16.句意:当小提琴手和乐队一起演奏时,他们听到自己的乐器和许多其他乐器的声音。 voices嗓音;people人们;noises噪音;instruments乐器。根据“they hear their own instrument”可知,此处表示“其他乐器”的含义,用于and连接的并列结构中。故选D。 17.句意:但是小提琴手必须仔细听他们演奏的东西,而不注意其他的声音。 no不;a lot of许多;/不填;a little有一点。根据“But the violinists must listen closely to what they are playing,”可知,小提琴手必须仔细听他们演奏的东西,所以此处构成“pay no attention to”短语,翻译为“不注意……”。故选A。 18.句意:通过这种方式,音乐家能够专注于特定的声音,即使是在一个有很多噪音的房间里。 Anyway无论如何;By the way顺便;On the way在……路上;In this way通过这种方式。根据“But the violinists must listen closely to what they are playing, and pay   7   attention to the other sounds.”可知,此处描述音乐家是用何种方式专注于声音的,所以表示“通过这种方式”。故选D。 19.句意:Schlaug是哈佛医学院的一名医生,他的工作对象是中风患者。 headmaster校长;scientist科学家;doctor医生;student学生。根据“Schlaug was surprised to   12   that singing words helped his patients to speak.”可知,Schlaug帮助他的病人,所以他是一名医生。故选C。 20.句意:由于他们的疾病,这些人通常不能说出他们的名字、地址或其他信息。 When当……时;Because of因为;After在……之后;Thanks to幸亏。分析句子可知,此处描述这些人不能说出他们的名字、地址或其他信息的原因。故选B。 21.句意:然而,他们仍然可以唱歌。 hardly几乎不;finally最后;still仍然;only只,仅仅。根据“these people cannot say their names, addresses, or other information normally”可知,此处前后句构成转折关系,表示即使他们不能说出一些信息,但是仍然可以唱歌。故选C。 22.句意:Schlaug惊讶地发现唱歌能帮助他的病人说话。 find发现;see看见;know知道;learn学习。根据“However, they can   11   sing.”可知,此处表示“Schlaug惊讶地发现唱歌能帮助病人”的含义,表示结果。故选A。 23.句意:音乐似乎能使大脑的不同部分工作,甚至是受损的部分。 trains训练;starts开始;gets得到;seems似乎。根据前文“Why does this work? Schlaug isn’t sure.”可知,Schlaug不确定原因是什么,所以此处表推测,翻译为“似乎”。故选D。 24.句意:这可能有助于患者再次使用那部分大脑。 explain解释;teach教;help帮助;stop停止。根据“Schlaug was surprised to   12   that singing words helped his patients to speak.”可知,音乐可以帮助人们,所以此处也表示“帮助”的含义。故选C。 25.句意:演奏乐器或唱歌可以帮助我们在学校做得更好,并随着年龄的增长保持我们的大脑敏锐。 stronger更强壮;older更老;cleverer更聪明;taller更高。分析句子可知,此处表示“随着年龄的增长”的含义,所以表示“更老的”。故选B。 三、 阅读理解(共40分) 阅读下列短文, 根据内容选择最佳答案。(共20小题;每小题2分, 满分40分) A MNT Zoo We have all kinds of American and African animals here! Opening time: 9:00 am—5:00 pm (Tuesday—Friday) 9:00 am—6:00 pm (Saturday—Sunday) Ticket: Adults—20 yuan       Children—10 yuan Rules (规则): 1. Don’t touch the animals.    2. Don’t give the animals food. 3. No photos in the zoo because some animals are shy (胆小的). 4. Don’t throw away trash (垃圾).     Telephone: 5432517 To know more, please visit www.mntzoo.org.tw. 26.When can’t we go to the zoo? A.On Mondays. B.On Tuesdays. C.On Saturdays and Sundays. D.On Fridays. 27.Where are the animals from? A.Asia and America. B.America and Africa. C.Europe and Africa. D.Asia and Europe. 28.Mrs Wang and her husband will go to the zoo with their two children. They will spend ________. A.80 yuan B.60 yuan C.40 yuan D.20 yuan 29.What can we do in this zoo? A. B. C. D. 30.Which one is NOT right? A.We can’t throw away trash in the zoo. B.We know the zoo’s telephone number. C.All the animals are dangerous in the zoo. D.We can know something about the zoo on the Internet. 【答案】26.A 27.B 28.B 29.C 30.C 【难度】0.4 【知识点】应用文、时文/广告/布告 【分析】本文介绍了一则关于MNT动物园的公告。 26.推理判断题。根据“Opening time: 9:00 am—5:00 pm (Tuesday—Friday),9:00 am—6:00 pm (Saturday—Sunday)”可知,动物园营业的时间是星期二到星期日,因此星期一不营业,我们不能进入,故选A。 27.细节理解题。根据“We have all kinds of American and African animals here!”可知,动物来自美洲和非洲,故选B。 28.推理判断题。根据“Ticket: Adults—20 yuan , Children—10 yuan”可知,成人票是每人20元,儿童票是每人10元,因此王太太、她的丈夫和他们的两个孩子,需要支付的票钱是20×2+10×2=60元,故选B。 29.推理判断题。根据“1. Don’t touch the animals. 2. Don’t give the animals food.3. No photos in the zoo because some animals are shy (胆小的).4. Don’t throw away trash (垃圾).”可知,在动物园里不可以触摸动物;不可以给动物食物;不可以拍照;不要扔垃圾。因此C项的隔着栅栏观看动物是可以的,故选C。 30.推理判断题。根据“No photos in the zoo because some animals are shy (胆小的).”可知,有些动物胆小,因此不是所有的动物都是危险的。故选C。 B Alice is my good friend. She is twenty-two years old. Now she lives in Beijing, China. She teaches English in a junior high school. She loves making friends with the students and they like her very much. Every morning she gets up very early. At about 7:00, she usually has a glass of milk and some bread for breakfast at home. Then she walks to work and gets to school at about a quarter to eight. At 12:00 she eats a hamburger and an apple for lunch. Her favorite drink is Coke. She goes home at 5 o’clock in the afternoon. She likes to have noodles(面条)and chicken for dinner. On Sunday, she often comes to see me. Sometimes we go to a Chinese restaurant to have lunch.                                    31.Alice is _______. A.a doctor B.a nurse C.a driver D.a teacher 32.—What does Alice usually have for breakfast at home? —_______ A.A glass of milk and some bread. B.An egg and some bread. C.A cup of coffee and some bread. D.A glass of milk and a hamburger. 33.Alice gets to school _______ a. m. A.at 8:15 B.at 7:45 C.at 7:40 D.at 8:00 34.—What does Alice often do on Sunday? —She often ________. A.has dinner with me B.goes to the restaurant C.comes to see me D.eats noodles 35.Which of the following is NOT true? A.Alice lives in China now. B.Alice likes Coke best. C.Alice gets home at 5:00 in the afternoon. D.On weekdays she has a hamburger and an apple for lunch. 【答案】31.D 32.A 33.B 34.C 35.C 【难度】0.4 【知识点】细节理解、记叙文、朋友 【分析】试题分析:本文叙述了Alice是作者的好朋友,她是一所中学的老师,她现在住在北京,短文叙述她一天的生活情况。 31.细节理解题。根据She teaches English in a junior high school.在一所初级中学教英语。”可知她是一位教师。故选D。 32.细节理解题。根据She usually has a glass of milk and some bread for breakfast at home.可知她早餐吃面包喝牛奶,故选A。 33.细节理解题。根据Then she walks to work and gets to school at about a quarter to eight.可知她八点差一刻到达学校,故选B。 34.细节理解题。根据倒数第一行第一句On Sunday, she often comes to see me.可知星期天她常常来看我。故选C。 35.细节理解题。根据倒数第二行第一句She goes home at 5 o’clock in the afternoon.可知她下午5点回家,不是到家。故选C。 考点:日常生活类短文阅读。 C We are learning English, but how can we learn English well? A student can know a lot about English, but maybe he can not speak English. If you want to know how to swim, you must get into the river. And if you want to be a football player, you must play football. So , you see, you can learn English only by using it. You listen to your teacher carefully in class. You must read your lessons every day. You must speak English to your English teacher and classmates and also you must write in English. Then one day, you may find your English very good. 36.You know a lot about English but maybe you ______. A.can’t speak it B.can study it C.can’t study it D.can’t use it 37.You must get into the river ______. A.to play with water B.to go boating C.to learn how to swim D.to catch a fish 38.Do you want to be a football player? Please____. A.put your football away B.buy a good football C.play football D.watch others play football 39.According to the passage,how can we learn English well ? A.We must have a good English book. B.We must have a good English teacher. C.We must see more English films. D.We must use it often. 40.Who can you speak English to in your class? A.Only my classmates. B.My English teacher and classmates. C.My father and mother. D.All my friends. 【答案】36.A 37.C 38.C 39.D 40.B 【难度】0.4 【知识点】议论文、细节理解、意见/建议 【分析】试题分析:这篇短文中主要以学游泳和踢足球为例,说明了如何才能学好英语。 36.根据第一段A student can know a lot about English, but maybe he can not speak English.描述,可知虽然你知道很多英语,但是你不一定能说,选A。 37.根据第二段If you want to know how to swim, you must get into the river. 描述,可知选C。 38.根据第二段And if you want to be a football player, you must play football. 描述,可知进入河里面是去学游泳,选C。 39.根据第二段So , you see, you can learn English only by using it.及下文描述,可知要想学好英语必须经常用英语,选D。 40.根据第二段You must speak English to your English teacher and classmates 描述,可知你可以和你的老师,同学们说英语,选B。 考点:关于英语学习的议论文阅读 点评:本文浅显易懂,各个小题都能在文中找到适当依据。只要认真阅读短文,注意前后联系,就能顺利完成阅读。文章所设试题主要考查细节查找,做题关键是找出原文的根据,认真核查小题和原文的异同。 D The train started moving. It was packed with people of all ages. Most of them were working men and women and young college boys and girls. Near the window sat an old man with his son, who looked about thirty years old. As the train moved, the son was filled with joy because he was very excited at the scenery outside. He said in a high voice, “See Dad, the green trees and the scenery are very beautiful!” It made the other people feel very strange. Everyone started talking in a low voice about the old man’s son. Suddenly, it started raining. Raindrops fell on the travelers through the open window. Seeing the rain, the old man’s son said happily, “See Dad, how beautiful the rain is!” Hearing these words, a young lady became angry with the man, as the raindrops were dropping on her new clothes. She couldn’t help shouting at the noisy son and his father. “Can’t you see it is raining? You! Old man! If your son is not feeling well, get him to a mental hospital quickly and please don’t disturb us any more!” The old man’s face turned slightly red and then in a low voice, he replied, “We are on the way back from hospital. He was blind at birth. Only last week he can see again. The rain and the nature are new to him. Please forgive him.” All the other people became quiet. 41.How old was the old man’s son? A.About 7 years old. B.About 20 years old. C.About 50 years old. D.About 30 years old. 42.What did people think of the son’s behavior(行为)? They thought he was _________. A.lovely B.funny C.strange D.clever 43.What was wrong with the son when he was born? A.He had mental illness. B.He couldn’t see. C.He couldn’t hear. D.He couldn’t talk. 44.What do you think of the young lady? A.She was friendly to the man. B.She was rude to the old man. C.She was clever. D.She was too noisy. 45.According to the passage, what does the writer want to tell us? A.We should be friendly to sick people. B.We should learn to enjoy the nature. C.We should respect the elder people. D.We should know the truth before complaining. 【答案】41.D 42.C 43.B 44.B 45.D 【难度】0.4 【知识点】主旨大意、细节理解、记叙文、寓言童话 【解析】41.细节理解题,根据文中语句“Near the window sat an old man with his son, who looked about thirty years old.”理解可知老人的儿子大约三十多岁,故选D。 42.细节理解题,根据文中语句“It made the other people feel very strange.”理解可知车上的乘客对于老人儿子的行为感到很奇怪,故选C。 43.细节理解题,根据文中语句“He was blind at birth.”理解可知老人的儿子在出生的时候就是盲人,也就是看不到东西,故选B。 44.细节理解题,根据文中语句““Can’t you see it is raining? You! Old man! If your son is not feeling well, get him to a mental hospital quickly and please don’t disturb us any more!””理解可知这位女士说话粗鲁,甚至让老人把儿子送到精神病院,极其无礼,故选B。 45.理解归纳题,通读全文语句理解可知我们不要只通过事物的表面看问题,在抱怨之前先弄清楚真相,故选D。 第二部分 非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读 (共10空;每空1. 5分, 满分15分) 阅读下面短文, 请根据短文内容, 在文后表格中填入恰当的单词, 每空一词。 We all want to live comfortably and safely in our community,so we put up this notice here to tell you something we think you should follow. ·The main streets are cleaned twice a week,so please try to keep them tidy and clean and do not leave furniture or rubbish on the streets. ·The main lights are on a timer(定时器)and they stay on for five minutes when you press them. Please tell us if any lights are not working. ·Please keep noise to a minimum(最小值).Loud music and other loud noise can disturb(妨碍)other people and we will get in touch with you if you make too much noise. ·Make sure the outside door is always locked and do not let any strangers get into your house. ·Each flat has one car parking space(停车位).These are numbered and are at the back of the building. If you have more than one car,you will have to park it on the road. If you have any problems or questions,please call us at 080-00969000. A 46 of living in the community We all want to live in a 47 and safe community, so we had better follow these steps. Cleaning We clean the streets 48 a week. Please help keep them clean and tidy. Lights The lights can stay on for five 49 If the lights are 50 , please tell us. Noise Please keep 51 and don't disturb others. Safety Lock the outside door and never let strangers 52 . Parking Each parking space has a 53 .If you have 54 one car you will have to park it on the road. If you have any 55 or questions, please call us. 【答案】 46.notice 47.comfortable 48.twice 49.minutes 50.broken 51.quiet 52.in 53.number 54.over 55.problems 【难度】0.4 【知识点】记叙文、时文/广告/布告 【分析】本篇文章是一个布告,讲述小区的规定,包括卫生、灯光、噪音、安全、停车等。 46.根据We all want to live comfortably and safely in our community, so we put up(张贴) this notice here to tell you something we think you should follow可知,表示的是居住的通知,notice通知,且空前有a,故填notice。 47.根据“We all want to live comfortably and safely in our community”可知,表示住得舒适。空处修饰名词community,用形容词。comfortable舒适的,故填comfortable。 48.根据“The main streets are cleaned twice a week”可知,街道一周扫两次。twice两次。故填twice。 49.根据“they stay on for five minutes”可知,灯亮5分钟。minute分钟,且根据空前five可知,用复数,故填minutes。 50.根据“Please tell us if any lights are not working. ”可知,如果灯不工作了,请告诉我们。not working在此意为“坏了”,与broken同义。故填broken。 51.根据文中“Please keep noise to a minimum. ”可知,要保持“安静”。且根据空前keep可知,空处用形容词。quiet安静的,故填quiet。 52.根据文中“do not let any strangers get into your house”可知,表示锁外面的们,不要让陌生人进入。get into your house进入房间。可改写为let sb in,故填in。 53.根据These are numbered可知,表示“每个车库都编排了号码”,即:每个车库都有“号码”。number号码,且根据空前a可知,用单数,故填number。 54.根据文中“If you have more than one car”可知,如果你不止有一辆车,可改写为“超过”。more than=over超过。故填over。 55.根据If you have any problems or questions,please call us at 080-00969000可知,如果你有任何问题,请打电话给我们。problem问题,根据空后and questions可知,空处用复数,故填problems。 五、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不限一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 I have a good friend, and his name is Jack. He is 56 Australia, It’s Sunday today. He gets up at half 57 five. And then he begins(开始) to do sports at six o’clock. After breakfast, he does his homework from eight o’clock to eleven thirty. In the afternoon, he goes to the zoo with his uncle. They see many 58 like elephants, 59 (monkey) and tigers. He likes pandas very much. And he thinks 60 (them) are very nice. His uncle says, “ 61 come from China. I like them, too. ” They have 62 good time in the zoo In the evening, Jack 63 (watch) Animal World on TV at half past eight. It’s about two baby (幼小的) pandas. 64 (They) names are Tuantuan and Yuanyuan. They are six 65 ( month) old. He drinks a glass of milk(喝一杯牛奶) and then goes to bed at ten o’clock. 【答案】 56.from 57.past 58.animals 59.monkeys 60.they 61.pandas 62.a 63.watches 64.Their 65.months 【难度】0.4 【知识点】朋友 【分析】这篇短文中作者给我们介绍了他的好朋友—来自澳大利亚的Jack。这天是星期天,Jack上午在家里做作业,下午和他的叔叔去了动物园,他们看到了很多动物,玩得非常开心。 56.句意:他来自澳大利亚。根据文意可知,这篇短文作者给我们介绍的是他的好朋友Jack,根据空后Australia可知,这里表示Jack来自澳大利亚,故应填介词from,意为“从,来自…”。 57.句意:他五点半起床。根据句意可知,这里表示Jack起床的时间,half past five是“五点半”,故这里应填past“过…”。 58.句意:他们看到了很多动物,如大象、猴子和老虎。根据下面举的例子like elephants…and tigers可知,这里说的是他们在动物园里看到的动物,是很多的,故填复数animals。 59.句意:他们看到了很多动物,如大象、猴子和老虎。monkey猴子,是一个名词。根据空前elephants和空后tigers可知,这里也应用名词复数形式,故填monkeys。 60.句意:他认为他们非常好。them他们,是人称代词宾格形式。根据句子结构可知,thinks后跟了宾语从句,该空是从句中的主语,应用主格形式,故填they。 61.句意:他的叔叔说:“熊猫来自中国,我也非常喜欢他们。”根据上句话He likes pandas very much.和这句话come from China可知,Jack的叔叔说的是熊猫,故应填pandas。 62.句意:他们在动物园里玩得非常开心。根据句意可知,这里考查的是固定短语have a good time,“玩得开心”,故这里填a。 63.句意:在晚上,Jack八点半在电视上看《动物世界》。watch观看,是一个动词。根据文意可知,短文介绍的是Jack的有关情况,使用了一般现在时。这句话的主语是Jack,第三人称单数形式,故谓语动词watch用三单形式,填watches。 64.句意:他们的名字叫团团和圆圆。they他们,是人称代词主格形式。根据句意和空后的names可知,这里应填形容词性物主代词their,“他们的”,修饰后面的名词names。 65.句意:他们六个月大了。month月,月份,是一个名词。根据句意和空前的six可知,这里应用名词的复数形式,填months。 【点睛】这篇短文中作者介绍了他的好朋友Jack星期天的活动。短文主题明确,内容贴近教材主题和学生们的日常生活,词汇、短语和句型都是学生们非常熟悉的,比较容易理解。题型是短文填空,要求根据文意在空格处填写适当的单词,或者用所给单词的适当形式填空,考查单词在具体语境中的使用。做题时,应先通读短文,了解大意;然后根据文意和所给单词在句中的作用,填写适当的单词。例如第56小题,根据文意可知,这篇短文作者给我们介绍的是他的好朋友Jack,根据空后Australia可知,这里表示Jack来自澳大利亚,考查了短语be from…,故应填介词from。再如第63小题,watch观看,是一个动词。根据文意可知,短文介绍的是Jack的有关情况,使用了一般现在时。这句话的主语是Jack,第三人称单数形式,故谓语动词watch用三单形式,填watches。 六、书面表达(满分25分) 66.“五一小长假”快到了。假如你是Millie,想要邀请你的朋友Alice来你的新家做客。根据下面提供的信息,用英语写一封邀请信。 地理位置 市中心公寓里,住在十九楼 社区 绿树环绕,……(至少再描写一个细节) 邻居友好,志愿者……(至少举一例) 路线 乘819路公共汽车在人民桥(Renming Bridge)下,往前; 第1个路口右转,然后你就会看见一个超市,我家就在超市的后面。 要 求: 1)词数70左右。短文的开头和结尾已经写好,不计入总词数。 2)短文须包含所有要点,不要逐词翻译,可适当发挥,使短文连贯,通顺。 3)短文不得体现真实的人名,校名等相关信息。 Dear Alice, I am very happy to invite you to my new home. ___________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Welcome to my home. I think you’ll have a good time here. Yours, Millie 【答案】 Dear Alice, I am very happy to invite you to my new home. My home is on the nineteenth floor in a flat in the city centre. In our community, there are green trees everywhere. It's clean and tidy. You can smell the beautiful flowers and hear birds sing in the morning. The neighbors are kind and helpful. The volunteers often help the elderly do some cleaning. We are like a big family. You can take No.819 Bus and get off at Renming Bridge. Walk straight on, and take the first turning on the right. Then you will see a supermarket. My home is behind it. Welcome to my home. I think you’ll have a good time here. Yours. Millie 【难度】0.4 【知识点】问路、交通方式、房屋与住所 【详解】题干解读:该题目属于书信写作,要求根据所给的信息提示,写一封邀请信,邀请你的朋友Alice来你的新家做客,注意要点齐全。写作时要书信件格式写。 2.写作指导:本文应该用第二人称和第三人称来叙述;时态采用一般现在时为主,在写作时应承接短文开头;第二段叙述“你”家的位置和社区情况;第三段告诉Alice到“你”家的路线;第四段结尾(已给出),表示欢迎和祝愿。叙述到“你”家路线时,可以用指路句型,注意时态的转换和主谓一致;所给提示要写全,适当补充,叙述要完整,条理清晰,语言通顺,写完以后要检查,确保语法、单词拼写和标点使用正确。 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$

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江苏省泰州市B卷-2024-2025学年七年级下学期核心素养期中素质调研英语试题
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江苏省泰州市B卷-2024-2025学年七年级下学期核心素养期中素质调研英语试题
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江苏省泰州市B卷-2024-2025学年七年级下学期核心素养期中素质调研英语试题
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