江苏省泰州市A卷-2024-2025学年七年级下学期核心素养期中素质调研英语试题

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2025-03-29
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江苏泰州A卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研试题 姓 名: 条 码粘贴处 准考证号: 缺考标记口 注意事项 速纪标记一 1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚 以上标记由监考 2. 请将准考证条码粘贴在右的条码粘贴处的方框内。 3. 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用0.5mm黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整。 人员用2B铅笔 4. 请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 填涂! 保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 填涂样例”正确■☐错误【-【√[×] 选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂) LAJIB]ICHD] 6.[A]IB][CHD] 11AJ[B][CIID] 16.[A][B][C][D] 2[A][BJ[CHD] 7A][BIICHD] 12A[B][CIDI 17.[AJ[B][C][D] 3.(A][BI[CHD] 8[A][B][CID] 13.[A][B][CID] 18.[A][B][C][D] 4.[AI[BI[CHD] 9.[AIIBIICHDI 14[A][B][CID] 19.[AIB][CI[D] 5A][BI[CHD] 10.[A][B][C HD] 15[AJ[B][CHD] 20.[A][B][C][D] 21.A1[B1IC1[D1 26.A1IB1【C]ID1 3L[A][B][C][D] 36.[A][B][C][D] 22A1[B1IC1[D1 27.[AJ[B][C][D]32[A][B][CI[D] 37[AJ[BI[CI[D] 23.[A][B][C][D] 28[A][B][C][D] 33[AJ[B][C][D] 38.A1IB1[C1[D1 24[A]IB][CI[D] 29.[A]IB][CI[D]34[A][B][C]ID]3.[A]IB][C][D] 25A1[B1[C1[D1 30.[A][B][C][D]35[A][B][CI[D] 40.A1[B1[C1[D1 41A][B][C][D] 42.A1[B1[C1[D1 43.[AJ[B][C][D] 44.A1[B1IC1[D1 45A1[B1[C1[Dj 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 英语第1页(共2页) 请在各趣目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 第二部分非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读阅读下面短文,请根据短文内容,在文后表格中填入恰当的单词,每空一词。 (共10空:每空1.5分,满分15分) 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 五、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不限 一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 56. 57. 58 59 60. 61. 62 63. 64. 65. 六、书面表达(满分25分) The May Day holiday Lingling is my friend.The May Day holiday is coming. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 英语第2页(共2页) ■ 英语第1页(共2页) ■ ■ 江苏泰州卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期新课标(核心素养)期中复习冲击满分系列(仿真模拟) 注意事项: 1.本试卷分第一部分选择题和第二部分非选择题,满分120分;时间100分钟; 2.答题前,考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、考场号、考试号、座位号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡相对应的位置上,并用2B铅笔认真正确填涂考试证号下方的数字; 3.答选择题时必须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑.如需改动,请用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案;答非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔写在答题卡指定的位置上,不在答题区域内的答案一律无效,不得用其他笔答题; 4.考生答题必须答在答题卡上,答在试卷和草稿纸上一律无效. 一、单项选择 (共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分) 从下列每题所给的四个选项中, 选择一个最佳答案。 1.—I will meet you at 16: 00 at the school gate. Don’t be late. —OK. ________. A.You’re welcome B.See you then C.That’s right D.It sounds interesting 2.Please don’t stand near the monkeys. They can be ________ sometimes. A.friendly B.lovely C.dangerous D.quiet 3.Jill says she will be leaving ________. A.never B.once C.soon D.really 4.Mary is sitting ________ Sally and Lucy. She is helping them with English. A.both B.between C.from D.in 5.—__________ book is this? —It’s __________. A.What; me B.Who; my C.Whose; mine D.Where; I 6.—Do you go to school on foot? —No, I ________ to school every day. A.by bus B.take a bus C.walk D.ride a bus 7.—Can you play the guitar? —________. A.No, I can B.Sure, I can’t C.No, you can D.Yes, I can 8.—When you see a bank, you need to ________ the bus and then you can just walk there. —Thanks. A.get off B.get on C.get down D.get up 9.________ a sunny day, we can go for a picnic together. A.In B.At C.On D.During 10.The children have fun ________ in the river every summer. A.to swim B.swimming C.for swimming D.swims 二、完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分, 满分15分) 阅读短文,从每题所给选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 An old farmer lived with his grandson. Each morning, the 11 got up early and read his Bhagavad Gita《薄迦梵歌》. One day the grandson asked, “Grandpa! I try to read the book like you 12 I can’t understand it, and I forget it easily. What’s the 13 of reading it?” The grandfather said, “Take this coal (煤炭) basket down to the 14 and bring me back a basket of water.” The boy did as his grandfather 15 , but all the water ran 16 he got home. The grandfather laughed, “You’ll have to move faster next time.” This time the boy 17 faster, but again the basket was empty. He told his grandfather that is was 18 to carry water in a basket. He wanted to use a bottle instead, but the old man said, “I just want a 19 of water. You’re not trying hard enough.” The boy wanted to show his grandfather that the water would surely run. He again put the 20 into the river and ran hard. But there wasn’t anything in it again. He said 21 , “Look, grandpa, it’s useless!” “Watch the basket.” said the grandfather. For the first time the boy 22 the basket was different. It had changed from a dirty old coal basket into a 23 one, inside and out. “Boy, you might not understand or remember 24 when you read the book, but when you read it, you will be 25 , inside and out. That’s what you got from it.” 11.A.son B.father C.grandfather D.grandmother 12.A.so B.but C.or D.and 13.A.time B.place C.use D.habit 14.A.house B.beach C.lake D.river 15.A.said B.saw C.liked D.did 16.A.as B.after C.until D.before 17.A.ran B.rode C.drove D.flew 18.A.easy B.interesting C.impossible D.unimportant 19.A.bottle B.basket C.box D.bowl 20.A.hand B.bottle C.basket D.coal 21.A.sadly B.hopefully C.excitedly D.happily 22.A.forgot B.realized C.believed D.remembered 23.A.white B.clean C.new D.black 24.A.someone B.something C.anything D.anyone 25.A.different B.relaxed C.curious D.worried 三、 阅读理解(共40分) 阅读下列短文, 根据内容选择最佳答案。(共20小题;每小题2分, 满分40分) A Last week, we had a good time in Hong Kong Disneyland. The following is some information for sightseeing. I think it will be helpful for you if you plan to visit it. Attraction Hong Kong Disneyland, the fifth Disney theme(主题) park in the world, and the second Disney theme park in Asia, opened its door to the public on September 12, 2005. It’s the first Disneyland in China and the cheapest one in the world, too. It includes 7 lands— Adventureland, Grizzly Gulch, Mystic Point, Toy Story Land, Fantasyland, Tomorrowland and Main Street, the USA. Opening hours 10:30 a. m.—7:30 p. m. (Saturdays to 8:30 p. m. ) Fee(费用) Ticket: On weekdays $295 (Aged 12—64) $210 (Aged 3—11) $170(Aged 65 or above) On weekends $350(Aged 12—64) $250(Aged 3—11) $200(Aged 65 or above) Children under 3: free How to book tickets Phone: 8521-830-830 Website: www. Hongkongdisneyland. Com How to get there By car; By bus; By taxi; By MTR; By ferry and so on. 26.When did the writer go to Hong Kong Disneyland? A.Last year. B.Last week. C.Yesterday. D.Last month. 27.How long does the opening hour last on Sundays? A.For 7 hours. B.For 8 hours. C.For 9 hours. D.For 10 hours. 28.Peter will visit Hong Kong Disneyland with his wife, their 2-year-old daughter and 11-year-old son next Saturday. How much will he pay? A.$550. B.$600. C.$950. D.$700. 29.How can people book tickets to Hong Kong Disneyland? A.By visiting the Website. B.By MTR. C.By Ferry. D.By writing a letter. 30.What does the passage mainly tell us? A.A trip to Hong Kong Disneyland. B.How to travel in Hong Kong Disneyland. C.Some information about Hong Kong Disneyland. D.How to find information about Hong Kong Disneyland. B I’m going to have a great weekend. I’ll go across Canada with my parents by car. We’ll drive seven or eight hours a day. In Toronto, we’ll stay in a big hotel. The food is very delicious there. There’s a big swimming pool and a lot of game rooms. I think I’ll play happily there. But there’ll be lots of people in the hotel, so I think we’ll have to sleep in one room. And it’s expensive. Then we are going to stay in a small cabin(小木屋) in the mountains. I really love it. The cabin is clean and quiet. We’ll have two rooms, so I can live in a room alone. But we have to get up early because we want to go swimming. There is a beautiful lake near the cabin. We can also go fishing and cook food outside. 31.Where are they going to stay in Toronto? A.In a small hotel. B.In a big hotel. C.In a big cabin. D.In two rooms. 32.What’s the problem of the hotel? A.There’s no swimming pool in the hotel. B.The food there is not delicious. C.There are lots of game rooms. D.There aren’t enough rooms for them. 33.What can they do in the mountains? A.They can play in the game rooms. B.They can have lots of delicious food. C.They can go swimming, go fishing and cook food. D.They can go swimming in the big swimming pool. 34.Where’s the lake? A.It’s near the swimming pool. B.It’s in the mountains. C.It’s behind the game rooms. D.It’s in the hotel. 35.What is the best title for the passage? A.Delicious food in a hotel B.A beautiful cabin C.A pleasant weekend plan D.A visit to Canada C Every year on the first Sunday of August, people celebrate(庆祝) International Friendship Day. They give each other bracelets(手环). Friends are very important to our lives. They can encourage us to do better at things. For example, it is easier to study for exams with a friend. We can also become better at sports when we practise with a friend. When we are friends to others, we must learn to listen to them and help them with their problems. This teaches us to be patient, and makes us better people. Friends support us when we have difficulties or when we are ill. We do not have to face(面对) things alone when we have a friend. Finally, friends help make life fun. It is good just to have someone to laugh with. Life is more interesting when we have friends. So, make friends and don’t forget to celebrate International Friendship Day with all your good friends! 36.International Friendship Day is on the ________of August. A.second Sunday B.first Sunday C.first Saturday D.second Saturday 37.What do people give each other to celebrate their friendship on that day? A.Flowers. B.Books. C.Bracelets. D.Stamps. 38.It is ________to study for exams with a friend. A.good . B.better C.easy D.easier 39.Whom can we also become better at sports when we practise with according to the passage? A.A student. B.A teacher. C.A friend. D.A worker. 40.We must learn to________them and________them with their problems when we are friends to others. A.listen to, help B.help, listen to C.listen, help D.help, listen D Brownie and Spotty were neighbor dogs. They loved each other and played together so they made a road through the grass between their houses. One evening, Brownie’s family noticed that Brownie hadn’t come home. They went out to look for him but with no success. Brownie didn’t appear the next day, and by the next week, he was still missing. Brownie’s family thought maybe he left home to make some new friends. Spotty went to Brownie’s house alone. He barked loudly. But Brownie’s family was too busy to care about him. Finally, one morning Spotty followed Ted, Brownie’s owner, everywhere he went. He barked, then ran toward a nearby empty lot (空地) and looked back, as if to say, “Follow me!” Ted followed the dog across the empty lot. The little dog took the man to a tree a half mile from the house. There Ted found Brownie alive. One of his legs was caught in a trap (老鼠夹子). Ted wished he had come earlier. Then Ted noticed something amazing. In a circle around Brownie, he saw a lot of dog food. Spotty had been visiting Brownie every day. He stayed with Brownie to protect him and keep him warm and safe. 41.Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Brownie and Spotty? A.They were good friends. B.They loved each other. C.They often visited each other. D.They seldom played together. 42.What is the meaning of the underlined word “missing”? A.思念的 B.消失的 C.错过的 D.难忘的 43.What does the underlined “He” in Paragraph 4 refer to (指的是)? A.Spotty. B.Ted. C.Spotty’s owner. D.Brownie. 44.Why didn’t Brownie come home? A.He couldn’t find his way home. B.He played with Spotty under a tree. C.He was caught in a trap. D.He left home to make some new friends. 45.What is the best title of this passage? A.Never play outside the house. B.Dogs have deep friendship. C.Animals are our best friends. D.Dogs are smarter than you think. 第二部分 非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读 (共10空;每空1. 5分, 满分15分) 阅读下面短文, 请根据短文内容, 在文后表格中填入恰当的单词, 每空 一词。 Would you like the chance (机会) to find out fun ways to make your communities better? Put your ideas into action in April on National and Global Youth Services Day! A Day to Help On this day, kids in New York work to make their communities safer and cleaner, or to help others. Some collect food for people who don’t have money to buy it. Others raise money for local charities (慈善机构). They earn this money by selling old books and clothes and getting customers (顾客) at local shops to make donations. Texas Kids Help Out In Arlington, Texas, more than 800 kids help their communities. Some visit nursing homes. Others plant flowers. In historic Arlington Cemetery, youth baseball teams pick up rubbish. The cemetery is next to the teams’ ball fields. After a busy day, it’s party time in Vandergriff Park! The hard-working kids gather there to celebrate. Helping with Art One group of artists in San Francisco is helping children make their city beautiful. Artists from a group called Kids Serve go to schools around the city. The artists help students plan special wall paintings. The paintings are usually about topics (话题) the children are studying in class. After the artists plan the painting, the children work together to draw the painting in a public area. When they finish it, they will call and invite their neighbours to celebrate and enjoy the painting. Title: 46 do kids help make the communities better? Kids have the chance to do volunteer jobs in 47 on National and Global Youth Services Day. A Day to Help ▷ Some kids collect food for 48 people.▷ They 49 old things to make money for local charities. ▷ They get customers at local shops to make donations. Texas Kids Help Out ▷ 50 800 kids help their communities, like visiting nursing homes and 51 flowers.▷ Youth baseball teams pick up rubbish in historic Arlington Cemetery. ▷ After a busy day, they will have a 52 in Vandergriff Park! Helping with 53 ▷ Artist from Kids Serve help students plan special wall paintings. Their topics are about their 54 .▷ With the help of the artists, the children draw the painting on the wall in a public area. ▷ Their neighbours will come to 55 and enjoy the painting. 五、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不限一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 The panda is one of the most popular (最受欢迎的) animals in the world. Many people like them very much. 56 (panda) favorite food is bamboo. It takes them a lot of time to eat food every day. When they are full (饱的) , they like 57 (sleep). They sleep many hours every day. Some people think pandas are kind of lazy. But most people think pandas are cute and 58 (friend). So it is not surprising (令人吃惊的) that the WWF made the panda as 59 (it) symbol. But the panda is an animal 60 great danger. Because people kill them 61 their fur. There are not many pandas in the world now. Some people cut down too many trees and pandas can’t find food to eat and places to live. We should save pandas! Now 62 (science) are doing a lot of work to help pandas have more babies. People look after panda 63 (good). To save animals is to save 64 (we). Meanwhile (同时) some animals are 65 (danger) to people. Some even carry virus (携带病毒). We must keep away from them. And people shouldn’t eat them, either. 六、书面表达(满分25分) 66.五一劳动节快要到了,我的朋友 Lingling 计划在完成作业后,也适当放松一下,下面是她打算在假期期间要做的事情。 内容要点: 1.在上午打算帮助她的妈妈做家务,因为她的妈妈很忙。 2.下午打算和她的妈妈骑车去观光,因为春天是很美丽的。 3.她打算和她的朋友打网球,对她的健康有好处。 4.在晚上她打算上网,她可以听音乐。 写作要求: 1.条理清楚,行文连贯,书写规范,内容可适当发挥; 2.文中不要出现所在学校的校名和师生姓名; 3.词数 80左右。开头已给出,不计入总词数。 The May Day holiday Lingling is my friend. The May Day holiday is coming.  ___________________________  ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$江苏泰州A卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研试题 姓 名: 条 码 粘 贴 处 意事项 答题前, 考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。 请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处)的方框内。 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用0.5mm黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整。 请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 3. 保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 6. 填涂样例 正确 []错误 [一IV][区] 选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂 1.1A11B1IC11D1 6.IA11B11C1ID1 11.1A11B11CIID1 2.A||B|IClID 7.A|IB1ICllD1 16.IA1IB11C]1D 12.1A11B11C|1D1 17.1A]|B|IC||D 3.1AIIB1IClID1 13.1A1|B11C|ID1 8.IA|I B1IClID1 18.|A1IB11C1|D1 14.1A11B11ClID1 4.1A1IB11Cl1D1 9.1A11B11ClID1 19.1A11B11C11D1 5.1A1IB1IClID] 10.|A1IB11C1l1D1 15.1A11B1|ClID] 20.|A]IB11C11D] 21.1A1[B11C11D1 26.1A11B11C11D1 31.1A]1B]1C11D1 36.1A11B11C11D1 27.1A11B11C11D1 22.|A11B1IC11D 32.IA11B1IC11D] 37.1A11B11C11D1 23.A1|B1|C1|D1 28.|A11B1IC1[D1 33.|A1|B11C1ID1 38.|A1IB|1C1ID 24.1A11B11C1ID1 29.1A11B11C11Dj 34.1A11B11C11D1 39.1A]1B11C1ID 25.1A11B11C11D1 30.1A11B11C11D1 35.1A11B1IC11D1 40.|A11B11C11D 41.[A1IB11C11D1 42.|A||B11C1|Dj 43.1A11B11C11D1 44.1A11B11C11D1 45.1A11B11C11D 英语第1页(共2页) 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,却出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 第二部分非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读阅读下面短文,请根据短文内容,在文后表格中填入恰当的单词,每空一词。 (共10空:每空1.5分,满分15分) 46. 47. 48. 2 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 五、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不 限一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 六、书面表达(满分25分) The May Day holiday Lingling is my friend. The May Day holiday is coming. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色短形边框限定区域的答案无效 ■ 英语第1页(共2页) 江苏泰州卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研试题 注意事项: 1.本试卷分第一部分选择题和第二部分非选择题,满分120分;时间100分钟; 2.答题前,考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、考场号、考试号、座位号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡相对应的位置上,并用2B铅笔认真正确填涂考试证号下方的数字; 3.答选择题时必须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑.如需改动,请用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案;答非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔写在答题卡指定的位置上,不在答题区域内的答案一律无效,不得用其他笔答题; 4.考生答题必须答在答题卡上,答在试卷和草稿纸上一律无效. 一、单项选择 (共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分) 从下列每题所给的四个选项中, 选择一个最佳答案。 1.—I will meet you at 16: 00 at the school gate. Don’t be late. —OK. ________. A.You’re welcome B.See you then C.That’s right D.It sounds interesting 【答案】B 【难度】0.65 【知识点】约会 【详解】句意:——我将于16:00在校门口见你。不要迟到。——好的。到时候见。 考查情境交际。You’re welcome不用客气;See you then到时见;That’s right那是对的;It sounds interesting它听起来很有趣。根据“OK”可知,此处是说到时见。故选B。 2.Please don’t stand near the monkeys. They can be ________ sometimes. A.friendly B.lovely C.dangerous D.quiet 【答案】C 【难度】0.65 【知识点】dangerous、friendly、lovely、quiet、形容词辨析 【详解】句意:请不要站在猴子附近。他们有时会很危险。 考查形容词词义辨析。friendly友爱的;lovely可爱的;dangerous危险的;quiet安静的。根据“Please don’t stand near the monkeys”可知,此处是说有时它们会很危险。故选C。 3.Jill says she will be leaving ________. A.never B.once C.soon D.really 【答案】C 【难度】0.65 【知识点】never、really、soon、副词辨析 【详解】句意:吉尔说她马上就要离开了。 考查副词辨析。never绝不,从不;once曾经;soon很快,马上;really真正地。根据“will  leaving”可知她将要离开了,故选C。 4.Mary is sitting ________ Sally and Lucy. She is helping them with English. A.both B.between C.from D.in 【答案】B 【难度】0.65 【知识点】and、between、介词短语 【详解】句意:玛丽坐在萨莉和露西之间。她正在帮助她们学习英语。 考查固定搭配。由“Mary is sitting…Sally and Lucy”可知,此处指坐在两者之间,between…and…“在两者之间”,固定搭配。故选B。 5.—__________ book is this? —It’s __________. A.What; me B.Who; my C.Whose; mine D.Where; I 【答案】C 【难度】0.65 【知识点】I、me、mine、my、what、where、who、whose、名词性物主代词、特殊疑问句、代词辨析 【详解】句意:——这是谁的书?——是我的。 考查特殊疑问句和代词辨析。what什么;who谁;whose谁的;where哪里;me我,人称代词宾格形式;my我的,形容词性物主代词;mine我的;名词性物主代词;I我,人称代词主格形式。根据“…book is this?”可知第一个空格应填whose,询问谁的书;第二个空格后无名词,应该填mine,指代my book。 故选C。 6.—Do you go to school on foot? —No, I ________ to school every day. A.by bus B.take a bus C.walk D.ride a bus 【答案】B 【难度】0.65 【知识点】walk、take a bus、动词短语、谓语 【详解】句意:——你步行去上学吗?——不,我每天坐公共汽车去上学。 考查动词短语作谓语。by bus和take a bus表示“坐公交车”,by bus是介词短语, 在句中作状语,take a bus是动词短语, 在句中作谓语;walk步行;ride骑, ride a bus是错误的表达形式;根据答语“No, I…to school every day.”可知,我不是步行上学, 是坐公交车,又由句中缺少谓语动词。故选B。 7.—Can you play the guitar? —________. A.No, I can B.Sure, I can’t C.No, you can D.Yes, I can 【答案】D 【难度】0.65 【知识点】一般疑问句 【详解】句意:——你会弹吉他吗?——是的,我会。 考查一般疑问句。根据“Can you play the guitar?”可知,本句的肯定回答可用“Yes, I can.”,否定回答可用“No, I can’t.”。故选D。 8.—When you see a bank, you need to ________ the bus and then you can just walk there. —Thanks. A.get off B.get on C.get down D.get up 【答案】A 【难度】0.65 【知识点】get off、get on、get up、动词短语 【详解】句意:——当你看到一家银行时,你需要下车,然后你就可以步行去那里了。——谢谢。 考查动词短语。get off下车;get on上车;get down下来;get up起床。根据“you need to…the bus and then you can just walk there.”可知是指需要下车然后步行去那里。故选A。 9.________ a sunny day, we can go for a picnic together. A.In B.At C.On D.During 【答案】C 【难度】0.65 【知识点】at、during、in、on、时间介词、介词辨析 【详解】句意:在天气晴朗的日子里,我们可以一起去野餐。 考查时间介词辨析。In后接年、季节、月或者早晨、下午和晚上;At后接具体时刻;On后接具体的某一天或具体某一天的早晨、下午和晚上;During后接一段时间。根据“a sunny day”可知,此处是晴朗的一天,即为具体的某一天,其前需用介词on修饰。故选C。 10.The children have fun ________ in the river every summer. A.to swim B.swimming C.for swimming D.swims 【答案】B 【难度】0.65 【知识点】动词短语、动名词作宾语 【详解】句意:孩子们每年夏天都在河里游得很开心。 考查非谓语动词。have fun doing sth.意为“做某事很开心”。故选B。 二、完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分, 满分15分) 阅读短文,从每题所给选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 An old farmer lived with his grandson. Each morning, the 11 got up early and read his Bhagavad Gita《薄迦梵歌》. One day the grandson asked, “Grandpa! I try to read the book like you 12 I can’t understand it, and I forget it easily. What’s the 13 of reading it?” The grandfather said, “Take this coal (煤炭) basket down to the 14 and bring me back a basket of water.” The boy did as his grandfather 15 , but all the water ran 16 he got home. The grandfather laughed, “You’ll have to move faster next time.” This time the boy 17 faster, but again the basket was empty. He told his grandfather that is was 18 to carry water in a basket. He wanted to use a bottle instead, but the old man said, “I just want a 19 of water. You’re not trying hard enough.” The boy wanted to show his grandfather that the water would surely run. He again put the 20 into the river and ran hard. But there wasn’t anything in it again. He said 21 , “Look, grandpa, it’s useless!” “Watch the basket.” said the grandfather. For the first time the boy 22 the basket was different. It had changed from a dirty old coal basket into a 23 one, inside and out. “Boy, you might not understand or remember 24 when you read the book, but when you read it, you will be 25 , inside and out. That’s what you got from it.” 11.A.son B.father C.grandfather D.grandmother 12.A.so B.but C.or D.and 13.A.time B.place C.use D.habit 14.A.house B.beach C.lake D.river 15.A.said B.saw C.liked D.did 16.A.as B.after C.until D.before 17.A.ran B.rode C.drove D.flew 18.A.easy B.interesting C.impossible D.unimportant 19.A.bottle B.basket C.box D.bowl 20.A.hand B.bottle C.basket D.coal 21.A.sadly B.hopefully C.excitedly D.happily 22.A.forgot B.realized C.believed D.remembered 23.A.white B.clean C.new D.black 24.A.someone B.something C.anything D.anyone 25.A.different B.relaxed C.curious D.worried 【答案】 11.C 12.B 13.C 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.C 21.A 22.B 23.B 24.C 25.A 【难度】0.65 【知识点】哲理感悟、家人和亲人、阅读 【导语】本文主要讲述一个男孩告诉祖父他不懂读书的用处,于是祖父让他用篮子从河里打水,通过这个经历告诉他读书的收获是对人整体的熏陶。 11.句意:每天早上,祖父都早起读他的《薄迦梵歌》。 son儿子;father父亲;grandfather祖父;grandmother祖母。根据下文“Grandpa! I try to read the book like you ...”可知此处指的是祖父读《薄迦梵歌》。故选C。 12.句意:爷爷!我试着像你一样读这本书,但我看不懂,而且很容易忘记。 so所以;but但是;or或者;and和。根据“I try to read the book like you”与“I can’t understand it”是转折关系,应用but连接。故选B。 13.句意:读它有什么用? time时间;place地点;use用途;habit习惯。根据“I try to read the book like you, …I can’t understand it”可知,孙子想像祖父一样去看一些书,但是遇到不理解的很容易忘记,所以询问祖父读这个有什么用,故选C。 14.句意:把这个煤篮子拿到河边去,再给我带一篮子水回来。 house房子;beach海滩;lake湖;river河。根据下文“He again put the…into the river”可知,祖父让孙子把煤篮子带到河边装水带回来,故选D。 15.句意:男孩照他爷爷说的做了,但他回到家后,水就流了出来。 said说;saw看见;liked喜欢;did做。根据“The grandfather said…”可知,孙子按照祖父说的去做,故选A。 16.句意:男孩照他爷爷说的做了,但他回到家后,水就流了出来。 as因为;after在……之后;until直到;before在……之前。根据“The grandfather laughed, ‘You’ll have to move faster next time.’ ”可推知,当孙子到家后,水就跑没了。故选B。 17.句意:这次男孩跑得更快了,但篮子还是空了。 ran跑;rode骑;drove驾驶;flew飞。根据“You’ll have to move faster next time”可知,按照祖父说的,这一次他跑得快一些,故选A。 18.句意:他告诉他的祖父用篮子提水是不可能的。 easy容易的;interesting有趣的;impossible不可能的;unimportant不重要的。根据“but all the water ran ... he got home”及“but again the basket was empty”可知,一次又一次地尝试,孙子认为用篮子装水是不可能的事,故选C。 19.句意:我只想要一篮水。 bottle瓶子;basket篮子;box盒子;bowl碗。根据上文“bring me back a basket of water.”可知,祖父想要一篮子水。故选B。 20.句意:他再一次把篮子放进河里,并努力地跑。 hand手;bottle瓶子;basket篮子;coal煤。根据上下文可知,是将篮子放进河里,故选C。 21.句意:他难过地说,“看,祖父,那是无用的!” sadly难过地;hopefully有希望地;;excitedly兴奋地;happily开心地。根据“But there wasn’t anything in it again”可知,无论孙子如何努力,篮子里都无法装水,所以他感到很难过,故选A。 22.句意:男孩第一次意识到了篮子的不同。 forgot忘记;realized意识到;believed相信;remembered记得。根据“It had changed from a dirty old coal basket into a ... one, inside and out.”可知,孙子意识到了篮子的不同,故选B。 23.句意:它从一个肮脏的煤篮子变成了一个干净的,里里外外都是。 white白色的;clean干净的;new新的;black黑色的。根据“It had changed from a dirty coal basket into ...”可知,经过多次的把篮子放进河里,篮子从最初的很脏已经变得很干净,故选B。 24.句意:孩子,当你读这本书的时候,你可能什么都不懂或不记得。 someone某人;something某件事;anything任何事物;anyone任何人。根据“when you read the book”可知,年龄太小,读书时可能不懂或不记得书里的东西,否定句用anything。故选C。 25.句意:但是当你读它的时候,你会变得不同,从内到外。 different不同的;relaxed放松的;curious好奇的;worried担心的。根据前文“竹篮打水”的经历,可知此处表示读完这本书后,会变得不同。故选A。 三、 阅读理解(共40分) 阅读下列短文, 根据内容选择最佳答案。(共20小题;每小题2分, 满分40分) A Last week, we had a good time in Hong Kong Disneyland. The following is some information for sightseeing. I think it will be helpful for you if you plan to visit it. Attraction Hong Kong Disneyland, the fifth Disney theme(主题) park in the world, and the second Disney theme park in Asia, opened its door to the public on September 12, 2005. It’s the first Disneyland in China and the cheapest one in the world, too. It includes 7 lands— Adventureland, Grizzly Gulch, Mystic Point, Toy Story Land, Fantasyland, Tomorrowland and Main Street, the USA. Opening hours 10:30 a. m.—7:30 p. m. (Saturdays to 8:30 p. m. ) Fee(费用) Ticket: On weekdays $295 (Aged 12—64) $210 (Aged 3—11) $170(Aged 65 or above) On weekends $350(Aged 12—64) $250(Aged 3—11) $200(Aged 65 or above) Children under 3: free How to book tickets Phone: 8521-830-830 Website: www. Hongkongdisneyland. Com How to get there By car; By bus; By taxi; By MTR; By ferry and so on. 26.When did the writer go to Hong Kong Disneyland? A.Last year. B.Last week. C.Yesterday. D.Last month. 27.How long does the opening hour last on Sundays? A.For 7 hours. B.For 8 hours. C.For 9 hours. D.For 10 hours. 28.Peter will visit Hong Kong Disneyland with his wife, their 2-year-old daughter and 11-year-old son next Saturday. How much will he pay? A.$550. B.$600. C.$950. D.$700. 29.How can people book tickets to Hong Kong Disneyland? A.By visiting the Website. B.By MTR. C.By Ferry. D.By writing a letter. 30.What does the passage mainly tell us? A.A trip to Hong Kong Disneyland. B.How to travel in Hong Kong Disneyland. C.Some information about Hong Kong Disneyland. D.How to find information about Hong Kong Disneyland. 【答案】26.B 27.C 28.C 29.A 30.C 【难度】0.65 【知识点】旅行、应用文、景点/建筑 【导语】本文是一篇应用文。本文主要介绍了香港迪士尼的一些信息。 26.细节理解题。根据“Last week, we had a good time in Hong Kong Disneyland.”可知,作者上周去了香港迪士尼。故选B。 27.细节理解题。根据“10:30 a. m.—7:30 p. m. (Saturdays to 8:30 p. m. )”可知,周日的开放时间为9个小时。故选C。 28.细节理解题。根据“On weekends $350(Aged 12—64)$250(Aged 3—11)$200(Aged 65 or above)Children under 3: free”可知,皮特夫妻要700美元,11岁的儿子要250美元,女儿门票免费,故门票费为950美元。故选C。 29.细节理解题。根据“Phone: 8521-830-830 Website: www. Hongkongdisneyland. Com”可知,订票可以电话或者网络订票。故选A。 30.主旨大意题。根据“The following is some information for sightseeing.”可知,本文是关于迪士尼的一些信息。故选C。 B I’m going to have a great weekend. I’ll go across Canada with my parents by car. We’ll drive seven or eight hours a day. In Toronto, we’ll stay in a big hotel. The food is very delicious there. There’s a big swimming pool and a lot of game rooms. I think I’ll play happily there. But there’ll be lots of people in the hotel, so I think we’ll have to sleep in one room. And it’s expensive. Then we are going to stay in a small cabin(小木屋) in the mountains. I really love it. The cabin is clean and quiet. We’ll have two rooms, so I can live in a room alone. But we have to get up early because we want to go swimming. There is a beautiful lake near the cabin. We can also go fishing and cook food outside. 31.Where are they going to stay in Toronto? A.In a small hotel. B.In a big hotel. C.In a big cabin. D.In two rooms. 32.What’s the problem of the hotel? A.There’s no swimming pool in the hotel. B.The food there is not delicious. C.There are lots of game rooms. D.There aren’t enough rooms for them. 33.What can they do in the mountains? A.They can play in the game rooms. B.They can have lots of delicious food. C.They can go swimming, go fishing and cook food. D.They can go swimming in the big swimming pool. 34.Where’s the lake? A.It’s near the swimming pool. B.It’s in the mountains. C.It’s behind the game rooms. D.It’s in the hotel. 35.What is the best title for the passage? A.Delicious food in a hotel B.A beautiful cabin C.A pleasant weekend plan D.A visit to Canada 【答案】31.B 32.D 33.C 34.B 35.C 【难度】0.65 【知识点】周末活动、计划、记叙文 【导语】本文讲述了作者计划和父母一起去加拿大度过一个愉快的周末的计划。 31.细节理解题。根据“In Toronto, we’ll stay in a big hotel”可知,他们计划待在一个大的旅馆里。故选B。 32.细节理解题。根据“ But there’ll be lots of people in the hotel, so I think we’ll have to sleep in one room. And it’s expensive.”可知,旅馆人太多了,他们需要住在一个房间里,说明没有足够的房间给他们,故选D。 33.细节理解题。根据“But we have to get up early because we want to go swimming. There is a beautiful lake near the cabin. We can also go fishing and cook food outside.”可知,在山上可以游泳,钓鱼和在室外做饭。故选C。 34.细节理解题。根据“Then we are going to stay in a small cabin(小木屋)in the mountains”和“There is a beautiful lake near the cabin.”可知,湖在小木屋的附近,小木屋在山里,说明湖也在山里,故选B。 35.最佳标题题。本文讲述了作者计划和父母一起去加拿大度过一个愉快的周末的计划。故选C。 C Every year on the first Sunday of August, people celebrate(庆祝) International Friendship Day. They give each other bracelets(手环). Friends are very important to our lives. They can encourage us to do better at things. For example, it is easier to study for exams with a friend. We can also become better at sports when we practise with a friend. When we are friends to others, we must learn to listen to them and help them with their problems. This teaches us to be patient, and makes us better people. Friends support us when we have difficulties or when we are ill. We do not have to face(面对) things alone when we have a friend. Finally, friends help make life fun. It is good just to have someone to laugh with. Life is more interesting when we have friends. So, make friends and don’t forget to celebrate International Friendship Day with all your good friends! 36.International Friendship Day is on the ________of August. A.second Sunday B.first Sunday C.first Saturday D.second Saturday 37.What do people give each other to celebrate their friendship on that day? A.Flowers. B.Books. C.Bracelets. D.Stamps. 38.It is ________to study for exams with a friend. A.good . B.better C.easy D.easier 39.Whom can we also become better at sports when we practise with according to the passage? A.A student. B.A teacher. C.A friend. D.A worker. 40.We must learn to________them and________them with their problems when we are friends to others. A.listen to, help B.help, listen to C.listen, help D.help, listen 【答案】36.B 37.C 38.C 39.C 40.A 【难度】0.65 【知识点】方法/策略、朋友、议论文、友谊 【导语】本文主要讲述了朋友对我们的重要性,呼吁我们和好朋友一起庆祝国际友谊日。 36.细节理解题。根据“Every year on the first Sunday of August, people celebrate(庆祝) International Friendship Day. ”可知,人们在八月的第一个周日庆祝国际友谊日。故选B。 37.细节理解题。根据“They give each other bracelets(手环).”可知他们互相赠送手环以庆祝友谊。故选C。 38.细节理解题。根据“For example, it is easier to study for exams with a friend. ”可知和朋友一起备考更容易。故选C。 39.细节理解题。根据“We can also become better at sports when we practise with a friend.”可知当我们和朋友一起锻炼时,我们也会变得更擅长体育。故选C。 40.细节理解题。根据“When we are friends to others, we must learn to listen to them and help them with their problems.”可知当我们是别人的朋友时,我们必须学会倾听他们的意见。故选A。 D Brownie and Spotty were neighbor dogs. They loved each other and played together so they made a road through the grass between their houses. One evening, Brownie’s family noticed that Brownie hadn’t come home. They went out to look for him but with no success. Brownie didn’t appear the next day, and by the next week, he was still missing. Brownie’s family thought maybe he left home to make some new friends. Spotty went to Brownie’s house alone. He barked loudly. But Brownie’s family was too busy to care about him. Finally, one morning Spotty followed Ted, Brownie’s owner, everywhere he went. He barked, then ran toward a nearby empty lot (空地) and looked back, as if to say, “Follow me!” Ted followed the dog across the empty lot. The little dog took the man to a tree a half mile from the house. There Ted found Brownie alive. One of his legs was caught in a trap (老鼠夹子). Ted wished he had come earlier. Then Ted noticed something amazing. In a circle around Brownie, he saw a lot of dog food. Spotty had been visiting Brownie every day. He stayed with Brownie to protect him and keep him warm and safe. 41.Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Brownie and Spotty? A.They were good friends. B.They loved each other. C.They often visited each other. D.They seldom played together. 42.What is the meaning of the underlined word “missing”? A.思念的 B.消失的 C.错过的 D.难忘的 43.What does the underlined “He” in Paragraph 4 refer to (指的是)? A.Spotty. B.Ted. C.Spotty’s owner. D.Brownie. 44.Why didn’t Brownie come home? A.He couldn’t find his way home. B.He played with Spotty under a tree. C.He was caught in a trap. D.He left home to make some new friends. 45.What is the best title of this passage? A.Never play outside the house. B.Dogs have deep friendship. C.Animals are our best friends. D.Dogs are smarter than you think. 【答案】41.D 42.B 43.A 44.C 45.B 【难度】0.65 【知识点】常见动物、记叙文、友谊 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,主要讲述邻居家的两只狗是好朋友,其中一只狗遇到危险,另一只照顾他,并设法营救的故事。 41.细节理解题。根据第一段“Brownie and Spotty were neighbor dogs. They loved each other and played together so they made a road through the grass between their houses.”可知,Brownie 和Spotty是邻居家的狗,它们彼此喜爱,一起玩耍,所以它们在房子之间的草地上开辟了一条路。故选D。 42.词义猜测题。根据第二段“Brownie’s family thought maybe he left home to make some new friends.”可知,Brownie的家人认为他可能离开家,交新的朋友。Brownie失踪后第二周仍然下落不明,故推断missing的意思是“消失的”。故选B。 43.细节理解题。根据第四段“Finally, one morning Spotty followed Ted, Brownie’s owner, everywhere he went.”可知,一天早上Spotty跟着Brownie的主人Ted,无论他走到哪里。可知是Spotty在Ted身后叫,He指的是Spotty。故选A。 44.推理判断题。根据第四段“There Ted found Brownie alive. One of his legs was caught in a trap.”可知,在那里Ted发现Brownie还活着,他的一条腿被老鼠夹子夹住了。由此推断Brownie没有回家是因为他被老鼠夹子夹住了。故选C。 45.最佳标题题。文章主要讲述了一只名叫Brownie的狗被老鼠夹子夹住,邻居家的狗Spotty照顾他,并带他的主人来救他的故事。由此告诉我们,狗与狗之间也有深厚的友谊。故选B。 第二部分 非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读 (共10空;每空1. 5分, 满分15分) 阅读下面短文, 请根据短文内容, 在文后表格中填入恰当的单词, 每空 一词。 Would you like the chance (机会) to find out fun ways to make your communities better? Put your ideas into action in April on National and Global Youth Services Day! A Day to Help On this day, kids in New York work to make their communities safer and cleaner, or to help others. Some collect food for people who don’t have money to buy it. Others raise money for local charities (慈善机构). They earn this money by selling old books and clothes and getting customers (顾客) at local shops to make donations. Texas Kids Help Out In Arlington, Texas, more than 800 kids help their communities. Some visit nursing homes. Others plant flowers. In historic Arlington Cemetery, youth baseball teams pick up rubbish. The cemetery is next to the teams’ ball fields. After a busy day, it’s party time in Vandergriff Park! The hard-working kids gather there to celebrate. Helping with Art One group of artists in San Francisco is helping children make their city beautiful. Artists from a group called Kids Serve go to schools around the city. The artists help students plan special wall paintings. The paintings are usually about topics (话题) the children are studying in class. After the artists plan the painting, the children work together to draw the painting in a public area. When they finish it, they will call and invite their neighbours to celebrate and enjoy the painting. Title: 46 do kids help make the communities better? Kids have the chance to do volunteer jobs in 47 on National and Global Youth Services Day. A Day to Help ▷ Some kids collect food for 48 people.▷ They 49 old things to make money for local charities. ▷ They get customers at local shops to make donations. Texas Kids Help Out ▷ 50 800 kids help their communities, like visiting nursing homes and 51 flowers.▷ Youth baseball teams pick up rubbish in historic Arlington Cemetery. ▷ After a busy day, they will have a 52 in Vandergriff Park! Helping with 53 ▷ Artist from Kids Serve help students plan special wall paintings. Their topics are about their 54 .▷ With the help of the artists, the children draw the painting on the wall in a public area. ▷ Their neighbours will come to 55 and enjoy the painting. 【答案】 46.How 47.April 48.poor 49.sell 50.Over 51.planting 52.party 53.Art 54.study/lessons 55.celebrate 【难度】0.65 【知识点】公共服务、记叙文 【分析】本文介绍了一个让你的社区变得更好的机会。四月的国家和全球青年服务日就是让你的想法付出实践的好机会。孩子们帮助社区变得更加安全和干净,也可以为当地慈善机构募捐,棒球队可以帮助捡拾垃圾,辛苦工作一天的孩子们完成工作后可以聚到一起庆祝一下。一些艺术家帮助孩子们计划特殊的墙画,大家在一个公共区域一起画画,结束后可以让邻居一起来庆祝和欣赏。 46.根据文章第一段“Would you like the chance (机会) to find out fun ways to make your communities better? Put your ideas into action in April on National and Global Youth Services Day!”可知,有一个让你把你的社区变得更好的机会,所以文章讲的内容应该是如何让社区变得更好。如何,怎么样how,题目的第一个字母应大写。故答案为How。 47.根据文章第一段第二句“Put your ideas into action in April on National and Global Youth Services Day!”可知,在四月份的国家和全球青年服务日活动中有机会做志愿者。月份是专有名词,首字母大写。故答案为April。 48.根据A Day to Help一部分“Some collect food for people who don’t have money to buy it.”可知,一些人收集食物给那些没钱买东西的人。没钱买东西的人就是穷人,贫穷的人。故答案为poor。 49.根据A Day to Help一部分“They earn this money by selling old books and clothes and getting customers (顾客) at local shops to make donations.”可知,他们通过卖旧书和衣服以及让顾客在当地商店捐东西等方式赚钱。所以,他们通过卖旧的东西方式赚钱给当地慈善机构。他们是复数,直接填写动词原形即可。故答案为sell。 50.根据Texas Kids Help Out一部分“In Arlington, Texas, more than 800 kids help their communities.”可知,在德克萨斯阿灵顿,超过800个儿童帮助他们的社区。more than多于,一个空,over,句首字母大写。故答案为Over。 51.根据Texas Kids Help Out一部分“Others plant flowers.”可知,其他人种花。所填写词和visiting并列,所以plant要变成ing形式。故答案为planting。 52.根据Texas Kids Help Out一部分“After a busy day, it’s party time in Vandergriff Park! The hard-working kids gather there to celebrate.”可知,忙碌了一天后,孩子们可以聚在一起参加聚会。故答案为party。 53.根据Helping with Art一部分可知,接下来就是帮助艺术方面的一些活动,专有名词,首字母大写。故答案为Art。 54.根据Helping with Art一部分“The paintings are usually about topics (话题) the children are studying in class.”可知,绘画的话题是孩子们在课堂上学的东西。所以,话题是关于孩子们的学习的,学习study不可数,不用加复数,lesson是可数,单数可数名词不能单独使用。故答案为study/lessons。 55.根据Helping with Art一部分“When they finish it, they will call and invite their neighbours to celebrate and enjoy the painting.”可知,当他们完成后,他们会叫来并邀请他们的邻居来庆祝和欣赏。故答案为celebrate。 五、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不限一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 The panda is one of the most popular (最受欢迎的) animals in the world. Many people like them very much. 56 (panda) favorite food is bamboo. It takes them a lot of time to eat food every day. When they are full (饱的) , they like 57 (sleep). They sleep many hours every day. Some people think pandas are kind of lazy. But most people think pandas are cute and 58 (friend). So it is not surprising (令人吃惊的) that the WWF made the panda as 59 (it) symbol. But the panda is an animal 60 great danger. Because people kill them 61 their fur. There are not many pandas in the world now. Some people cut down too many trees and pandas can’t find food to eat and places to live. We should save pandas! Now 62 (science) are doing a lot of work to help pandas have more babies. People look after panda 63 (good). To save animals is to save 64 (we). Meanwhile (同时) some animals are 65 (danger) to people. Some even carry virus (携带病毒). We must keep away from them. And people shouldn’t eat them, either. 【答案】 56.Pandas’ 57.sleeping/to sleep 58.friendly 59.its 60.in 61.for 62.scientists 63.well 64.ourselves 65.dangerous 【难度】0.65 【知识点】科普知识、濒危生物 【导语】本文主要介绍了熊猫,以及它们处于危险的境地,呼吁人们要保护它们。同时一些动物身上携带着病毒,所以我们要远离它们。 56.句意:熊猫最喜欢的食物是竹子。此空修饰名词food,应填名词所有格,结合后一句中的them可知,此空应填复数名词所有格,故填Pandas’。 57.句意:当它们饱了,它们喜欢睡觉。like doing/to do sth“喜欢做某事”,动名词或动词不定式作宾语,故填sleeping/to sleep。 58.句意:但是大多数人认为熊猫既可爱又友好。此空与cute是并列关系,应填形容词friendly“友好的”作表语,故填friendly。 59.句意:所以世界自然基金会把熊猫作为它的象征也就不足为奇了。此空修饰名词symbol,应填形容词性物主代词its,故填its。 60.句意:但是熊猫是一种处于巨大危险之中的动物。in danger“处于危险中”,固定搭配,故填in。 61.句意:因为人们为了它们的皮毛而杀它们。根据“kill them …their fur”可知,因为皮毛而杀它们,for“为了”,故填for。 62.句意:现在科学家正在做很多工作来帮助熊猫生更多的孩子。根据“doing a lot of work to help pandas have more babies”可知,科学家帮助熊猫生更多的孩子,scientist“科学家”,根据are可知,此空应填复数名词,故填scientists。 63.句意:人们很好地照顾熊猫。此空修饰动词look after,应填副词well,故填well。 64.句意:拯救动物就是拯救我们自己。根据“To save animals is to save”可知,就是拯救我们自己,ourselves“我们自己”,故填ourselves。 65.句意:同时一些动物对人类是有危险的。be dangerous to“对……有危险”,形容词作表语,故填dangerous。 六、书面表达(满分25分) 66.五一劳动节快要到了,我的朋友 Lingling 计划在完成作业后,也适当放松一下,下面是她打算在假期期间要做的事情。 内容要点: 1.在上午打算帮助她的妈妈做家务,因为她的妈妈很忙。 2.下午打算和她的妈妈骑车去观光,因为春天是很美丽的。 3.她打算和她的朋友打网球,对她的健康有好处。 4.在晚上她打算上网,她可以听音乐。 写作要求: 1.条理清楚,行文连贯,书写规范,内容可适当发挥; 2.文中不要出现所在学校的校名和师生姓名; 3.词数 80左右。开头已给出,不计入总词数。 The May Day holiday Lingling is my friend. The May Day holiday is coming.  ___________________________  ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________【答案】 The May Day holiday Lingling is my friend. The May Day holiday is coming. She makes a plan for her holiday. She is going to finish her homework first, and then help her mother with the housework in the morning. Because her mother is very busy on weekdays. In the afternoon, she is going sightseeing by bike, because the spring is very beautiful. She is going to play tennis with her friends. It’s good for her health. She will talk with her pen friend online and listen to some music in the evening. It’s going to be a great holiday-busy but happy. 【难度】0.65 【知识点】计划、假日活动 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材:本文是一篇材料作文; ②时态:时态为“一般将来时”和“一般现在时”; ③提示:写作要点已给出,考生应注意不要遗漏“信息提示”中的介绍要点,适当添加细节,并突出写作重点。 [写作步骤] 第一步,表明写作意图,介绍五一假期即将来临; 第二步,具体阐述作者的朋友五一假期要做的事情; 第三步,书写结语,表达五一假期将会是个忙碌并快乐的假期。 [亮点词汇] ①be going to do将要做某事 ②be good for对……有好处 ③talk with sb与某人交谈 [高分句型] In the afternoon, she is going sightseeing by bike, because the spring is very beautiful. (because引导的原因状语从句) 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$ ( ………………○……………… 外 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ) ( ………………○……………… 内 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ) ( 此卷只装订 不密封 ) ( ………………○……………… 内 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ………………○……………… 外 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… … 学校: ______________ 姓名: _____________ 班级: _______________ 考号: ______________________ ) 江苏泰州卷 2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研试题 注意事项: 1.本试卷分第一部分选择题和第二部分非选择题,满分120分;时间100分钟; 2.答题前,考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、考场号、考试号、座位号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡相对应的位置上,并用2B铅笔认真正确填涂考试证号下方的数字; 3.答选择题时必须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑.如需改动,请用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案;答非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔写在答题卡指定的位置上,不在答题区域内的答案一律无效,不得用其他笔答题; 4.考生答题必须答在答题卡上,答在试卷和草稿纸上一律无效. 一、单项选择 (共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分) 从下列每题所给的四个选项中, 选择一个最佳答案。 1.—I will meet you at 16: 00 at the school gate. Don’t be late. —OK. ________. A.You’re welcome B.See you then C.That’s right D.It sounds interesting 2.Please don’t stand near the monkeys. They can be ________ sometimes. A.friendly B.lovely C.dangerous D.quiet 3.Jill says she will be leaving ________. A.never B.once C.soon D.really 4.Mary is sitting ________ Sally and Lucy. She is helping them with English. A.both B.between C.from D.in 5.—__________ book is this? —It’s __________. A.What; me B.Who; my C.Whose; mine D.Where; I 6.—Do you go to school on foot? —No, I ________ to school every day. A.by bus B.take a bus C.walk D.ride a bus 7.—Can you play the guitar? —________. A.No, I can B.Sure, I can’t C.No, you can D.Yes, I can 8.—When you see a bank, you need to ________ the bus and then you can just walk there. —Thanks. A.get off B.get on C.get down D.get up 9.________ a sunny day, we can go for a picnic together. A.In B.At C.On D.During 10.The children have fun ________ in the river every summer. A.to swim B.swimming C.for swimming D.swims 二、完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分, 满分15分) 阅读短文,从每题所给选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 An old farmer lived with his grandson. Each morning, the 11 got up early and read his Bhagavad Gita《薄迦梵歌》. One day the grandson asked, “Grandpa! I try to read the book like you 12 I can’t understand it, and I forget it easily. What’s the 13 of reading it?” The grandfather said, “Take this coal (煤炭) basket down to the 14 and bring me back a basket of water.” The boy did as his grandfather 15 , but all the water ran 16 he got home. The grandfather laughed, “You’ll have to move faster next time.” This time the boy 17 faster, but again the basket was empty. He told his grandfather that is was 18 to carry water in a basket. He wanted to use a bottle instead, but the old man said, “I just want a 19 of water. You’re not trying hard enough.” The boy wanted to show his grandfather that the water would surely run. He again put the 20 into the river and ran hard. But there wasn’t anything in it again. He said 21 , “Look, grandpa, it’s useless!” “Watch the basket.” said the grandfather. For the first time the boy 22 the basket was different. It had changed from a dirty old coal basket into a 23 one, inside and out. “Boy, you might not understand or remember 24 when you read the book, but when you read it, you will be 25 , inside and out. That’s what you got from it.” 11.A.son B.father C.grandfather D.grandmother 12.A.so B.but C.or D.and 13.A.time B.place C.use D.habit 14.A.house B.beach C.lake D.river 15.A.said B.saw C.liked D.did 16.A.as B.after C.until D.before 17.A.ran B.rode C.drove D.flew 18.A.easy B.interesting C.impossible D.unimportant 19.A.bottle B.basket C.box D.bowl 20.A.hand B.bottle C.basket D.coal 21.A.sadly B.hopefully C.excitedly D.happily 22.A.forgot B.realized C.believed D.remembered 23.A.white B.clean C.new D.black 24.A.someone B.something C.anything D.anyone 25.A.different B.relaxed C.curious D.worried 三、 阅读理解(共40分) 阅读下列短文, 根据内容选择最佳答案。(共20小题;每小题2分, 满分40分) A Last week, we had a good time in Hong Kong Disneyland. The following is some information for sightseeing. I think it will be helpful for you if you plan to visit it. Attraction Hong Kong Disneyland, the fifth Disney theme(主题) park in the world, and the second Disney theme park in Asia, opened its door to the public on September 12, 2005. It’s the first Disneyland in China and the cheapest one in the world, too. It includes 7 lands— Adventure land, Grizzly Gulch, Mystic Point, Toy Story Land, Fantasy land, Tomorrow land and Main Street, the USA. Opening hours 10:30 a. m.—7:30 p. m. (Saturdays to 8:30 p. m. ) Fee(费用) Ticket: On weekdays $295 (Aged 12—64) $210 (Aged 3—11) $170(Aged 65 or above) On weekends $350(Aged 12—64) $250(Aged 3—11) $200(Aged 65 or above) Children under 3: free How to book tickets Phone: 8521-830-830 Website: www. Hongkongdisneyland. Com How to get there By car; By bus; By taxi; By MTR; By ferry and so on. 26.When did the writer go to Hong Kong Disneyland? A.Last year. B.Last week. C.Yesterday. D.Last month. 27.How long does the opening hour last on Sundays? A.For 7 hours. B.For 8 hours. C.For 9 hours. D.For 10 hours. 28.Peter will visit Hong Kong Disneyland with his wife, their 2-year-old daughter and 11-year-old son next Saturday. How much will he pay? A.$550. B.$600. C.$950. D.$700. 29.How can people book tickets to Hong Kong Disneyland? A.By visiting the Website. B.By MTR. C.By Ferry. D.By writing a letter. 30.What does the passage mainly tell us? A.A trip to Hong Kong Disneyland. B.How to travel in Hong Kong Disneyland. C.Some information about Hong Kong Disneyland. D.How to find information about Hong Kong Disneyland. B I’m going to have a great weekend. I’ll go across Canada with my parents by car. We’ll drive seven or eight hours a day. In Toronto, we’ll stay in a big hotel. The food is very delicious there. There’s a big swimming pool and a lot of game rooms. I think I’ll play happily there. But there’ll be lots of people in the hotel, so I think we’ll have to sleep in one room. And it’s expensive. Then we are going to stay in a small cabin(小木屋) in the mountains. I really love it. The cabin is clean and quiet. We’ll have two rooms, so I can live in a room alone. But we have to get up early because we want to go swimming. There is a beautiful lake near the cabin. We can also go fishing and cook food outside. 31.Where are they going to stay in Toronto? A.In a small hotel. B.In a big hotel. C.In a big cabin. D.In two rooms. 32.What’s the problem of the hotel? A.There’s no swimming pool in the hotel. B.The food there is not delicious. C.There are lots of game rooms. D.There aren’t enough rooms for them. 33.What can they do in the mountains? A.They can play in the game rooms. B.They can have lots of delicious food. C.They can go swimming, go fishing and cook food. D.They can go swimming in the big swimming pool. 34.Where’s the lake? A.It’s near the swimming pool. B.It’s in the mountains. C.It’s behind the game rooms. D.It’s in the hotel. 35.What is the best title for the passage? A.Delicious food in a hotel B.A beautiful cabin C.A pleasant weekend plan D.A visit to Canada C Every year on the first Sunday of August, people celebrate(庆祝) International Friendship Day. They give each other bracelets(手环). Friends are very important to our lives. They can encourage us to do better at things. For example, it is easier to study for exams with a friend. We can also become better at sports when we practise with a friend. When we are friends to others, we must learn to listen to them and help them with their problems. This teaches us to be patient, and makes us better people. Friends support us when we have difficulties or when we are ill. We do not have to face(面对) things alone when we have a friend. Finally, friends help make life fun. It is good just to have someone to laugh with. Life is more interesting when we have friends. So, make friends and don’t forget to celebrate International Friendship Day with all your good friends! 36.International Friendship Day is on the ________of August. A.second Sunday B.first Sunday C.first Saturday D.second Saturday 37.What do people give each other to celebrate their friendship on that day? A.Flowers. B.Books. C.Bracelets. D.Stamps. 38.It is ________to study for exams with a friend. A.good . B.better C.easy D.easier 39.Whom can we also become better at sports when we practise with according to the passage? A.A student. B.A teacher. C.A friend. D.A worker. 40.We must learn to________them and________them with their problems when we are friends to others. A.listen to, help B.help, listen to C.listen, help D.help, listen D Brownie and Spotty were neighbor dogs. They loved each other and played together so they made a road through the grass between their houses. One evening, Brownie’s family noticed that Brownie hadn’t come home. They went out to look for him but with no success. Brownie didn’t appear the next day, and by the next week, he was still missing. Brownie’s family thought maybe he left home to make some new friends. Spotty went to Brownie’s house alone. He barked loudly. But Brownie’s family was too busy to care about him. Finally, one morning Spotty followed Ted, Brownie’s owner, everywhere he went. He barked, then ran toward a nearby empty lot (空地) and looked back, as if to say, “Follow me!” Ted followed the dog across the empty lot. The little dog took the man to a tree a half mile from the house. There Ted found Brownie alive. One of his legs was caught in a trap (老鼠夹子). Ted wished he had come earlier. Then Ted noticed something amazing. In a circle around Brownie, he saw a lot of dog food. Spotty had been visiting Brownie every day. He stayed with Brownie to protect him and keep him warm and safe. 41.Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Brownie and Spotty? A.They were good friends. B.They loved each other. C.They often visited each other. D.They seldom played together. 42.What is the meaning of the underlined word “missing”? A.思念的 B.消失的 C.错过的 D.难忘的 43.What does the underlined “He” in Paragraph 4 refer to (指的是)? A.Spotty. B.Ted. C.Spotty’s owner. D.Brownie. 44.Why didn’t Brownie come home? A.He couldn’t find his way home. B.He played with Spotty under a tree. C.He was caught in a trap. D.He left home to make some new friends. 45.What is the best title of this passage? A.Never play outside the house. B.Dogs have deep friendship. C.Animals are our best friends. D.Dogs are smarter than you think. 第二部分 非选择题(55分) 四、任务型阅读 (共10空;每空1. 5分, 满分15分) 阅读下面短文, 请根据短文内容, 在文后表格中填入恰当的单词, 每空 一词。 Would you like the chance (机会) to find out fun ways to make your communities better? Put your ideas into action in April on National and Global Youth Services Day! A Day to Help On this day, kids in New York work to make their communities safer and cleaner, or to help others. Some collect food for people who don’t have money to buy it. Others raise money for local charities (慈善机构). They earn this money by selling old books and clothes and getting customers (顾客) at local shops to make donations. Texas Kids Help Out In Arlington, Texas, more than 800 kids help their communities. Some visit nursing homes. Others plant flowers. In historic Arlington Cemetery, youth baseball teams pick up rubbish. The cemetery is next to the teams’ ball fields. After a busy day, it’s party time in Vandergriff Park! The hard-working kids gather there to celebrate. Helping with Art One group of artists in San Francisco is helping children make their city beautiful. Artists from a group called Kids Serve go to schools around the city. The artists help students plan special wall paintings. The paintings are usually about topics (话题) the children are studying in class. After the artists plan the painting, the children work together to draw the painting in a public area. When they finish it, they will call and invite their neighbours to celebrate and enjoy the painting. Title: 46 do kids help make the communities better? Kids have the chance to do volunteer jobs in 47 on National and Global Youth Services Day. A Day to Help ▷ Some kids collect food for 48 people.▷ They 49 old things to make money for local charities. ▷ They get customers at local shops to make donations. Texas Kids Help Out ▷ 50 800 kids help their communities, like visiting nursing homes and 51 flowers.▷ Youth baseball teams pick up rubbish in historic Arlington Cemetery. ▷ After a busy day, they will have a 52 in Vandergriff Park! Helping with 53 ▷ Artist from Kids Serve help students plan special wall paintings. Their topics are about their 54 .▷ With the help of the artists, the children draw the painting on the wall in a public area. ▷ Their neighbours will come to 55 and enjoy the painting. 五、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。有提示词的空格不限一词,无提示词的空格限填一词。 The panda is one of the most popular (最受欢迎的) animals in the world. Many people like them very much. 56 (panda) favorite food is bamboo. It takes them a lot of time to eat food every day. When they are full (饱的) , they like 57 (sleep). They sleep many hours every day. Some people think pandas are kind of lazy. But most people think pandas are cute and 58 (friend). So it is not surprising (令人吃惊的) that the WWF made the panda as 59 (it) symbol. But the panda is an animal 60 great danger. Because people kill them 61 their fur. There are not many pandas in the world now. Some people cut down too many trees and pandas can’t find food to eat and places to live. We should save pandas! Now 62 (science) are doing a lot of work to help pandas have more babies. People look after panda 63 (good). To save animals is to save 64 (we). Meanwhile (同时) some animals are 65 (danger) to people. Some even carry virus (携带病毒). We must keep away from them. And people shouldn’t eat them, either. 六、书面表达(满分25分) 66.五一劳动节快要到了,我的朋友 Lingling 计划在完成作业后,也适当放松一下,下面是她打算在假期期间要做的事情。 内容要点: 1.在上午打算帮助她的妈妈做家务,因为她的妈妈很忙。 2.下午打算和她的妈妈骑车去观光,因为春天是很美丽的。 3.她打算和她的朋友打网球,对她的健康有好处。 4.在晚上她打算上网,她可以听音乐。 写作要求: 1.条理清楚,行文连贯,书写规范,内容可适当发挥; 2.文中不要出现所在学校的校名和师生姓名; 3.词数 80左右。开头已给出,不计入总词数。 The May Day holiday Lingling is my friend. The May Day holiday is coming.  ___________________________ _____________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$

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江苏省泰州市A卷-2024-2025学年七年级下学期核心素养期中素质调研英语试题
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