浙江省杭州市西湖区杭州市公益中学2024-2025学年七年级下学期3月月考英语试题

七年级英语课堂练习 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节 听句子，选择符合句子内容的图片，句子读一遍。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. 5. A. B. C. 第二节 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 6. Which rule are they talking about? A. Don’t eat in the classroom. B. Don’t run in the hallways. C. Don’t run in the dinning hall. 7. What’s Anne’s favourite animal? A. The cat. B. The dog. C. The panda. 8. Whose badminton racket is that? A. Ella’s. B. Nora’s. C. Emma’s. 9. What does Mary love to do at weekends? A. Read. B. Exercise. C. Sing. 10. How often does Bob play baseball? A. Once a week. B. Twice a month. C. Twice a week. 第三节 听下面2段较长对话，每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面一段对话，回答第11至第12两个小题。 11. What time does Susan usually get to school? A. At 7:00 a.m. B. At 7:30 a.m. C. At 8:00 a.m. 12. What can we get from the conversation? A. Susan doesn’t like her new school. B. Nick and Susan are in different schools. C. There are too many rules in Susan’s new school. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。 13. Who is Am? A. The girl’s sister. B. The boy’s sister. C. The boy’s cousin. 14. Where does Ann’s mother work now? A. In China. B. In America. C. In the UK. 15. How many people will go to the zoo? A. Three. B. Five. C. Four. 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 16. What’s the tiger’s name? A. Judy. B. Ruby C. Anna. 17. What does Jane like eating? A. Leaves and bananas. B. Leaves and apples. C. Apples and bananas. 18. How does the speaker like giraffes? A. Scary. B. Cute. C. Clever. 19. Where is Nick from? A. India. B. Africa. C. China. 20. Which animal does the speaker like best? A. The giraffe. B. The monkey. C. The panda. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中选出最佳选项。 A Science and Technology Museum Opening hours: Wednesday—Sunday, 10:00 a.m.—5:30 p.m. Charge: $10 per adult, half price for children What’s on: Ancient Technology—the ground floor Modern Technology—the first floor Space—the second floor The Silk Road: trade and travel—the second floor Please note: The museum is closed for 3 days during the Spring Festival every year. Contact us: Information desks: 732-38299 E-mail: stm99@163.com To all climbers! Place: Castle Peak Indoor Climbing Center Date: 8:30 a.m., July 15 Dos: Sign in when you come to the center. Climb with a partner. Wear a hard hat at all times. Wear the correct climbing shoes. Don’ts: Don’t eat or drink anywhere except in the cafe. Don’t listen to personal music players while climbing. Don’t light fires. Tips: Use a locker to store your things. Wear comfortable clothing. Wearing jewelry (珠宝) can cause accidents. Talking on a mobile phone while climbing is not safe. 1. If you want to visit the museum on the weekend, which of the following is the best time? A. 9:00 a.m., Saturday. B. 4:30 a.m., Saturday. C. 2:00 p.m., Sunday. D. 8:30 a.m., Sunday. 2. How much should Mr Smith pay if he goes to the museum with his two children? A. $10. B. $15. C. $20. D. $25. 3. What is better to do while you are climbing? A. Talking on a mobile phone. B. Staying alone all the time. C. Listening to personal music players. D. Wearing the correct climbing shoes. B In November 2023, Tilly Williams ran 5,000 meters in only 17 minutes and 22.7 seconds, becoming the fastest 11-year-old girl in the world. Tilly loves running very much. She started running in 2021 when she joined her school’s cross-country team, “Running makes me feel free,” said Tilly. Tilly runs two or three times a week with her dad, Mark Williams. Sometimes she runs with her friends. “It’s good to know that my family and friends are always there with me,” said Tilly. In her free time, Tilly loves reading books. Her favourite book is Matilda. It’s a children’s book by Roald Dahl. Matilda in the book is Tilly’s favourite person. She said, “I like Matilda because she works really hard to follow her dream.” Now, Tilly has a big dream—she wants to run in the 2032 Brisbane Olympics. “I’m very proud of my daughter. She loves running, ________, I think it’s good for her to have many hobbies,” Mark Williams said. 4. How does the writer develop Paragraph one? A. By giving examples. B. By listing numbers. C. By telling reasons. D. By comparing (比较) facts. 5. What can we know from Paragraph two? A. Tilly runs two or three times a month. B. Tilly’s father doesn’t want Tilly to run. C. Tilly feels free in the running team. D. Tilly’s father runs with Tilly every week. 6. What’s Tilly’s dream? A. To run in the Olympics. B. To meet her favourite runner, C. To write a children’s book. D. To read all Roald Dahl’s books. 7. Which of the following can be put in the blank (空白处)? A. and I like to run with her B. but she is too busy to run C. and running is good for her D. but she does many other things too C Family rules help children learn what is and isn’t OK in the family. Following them can help children learn to follow rules in other places, so it’s not good to make rules too late. Good family rules are easy for children to understand. One day, on the way home from school, my mom tells me she is going to make some new rules for me, also for my brothers and sister. Before this, we know she wants us to be good, but we really don’t have any rules. Well, Mom cares about that. On Sunday she starts giving us some new rules. Clean your rooms every other day. Be ready for dinner at 7:00 p.m. That means sitting at the table with clean hands. If Mom is having a meeting in the house, be quiet. That means turning down the music and the TV. Be ready for bed at 9:30 p.m. and get up at 7:30 a.m. to prepare for school. Take out the rubbish on Monday morning before going to school. Clean the bathroom on Friday. Following these rules isn’t too bard and sometimes it’s even fun. But in other times, it can be tough. For example, if your room is really dirty and you can’t finish cleaning it on that day, you have to finish it on the next day, along with something else you have to do. That isn’t easy. Mom makes these rules because she loves us a lot. She wants us to learn how to be on time, be clean and tidy and be polite. Every day, we try to follow her rules. These rules help make our family warm and happy. I feel lucky to grow up in such a family. 8. What should the children do on Friday? A. Have a family meeting. B. Look after their sisters and brothers. C. Take out the rubbish. D. Clean the bathroom. 9. What does the underlined word “tough” mean? A. Difficult. B. Interesting. C. Relaxing. D. Boring. 10. Which of the following is true? A. They get up at half past six every day. B. Rules help them be clean and be on time. C. There are four people in the writer’s family. D. They eat dinner at 6:00 p.m. 11. What can be the best title for the passage? A. Some housework for parents. B. What we have to prepare for school. C. The reason the rules make us happy. D. Some new family rules made for us. D In Kunming, there is a special thing every year. Since 1985, many seagulls (海鸥) have been visiting Kunming, These birds go a long way from the cold Siberia (西伯利亚) to find a warm place to stay in winter. It is hard for these seagulls to come to Kunming. They migrate (迁徙) from far-away cold Siberia to our hometown. They fly over mountains and rivers. They fly about 80 kilometers to the south every day, facing bad weather and many dangers along the way. It is about 6,000 kilometers to get to Kunming from Siberia. Seagulls like to be with their friends. They live in large groups for safety. When one seagull sees danger, it will make loud noise to tell others in the group. This helps them stay away from danger. A few years ago, scientists studied these seagulls. They put small GPS on some birds to learn more about where they go. They found out that the seagulls visited other places like Lake Erhai in Dali or even Myanmar (缅甸) before deciding that Kunming is the best place. The seagulls usually arrive in Kunming in October and stay here until March. So, why do seagulls like Kunming so much? Winter in Kunming is not too cold, with a nice temperature of about 10℃, which is friendly to seagulls. They also find a lot of food in Dianchi Lake. And the people of Kunming often give food to the seagulls in their free time. This makes Kunming not only a good living place for seagulls but also a place where they get love from Kunming people. 12. How long does it take seagulls to fly from Siberia to Kunming according to the text? A. About one month. B. About two and a half months. C. About four months. D. About half a year. 13. How do seagulls tell their friends about danger? A. By flying away quickly. B. By mailing loud noise. C. By joining others. D. By jumping into the water. 14. Which of the following are mentioned (提及) in the passage? ①Seagulls visit Myanmar. ②It’s not difficult for Seagulls to fly to Kunming. ③Seagulls live in groups. ④The people of Kunming give food to the seagulls. A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④ 15. Why is Kunming a good living place for seagulls to spend winters? A. The people of Kunming are really unfriendly. B. There are a lot of mountains and rivers in Kunming. C. People and nature can live in harmony (和谐). D. Seagulls can live with friends in groups in Kunming. 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选择正确的选项（基中一项是多余选项），并回答40题。 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A—E五个选项中选择正确的选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，并回第5小题。 Helen likes sports and she does some sports every day. 1 She finds it both fun and relaxing to play. Volleyball is not hard for Helen. In fact, she’s quite good at it. She thinks the game is exciting and it helps her relax after a long day at school. After school, Helen and her classmates often play volleyball together for an hour. They have a great time running around and trying to score points. 2 It’s a way to bond (增强信任关系) with friends and stay fit. When she gets home in the evening. Helen likes to sit back and watch volleyball games on TV. 3 Helen loves volleyball so much that she joins the school’s volleyball club. She is also an excellent member of the school’s volleyball team. 4 Volleyball is not just a sport for Helen. It’s a big part of her life that brings her joy and keeps her healthy. A. She practises a lot and helps the team win many matches. B. Of all the sports, her favourite is volleyball. C. She learns new skills by watching the volleyball players. D. It’s not just a game for them. E. She has a lot of volleyballs. 16. ________ 17. ________ 18. ________ 19. ________ 20. What’s your favourite sport? How often do you do that sport? (回答不超过20个词) ______________________________ 第三部分 语言知识运用（共四节，满分45分） 第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） Jada Fitch is an artist from the USA. She is ____21____ a bird lover. And she shows her love by building ____22____ for birds. Jada enjoys ____23____ and drawing birds. To get closer to her bird friends, she comes up with a(n) ____24____. She makes little houses out of cardboard (硬纸板) and there is some food inside. Then she ____25____ these houses on her windows. So she gets a better view of the ____26____. It takes the birds some time to ____27____ the little cardboard houses. Jada ____28____ to catch that moment, so she sets her camera phone on some books. Every time a bird pokes (探出) ____29____ head into one of the houses, she takes ____30____ and videos of it. Every little house is beautiful and ____31____ different from each other. But people cannot ____32____ them all day long. And these houses are made of paper, ____33____ they are not waterproof (防水的). Jada only puts them outside ____34____ a few hours each day. Anyway, what could be ____35____ than that? 21. A. also B. never C. even D. always 22. A. restaurants B. hotels C. hospitals D. houses 23. A. listening B. watching C. making D. picking 24. A. window B. idea C. lesson D. story 25. A. sends B. picks C. brings D. puts 26. A. birds B. houses C. sky D. food 27. A. turn off B. cut down C. get into D. look after 28. A. follows B. leaves C. forgets D. wants 29. A. his B. its C. her D. their 30 A. books B. photos C. news D. problems 31. A. looks B. hears C. tastes D. sounds 32. A. pay B. read C. watch D. tell 33. A. but B. if C. when D. so 34. A. since B. with C. in D. for 35 A. longer B. sweeter C. faster D. smaller 第二节：排句成篇（共5小题，每小题1分，渊分5分） 36. 仔细阅读以下句子，请按照对话正确顺序，将A、B、C、D、B五个句子排序，其中首尾句已给出。 A. Great! I like playing tennis, too, but I’m not good at it. Can you help me? B. Sure! When is it OK with you? How about this Saturday? C. Yes. I practise it on Wednesday and Thursday. D. Tennis. It’s my favourite sport. E. Are you on the tennis team of our school? M: Doing sports is a great way to keep fit. What sport do you like best? W: __________ M: __________ W: __________ M: __________ W: __________ M: No problem. See you then! 第三节：词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A. 阅读下面材料，用方框中所给单词或短语的适当形式填空，每个词汇限用一次。 build however become relax seldom PE is ____37____ more and more important. There is a new rule that students need to run 1,500 meters every day. Liu Lei is from Dalian. He is 13 years old. He thinks the new rule is a good idea. Many students are worried about the new rule because they ____38____ run in daily life. Some students think that they may not feel refreshed (神清气爽的) or ____39____ after running. ____40____, Liu Lei thinks running can help them ____41____ a strong body. B. 根据下列句子及所给的首字母或者中文意思，写出各单词的正确形式（每空限填一词）。 42. ________ (企鹅) need a new swimming pool. 43. My mum often ________ (拿，提) all the things when shopping. 44. I don’t like tigers because they are so ________ (吓人的). 45. It is not a good idea to miss meals and eat a lot of ________ (点心). 46. I need to buy a pair of ________ (手套) for the coming winter. 47. Dogs can not only see very well but also have wonderful h________, so they can help blind people a lot. 48. The bedroom is u________. You can see everything on the sofa, bed or even on the floor. 49. I am so busy that I h________ ever have time to watch TV. 50. He walked q________ into the library so as not to make any noise. 51. The students in Class 10 said that the new books on the desk belong to Class 9, while the ones on the chair are t________. 第四节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号内所给单词的正确形式。 Imagine this: You are walking in the desert and your feet are in the deep sand. When you try to walk, you find your feet are so heavy that you even can’t move them. It is very ____52____ (danger) to cross the desert on your own. So how do people move around in the desert? They move around sitting on the ship of the desert—the camel (骆驼). The camel is ____53____ (friend) and helpful. We’d better treat it ____54____ kindness and respect because it helps us a lot. The camel can move differently on the sand. When it ____55____ (walk), it moves both feet on one side of ____56____ (it) body and the other two on the other. It seems it is moving like ____57____ boat. So it gets the name. The camel has special feet which help it walk freely on the sand. Even though it ____58____ (usual) looks thin, it is strong enough to transport (运输) as much as of its weight. What’s more, it can walk for miles without any food ____59____ water. When the sandstorm comes, the camel will close its nose. And its long eyelashes can protect its two ____60____ (eye) from the sand as well as the sun. You see, nature is so amazing. It gives the camel so many things ____61____ (help) it live in the desert. 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分15分） 62. 假如你是李平，英国交换生Eric即将来你的学校学习并寄宿在你家中，为了更好地融入，他想了解一下你们学校的规则，以及你家里的一些规则，请用英语向他介绍你的学校和家中的一些规则，并谈谈你对于每条规则的看法。 要求：（1）文中至少谈及2条校园规则和1条家庭规则，可适当发挥； （2）文中不得出现自己的真实姓名、班级和校名； （3）词数80左右，开头已经写好，不计入总词数。 Dear Eric, I’m glad to hear that you are coming to our school. Let me introduce some of the rules to you. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 七年级英语课堂练习 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节 听句子，选择符合句子内容的图片，句子读一遍。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. 5. A. B. C. 第二节 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 6. Which rule are they talking about? A. Don’t eat in the classroom. B. Don’t run in the hallways. C. Don’t run in the dinning hall. 7. What’s Anne’s favourite animal? A The cat. B. The dog. C. The panda. 8. Whose badminton racket is that? A. Ella’s. B. Nora’s. C. Emma’s. 9. What does Mary love to do at weekends? A. Read. B. Exercise. C. Sing. 10. How often does Bob play baseball? A. Once a week. B. Twice a month. C. Twice a week. 第三节 听下面2段较长对话，每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面一段对话，回答第11至第12两个小题。 11. What time does Susan usually get to school? A. At 7:00 a.m. B. At 7:30 a.m. C. At 8:00 a.m. 12. What can we get from the conversation? A. Susan doesn’t like her new school. B. Nick and Susan are in different schools. C. There are too many rules in Susan’s new school. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。 13. Who is Am? A. The girl’s sister. B. The boy’s sister. C. The boy’s cousin. 14. Where does Ann’s mother work now? A. In China. B. In America. C. In the UK. 15. How many people will go to the zoo? A. Three. B. Five. C. Four. 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 16. What’s the tiger’s name? A. Judy. B. Ruby C. Anna. 17 What does Jane like eating? A. Leaves and bananas. B. Leaves and apples. C. Apples and bananas. 18. How does the speaker like giraffes? A. Scary. B. Cute. C. Clever. 19. Where is Nick from? A. India. B. Africa. C. China. 20. Which animal does the speaker like best? A. The giraffe. B. The monkey. C. The panda. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. C 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. D 6. A 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. A 10. B 11. D D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. B 14. C 15. C 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选择正确的选项（基中一项是多余选项），并回答40题。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. 开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为：My favourite sport is basketball and I play it twice a week. 第三部分 语言知识运用（共四节，满分45分） 第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. D 34. D 35. B 第二节：排句成篇（共5小题，每小题1分，渊分5分） 【36题答案】 【答案】 ①. D ②. E ③. C ④. A ⑤. B 第三节：词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A. 【37~41题答案】 【答案】37. becoming  38. seldom  39. relaxed  40. However  41. to build##build B. 根据下列句子及所给的首字母或者中文意思，写出各单词的正确形式（每空限填一词）。 【42题答案】 【答案】Penguins 【43题答案】 【答案】carries 【44题答案】 【答案】scary 【45题答案】 【答案】snacks 【46题答案】 【答案】gloves 【47题答案】 【答案】(h)earing 【48题答案】 【答案】(u)ntidy 【49题答案】 【答案】(h)ardly 【50题答案】 【答案】(q)uietly 【51题答案】 【答案】(t)heirs 第四节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 【52~61题答案】 【答案】52. dangerous 53. friendly 54. with 55. walks 56. its 57. a 58. usually 59. or 60. eyes 61. to help 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分15分） 【62题答案】 【答案】例文 Dear Eric, I’m glad to hear that you are coming to our school. Let me introduce some of the rules to you. First, at school, we are required to wear the school uniform every day. I think this rule helps create a sense of unity and equality among students. Second, we must be in class on time, and lateness is not tolerated. This rule teaches us the importance of punctuality, which is a valuable life skill. At home, we have a rule that everyone should help with household chores. I believe this rule fosters responsibility and teamwork in the family. I hope these rules will help you adjust to your new environment quickly. Looking forward to your arrival! Best regards, Li Ping 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$