内容正文:
2024~2025学年度第二学期高一3月联考
英语
考生注意:
1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2. 答题前,考生务必用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3. 考生作答时,请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分,满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the man going to do tonight?
A. Book a hotel room. B. Buy two air tickets. C. Go to the post office.
2. When will the movie start?
A. At 4: 10. B. At 4: 20. C. At 4: 30.
3. What kind of music does the woman like best?
A. Pop music. B. Light music. C. Classical music.
4. What does the woman say about the sea?
A. It is rising. B. It is too dirty. C. It is very clean.
5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Boss and secretary. B. Father and daughter. C. Saleswoman and customer.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分,满分22. 5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why does the man come to talk with Shelly?
A. To attend a party tonight. B. To invite her to a concert. C. To practice football with her.
7. When will the speakers meet outside Kent Theater?
A. This Thursday. B. This Saturday. C. Next Tuesday.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What will Lucy do next?
A. Take an umbrella. B. Give a presentation. C. Borrow some books.
9 Where is the man's umbrella?
A. In the library. B. In the classroom. C. In the gym locker.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. Why does Jenny decide to move to London?
A. She wants to work there. B. She can live with her parents. C. She is tired of living in a village.
11 What is the man's attitude to Jenny's plan to find a roommate?
A. Positive. B. Doubtful. C. Uncaring.
12. Who will take care of Jenny's dog?
A. Her parents. B. Her coworker. C. Her roommate.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What is the woman doing?
A. Chairing a meeting. B. Hosting a TV program. C. Having a job interview.
14. What do we know about the woman in college?
A. She's shy. B. She's active. C. She's polite.
15. Why did the woman stay for a few months in the US?
A. For her illness. B. For her father's job. C. For her tennis club.
16. What does the woman value most about the company?
A. Its payroll. B. Its holidays. C. Its future.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Where is the National Park?
A. To the north of the city. B. To the south of the city. C. To the east of the city.
18. Who does the speaker prefer to hike with?
A. Close friends. B. Park workers. C. Local villagers.
19. What are the listeners required to do?
A. Share photos online. B. Wear proper clothes. C. Plant some flowers.
20. Why does the speaker give the talk?
A. To offer tips for the travel. B. To inspire new tour guides. C. To introduce a national park.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分,满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The Top Summer Music Festivals in Europe
IntenCity
Held in Craiova, Romania — a city celebrated as one of Europe’s top cultural destinations — this festival promises a mix of musical genres (类别), bringing together urban music, pop, rap, classical, and rock in an unforgettable lineup. This year’s edition (期) features some of the biggest international and local stars, including J Balvin, Cyril, Foster The People, Speak, Eran Hersh, Bad and Boujee, Guess Who, and many more!
Tomorrowland
Tomorrowland is not just a festival — it’s a once-in-a-lifetime experience! The festival takes place in the town of Boom, Belgium, and has been organized since 2005. It has grown into one of the biggest and most notable music festivals in the world, with its breathtaking stage designs that set it apart from any other festival.
WOMAD Festival
Born in 1982 with a goal to mix different music styles and cultures, WOMAD (World of Music, Arts & Dance) Festival has become one of Europe’s best summer music festivals, attracting music lovers from around the world to Shepton Mallet, UK. Each year, it continues to bring together great musicians, fun workshops, and lively performances in a one-of-a-kind festival experience.
Colours of Ostrava
Set in the heart of an industrial-meets-nature wonderland, Colours of Ostrava is one of Europe’s most unique and diverse music festivals. Taking place on the historic site of former mines and steelworks in Ostrava (Czech Republic) , now a European Cultural Heritage Site, this festival mixes popular music, films, and theater in an unforgettable setting. Whether you’re dancing to top international DJs, or discovering new sounds, the festival is an amazing cultural experience like no other.
1. Which will you attend if you are interested in Eran Hersh’s music?
A. IntenCity. B. Tomorrowland.
C. WOMAD Festival. D. Colours of Ostrava.
2. What is special about Tomorrowland?
A. It’s the oldest live music festival. B. It features fantastic stage designs.
C. It’s held on a cultural heritage site. D. It has the largest number of audience.
3. What can you do while watching shows at Colours of Ostrava?
A. Admire a historic site. B. Explore a science museum.
C. Join in a fun workshop. D. Discover an ancient town.
B
My parents were excellent cooks. Growing up, I enjoyed being in the kitchen with them. It was a place where I could relax myself, be creative and have fun. In September of 2020, I started a side business in São Paulo selling bread, sauces and other foods online. At the same time, my husband and I were revisiting our dream of living abroad. Canada seemed like the perfect choice because of its diverse (多样的) food culture.
I chose to study culinary (烹饪的) management at George Brown College, one of Canada’s top culinary schools. I started my two-year program in September 2022. The program included business courses, such as human resources, and marketing, as well as hands-on cooking classes. I learned skills to be a cook, like working with flavors (味道), and how to prepare large amounts of food. Some days, I was on my feet from 7 am to 5 pm, but my heart was filled with happiness. Being in a kitchen invigorated me. I knew that cooking was what I wanted to do.
During my studies, I had some exciting opportunities. I was a finalist in a school cooking competition, where I made salpicao, a traditional Brazilian turkey salad. In April 2024, I entered a cooking competition hosted by Cookin, an app where chefs sell and deliver meals. I created a Brazilian-inspired menu, with dishes from the countryside to the coast, including pulled pork with guava jam and chips. I was one of the winners and got to run an online store, Flavia’s Taste of Brazil, for a week. Using the college’s kitchen, I completed 25 orders, preparing a total of 41 meals.
Going back to college wasn’t just about learning the hard skills of cooking. It gave me courage and confidence to go for my love.
4. What can we know about the author when she was a child?
A. She loved staying in the kitchen. B. She spent a lot of time in Canada.
C. She dreamed of studying abroad. D. She offered to run a side business.
5. Why did the author go to George Brown College?
A. To work with her husband. B. To follow her love for cooking.
C. To meet her parents’ wishes. D. To find a well-paid job in Brazil.
6. Which best explains the underlined word “invigorated” in paragraph 2?
A. Made fun of someone. B. Gave energy to someone.
C. Kept track of someone. D. Left a message to someone,
7. What does the author’s success in cooking competitions suggest?
A. She is a uniquely gifted teacher. B. She is inspired by other winners.
C. She is highly skilled and creative. D. She is lucky enough to be a finalist.
C
The Artificial Intelligence of Things(AIoT) combines (融合) Artificial Intelligence(AI) with the Internet of Things(IoT), making smart devices more powerful. Unlike traditional IoT systems, which send data to remote servers for processing, AIoT systems analyze (分析) data immediately at the local level, allowing them to make quick decisions and improve efficiency (效率). AIoT has been widely used in areas, such as smart home security and healthcare.
Recently, a team of researchers, led by Professor Gwanggil Jeon from the College of Information Technology at Incheon National University, South Korea, has come up with a new AIoT system called multiple spectrogram fusion network (MSF-Net) for WiFi-based human activity recognition.
Prof. Jeon explains the reason for their research, “As a typical AIoT application, WiFi-based human activity recognition is becoming increasingly popular in smart homes. However, WiFi-based recognition often doesn’t have good performance as expected due to environmental interference. Our goal is to solve this problem. ”
In this view, the researchers developed the new deep learning system MSF-Net, which achieves coarse as well as fine activity recognition via channel state information. Experiments showed that MSF-Net achieved high recognition efficiency, with remarkable scores of 91. 82%, 69. 76%, 85. 91%, and 75. 66% on different datasets. These values highlight the better performance of MSF-Net compared to existing methods, making it a breakthrough in WiFi-based activity recognition.
“The technique has significantly improved efficiency, increasing the possibility of practical applications. This research can be used in various fields, such as smart homes and care for the elderly. For example, it can prevent falls by analyzing the user’s movements and improve the quality of life by building a non-face-to-face health monitoring system,” concludes Prof. Jeon.
Overall, the combination of IoT and AI technology, along with the activity recognition using WiFi, is expected to greatly improve people’s lives through everyday convenience and safety!
8. How are AIoT systems different from traditional IoT ones?
A. They can be in service all day long. B. They send data to servers for processing.
C. They process data locally in real time. D. They have been widely used in healthcare.
9. What is the main purpose of developing the system MSF-Net?
A. To call for environmental protection. B. To draw public interest in smart homes.
C To cut the cost of traditional systems. D. To improve the WiFi-based recognition.
10. What does Professor Jeon think of the new system?
A. It can meet all requirements. B. It will come to the market soon.
C. It has promising applications. D. It is only targeted at senior users.
11. Which is the most suitable title for the text?
A. The Advantage of the Deep Learning B. AIoT Takes the Place of IoT Technology
C. The Role of AI in Healthcare Systems D. AIoT Makes People’s Daily Life Smarter
D
Giraffe populations are dropping at such an alarming rate that US wildlife officials announced a proposal (提议) on Wednesday to help protect several of the species. It intends to list some giraffe species as either endangered or threatened. It’s the first time the long-necked animals, native to Africa, would receive protections under the Endangered Species Act.
Saying a species is “endangered” means it is in the most serious danger under the law. Meanwhile, a species is called “threatened” when it is likely to become endangered within the foreseeable future.
The three subspecies of northern giraffe officials are proposing to be listed as endangered include the West African, Kordofan and Nubian giraffes, whose populations have fallen by about 77% since 1985, from 25, 653 to 5, 919. And in East Africa, the US Fish and Wildlife Service is proposing to list two subspecies — the reticulated and Masai giraffes — as threatened.
The problems facing giraffes are largely the result of the following things. The US has become a significant market for giraffe parts and products, importing nearly 40, 000 for at least a decade-long period, a 2018 report showed. American hunters travel to Africa to kill giraffes and bring back body parts. At the same time, large areas of Africa has been dealing with more droughts, which have put huge pressure on giraffe populations. Crops have failed, animals have died and tens of millions of people are badly in need of food and water.
If finalized, the proposed rule would cut illegal hunting and trade of giraffes by requiring a permit (许可证) to import their body parts into the US and collect money for research and other giraffe protection efforts.
Environmental groups have been pushing for these protections since 2017. The US Fish and Wildlife Service will gather public comments on the proposal, and expects to finalize it within a year.
12. Why did US wildlife officials make the proposal?
A. To encourage African tourism. B. To sell giraffe products to the US.
C. To protect the giraffes in danger. D. To stop hunting animals in Africa.
13. Which giraffe subspecies is proposed to be listed as threatened?
A. Masai. B. Nubian. C. Kordofan. D. West African.
14. What is the fourth paragraph mainly about?
A. Why hunters travel to Africa. B. What a 2018 report showed.
C. Why Africans badly need food. D. What affects giraffes’ survival.
15. What can we infer about the proposal?
A It has been put into practice. B. It is still under discussion.
C. It ignores public comments. D. It aims to give more permits.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分,满分12. 5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Your morning sets the tone (基调) for the entire day. However, you find an effective morning routine (习惯) is out of your reach. We have good news: ___16___. Trying out one or two of the following tips can help you approach your productive mornings.
·Prepare the night before. ___17___. Their reasoning: It leaves mornings free for an earlier start on important work. Whether you pack your lunch, or create the next day's to-do list, even five minutes of evening preparation work can help you start your morning off on the right foot.
· ___18___. Most great people have something in common: They focus on big-picture goals and planning for the day. Of course, plenty of morning routines include journaling and mindfulness. But don’t feel guilty (内疚) if you don’t have the time or quiet space for this purpose. A short walk can help you clear your mind and figure out what you want to achieve for the day.
· Move around in the morning. Many successful people start their mornings by moving, and you can follow their lead. ___19___. According to one study, even some common exercise in the morning, like a quick walk, can make your brain work better for the rest of the day.
· Eat the frog first thing in the morning. The “frog” is the big important task you don’t want to do because it’s hard and hanging over you. Doing your biggest task first can help you start your day with a sense of achievement. Can’t quite manage to do that? Doing some smaller tasks can also help. ___20___.
A. Focus on what matters
B. Understand the benefits of big goals
C. It can push you to have a more productive day, too
D. You don’t need to run a marathon to start your day well
E. For many, an effective morning routine starts in the evening
F. Before you start, the first thing to consider is what you want to avoid
G. It’s a learnable science, even if everything looks messy when you wake up
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
One summer evening, Melissa Barbanell and her 7-year-old son, Calvin, headed to a park across the street from their home. As they stood at the crosswalk, Barbanell ___21___ a pickup truck speeding toward them. Just then, Calvin started to ___22___ the street on his bike.
“I told my son to stop,” Barbanell remembered. But then the ___23___ happened. “The pickup truck ___24___ him, knocking him off the bike and across the road, where I saw him lifeless. And the truck drove away.”
Barbanell, a trained first responder, was in a state of ___25___. That was when a woman in her 30s with light brown hair ___26___. The woman had been jogging in the park. When she saw what happened, she ran ___27___ across the street. She ___28___ to be the perfect person to help.
“She introduced herself as a nurse,” Barbanell said. “She ___29___ my son, and said the words, ‘He’s breathing.’” Barbanell felt unbelievable ___30___ — here was a person who would do everything she could to save her son’s life. The woman held Calvin’s head still until emergency vehicles ___31___.
In the months that followed, Calvin ___32___ from his injuries and left the hospital. After the ___33___, Barbanell lost track of the ___34___ woman. She didn’t know who the woman was and she didn’t get her ___35___. “But the woman that day — who allowed me to go on in the face of not knowing if my child was dead or alive — will be with me forever,” Barbanell said.
21. A. avoided B. noticed C. pushed D. selected
22. A. watch B. mark C. clean D. cross
23. A. unreal B. disabled C. unthinkable D. homeless
24. A. hit B. missed C. drew D. stopped
25. A. calm B. shock C. luck D. order
26. A. appeared B. waited C. jumped D. escaped
27. A. safely B. quietly C. proudly D. hurriedly
28. A. stood out B. worked out C. turned out D. pointed out
29. A. praised B. checked C. admired D. comforted
30. A. anger B. fear C. relief D. honesty
31. A. returned B. moved C. started D. arrived
32. A. benefited B. learned C. recovered D. worsened
33. A. accident B. meeting C. preparation D. guideline
34. A. high-spirited B. open-minded C. strong-willed D. warm-hearted
35. A. name B. food C. account D. phone
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
An outdoor stage, ___36___ (build) with cement (水泥), stands in a village in Huaining, Anhui Province. On it, a man and a woman are performing a classic Huangmei Opera called Tian Xian Pei.
Villagers bring small wooden chairs from their homes to an open space in from of the stage. Children, full of ___37___ (curious), playfully climb on and off the stage. After each show, performers often receive gifts from the villagers, including fruits like peaches ___38___ have been picked from the villagers’ trees. This village scene is different ___39___ the formal atmosphere (气氛) of traditional opera theatres. It shows that Huangmei Opera is part of people’s ___40___ (day) lives.
From April to October, over 200 shows were performed. Liu, head of the Huangmei Opera Troupe, said these shows were aimed at ___41___ (bring) high-quality artistic experiences to local people. But Liu noticed that most audiences were seniors and children, with few young people. So last year, she ___42___ (try) something new. She had seven young women from the troupe perform Huangmei Opera online.
Surprisingly, within three months, their account had attracted nearly 600, 000 followers ___43___ received 3 million “likes”. Liu said their online popularity has led to more offline shows. In the past year, the players have received invitations ___44___ (perform) in other provinces, and there are even ____45____ (opportunity) for international performances.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华,你的留学生朋友Kevin想了解中国古建筑,发邮件向你求教。请给他回封邮件,内容包括:
1. 介绍一处古建筑;
2. 欢迎实地探访。
注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Kevin,
Glad to know that you want to explore ancient Chinese architecture.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Danny was never the strongest or the fastest. In his class, he was just an ordinary (普通的) boy with an extraordinary dream — to win the 400-meter race at the school sports meet. Everyone laughed when they heard about his goal, “You? Win the race? You can't even run faster than a bicycle! ”
But Danny didn't care. He believed in himself. Every day after school, he practiced on the dusty old track behind his house. His trainers were worn, and his legs were often aching, but he never gave up. His grandfather, who once ran in his youth, watched him with pride. “It's not just about speed, Danny,” he would say. “It's about heart.”
The day of the school sports meet arrived. Bright lights shone down on the track, and the stands were packed with cheering audiences. Danny's heart raced as he walked to the starting line. His competitors looked strong and confident. Some even laughed when they saw Danny. “This will be easy,” one of them whispered.
Danny's hands were shaking. But then he saw his grandfather in the crowd, waving and smiling. Taking a deep breath, Danny pushed his fears away, “I've trained for this. I won't back down now.”
“On your marks...Set...Go! ”
The runners took off like arrows. Danny felt the wind rush against his face as he pushed forward with all his strength. He tried to keep up, but the others were fast — too fast! By the time they reached the first curve (弯道), Danny was in last place.
“Don't give up,” he told himself. “It's not over yet. ” He remembered his grandfather's words: “It's about heart.” Focusing on his breathing, Danny didn't try to catch up all at once. Instead, he saved his energy.
As they approached the halfway point, some of the faster runners began to slow down. Danny seized (抓住) his chance. Bit by bit, he passed one runner, then another. The crowd noticed that, “Look! That boy's moving up!”
注意:1. 续写词数应为150个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
There were only 100 meters left, and Danny was in fourth place.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Danny sped up with full strength and crossed the finish line.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024~2025学年度第二学期高一3月联考
英语
考生注意:
1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2. 答题前,考生务必用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3. 考生作答时,请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分,满分7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the man going to do tonight?
A. Book a hotel room. B. Buy two air tickets. C. Go to the post office.
2. When will the movie start?
A. At 4: 10. B. At 4: 20. C. At 4: 30.
3. What kind of music does the woman like best?
A. Pop music. B. Light music. C. Classical music.
4. What does the woman say about the sea?
A. It is rising. B. It is too dirty. C. It is very clean.
5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Boss and secretary. B. Father and daughter. C. Saleswoman and customer.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分,满分22. 5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why does the man come to talk with Shelly?
A. To attend a party tonight. B. To invite her to a concert. C. To practice football with her.
7. When will the speakers meet outside Kent Theater?
A This Thursday. B. This Saturday. C. Next Tuesday.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What will Lucy do next?
A. Take an umbrella. B. Give a presentation. C. Borrow some books.
9. Where is the man's umbrella?
A. In the library. B. In the classroom. C. In the gym locker.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. Why does Jenny decide to move to London?
A. She wants to work there. B. She can live with her parents. C. She is tired of living in a village.
11. What is the man's attitude to Jenny's plan to find a roommate?
A. Positive. B. Doubtful. C. Uncaring.
12. Who will take care of Jenny's dog?
A. Her parents. B. Her coworker. C. Her roommate.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What is the woman doing?
A. Chairing a meeting. B. Hosting a TV program. C. Having a job interview.
14. What do we know about the woman in college?
A. She's shy. B. She's active. C. She's polite.
15. Why did the woman stay for a few months in the US?
A. For her illness. B. For her father's job. C. For her tennis club.
16. What does the woman value most about the company?
A. Its payroll. B. Its holidays. C. Its future.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Where is the National Park?
A. To the north of the city. B. To the south of the city. C. To the east of the city.
18. Who does the speaker prefer to hike with?
A. Close friends. B. Park workers. C. Local villagers.
19. What are the listeners required to do?
A. Share photos online. B. Wear proper clothes. C. Plant some flowers.
20. Why does the speaker give the talk?
A. To offer tips for the travel. B. To inspire new tour guides. C. To introduce a national park.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分,满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. B 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. D 10. C 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. A 14. D 15. B
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分,满分12. 5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. G 17. E 18. A 19. D 20. C
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. A
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. built
37. curiosity
38. which##that
39. from 40. daily
41. bringing
42. tried 43. and
44. to perform
45. opportunities
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Kevin,
Glad to know that you want to explore ancient Chinese architecture. One of the most famous examples is the Great Wall. It’s not just a wall, but a wonder that winds across mountains and valleys, stretching over thousands of miles. Built over centuries, it’s a testament to human wisdom. The Wall’s towering watchtowers and winding stone paths tell countless stories of the past.
If you ever get the chance, I highly recommend visiting it in person. Walking on the ancient bricks, you’ll feel the weight of history beneath your feet. Feel free to reach out if you have more questions!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
There were only 100 meters left, and Danny was in fourth place. Danny surged forward. He passed the third runner, then the second. Now, only one runner remained ahead. The runner looked over his shoulder, his eyes widening in surprise as Danny came up beside him. The finish line was only meters away. Now the two runners were neck and neck. Danny's body screamed in pain, but he refused to slow down. He thought about all the times people had laughed at him, and all the days he had trained alone on that dusty track, “This is my moment!”
Danny sped up with full strength and crossed the finish line. The crowd shouted and cheered. Danny could hardly believe it — he had won! Tears filled his eyes as he looked at the scoreboard. His name was at the top. He was the champion. The referee placed the gold medal around his neck, and Danny felt its weight. It was heavy, but it felt wonderful. He looked into the crowd and saw his grandfather, tears of pride in his eyes. Danny waved, his heart overflowing with joy. He had done it.
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