湖北省天门市2024-2025学年九年级上学期期末考试英语试题

九年级英语试题参考答案及评分标准 一、试题参考答案： （一）听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分，计30分） 1—5 ACDFB 6—10 BACCB 11—17 ACCBBCA 18. rush 19. lower 20. safety （二）完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 21—25 DCABC 26—30 ACBAD 31—35 BCADB （三）阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分） 36—40 BDCCA 41—45 DBDBC 46—50 CBADB 51—55 BDAFE （四）短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 56. used 57. European 58. seems 59. their 60. insects 61. make 62. and 63. worse 64. impossible 65. really （五）读写结合（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 66. warm their hands / keep their hands warm (in winter) 67. Because it could transfer heat better and reduce the risk of breakage or corrosion./ Because it could transfer heat better, while reducing the risk of breakage or corrosion. 68. materials 69. animals or symbols with good meanings 70. I think they are not good for environment, because they need to use coals as fuel. /I think they are beautiful, because they are in different shapes. (开放性试题，言之有理即可) 第二节 书面表达（共1题，满分15分） One possible version: Dear Tom, Thanks for your e-mail. I’m very glad to tell you something about my dream job. I have dreamed of being a teacher since I was a child, because I think teaching is a great job and I enjoy staying with children. Besides, I want to be a teacher because of the power of an example— Miss Li, my English teacher. She often helps me with my English, and influences me a lot. I still remember that once I failed in an important English exam and was upset. She cheered me up and told me some good ways to improve my English. With her help, I made great progress in English. I have made up my mind to be a good teacher like her when I grow up. Although I know it is not easy to be a teacher, I will redouble my efforts to realize my dream. Best wishes! Li Hua 二、试题评分说明： （一）选择题类：所有选择题类试题，错选、漏选或多选均不给分。 （二）非选择题类：非选择题类试题，可能存在多种答案，凡符合题意，且在语义、语法、语用上都正确的其他答案，应予评分。大小写错误扣分。 （三）书面表达: 1. 评分原则： （1）采用整体印象评分法。评分时，先整体阅读短文，根据其内容和语言，初步确定其所属档次，然后在该档次内选择合理的分数。 （2）注重内容表达。评分时要重点看短文所传达的信息是否有效，能否完成题目要求。 （3）如果短文词数少于80或出现真实的人名和地名，降1档次评分。 2. 评分标准： 档 次 评 分 标 准 第一档 (13～15分) 要点齐全，语句通顺，行文流畅，能够清楚表达自己的意思,使用了较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，基本没有语言知识错误。 第二档 (10～12分) 要点齐全，句子比较通顺，行文比较连贯，能够比较清楚表达自己的意思，但有少许语言知识错误。 第三档 (7～9分) 能写出部分要点，意思表达基本清楚，但有些句子不够通顺，行文欠连贯，有较多语言知识错误。 第四档 (4～6分) 只能写出与主题相关的少许句子，基本不能成文，语言知识错误过多，表达不清楚，影响理解。 第五档 (0～3分) 只能写出与主题相关的个别句子、零散词汇。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$天门市2024-2025学年度第一学期期末考试九年级 英 语 试 题 本卷共8页,满分120分,时间共120分钟 注意事项: 1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上;并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上指定的位置。 2.选择题的作答:每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸或答题卡上的非答题区域的均无效。 3.非选择题的作答:用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内,写在试卷、草稿纸或答题卡上的非答题区域的均无效。 4.考试结束后,请将试卷和答题卡一并交回。 一、听力 (共20小题,每题1.5分,计30分) 第一节 听短对话,选择图片。(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容,从所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中,选出与你所听内容相符的图片。听完每段对话后,你将有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听一遍。 A B C D E F 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 第二节 听短对话,选择答案。(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间作答和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。 6. What’s the pronunciation of the word? A. /b l/ B. /bel/ C. /bi n/ 7. What do Canadians usually do when they meet for the first time? A. They shake hands. B. They bow to say hello. C. They kiss each other. 8. What language can Steven speak? A. English. B. French. C. Both English and French. 9. What did the man do yesterday evening? A. He saw a film. B. He went to a match. C. He looked after his baby. 10. What’s the dialog about? A. Sports. B. Environment. C. Health. 第三节 听长对话,选择答案。(共7小题,每小题1.5分,满分10.5分) 下面你将听到3段长对话。根据你所听到的内容,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完每段对话后,每小题你有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听两遍。 听第一段长对话,回答第11至12小题。 11. What would Tom like to drink? A. Water. B. Tea. C. Juice. 12. How do they like paper cutting? A. Easy. B. Boring. C. Difficult. 听第二段长对话,回答第13至14小题。 13. What is the relationship between the two speakers? A. Old friends. B. Old classmates. C. Old neighbors. 14. What did Simon use to look like? A. He was very tall. B. He was a little fat. C. He wore glasses. 听第三段长对话,回答第15至17小题。 15. Why does Mary start this conversation? A. Because she passed a test. B. Because she joined a group. C. Because she bought a book. 16. Which book is Mary reading now? A. The Beautiful Mind. B. Jane Eyre. C. The Kite Runner. 17. How much time has Frank got to read the book? A. About half a month. B. About one month. C. About three months. 第四节 听短文,填写表格。(共3小题,每小题1.5分,满分4.5分) 下面你将听到一段短文。根据你所听到的内容,填写表格中所缺单词,每空仅填一词。听短文前,你将有15秒钟的时间浏览表格。听完后,你将有30秒钟的时间作答。短文听两遍。 A New Tool Which Can Help Stop Car Door Accidents Inventor A 14-year-old student from Shanghai. Reasons It’s not easy to find out whether it is safe or not to open the door during 18 hours. Some inventions can help with this problem but they are not available in old cars. Price 100-300 yuan. And Ju worked hard to sell it at a 19 price. Meaning It can help stop car door accidents and ensure (确保) kids’ 20 when a stranger gets close. 二、完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Eric and his mother loved their new house. The living room was large enough for their piano. That night, the two of them 21 at the piano. They played jazz music to celebrate their new home. The loud 22 filled the room and made them feel very happy. The next morning, 23 , their happiness disappeared. Someone had left a note under their door. One of their neighbors had written to complain about the sound of the piano. Eric’s mother asked the building superintendent (管理员) if he knew anything about it. But he said that they were all 24 people and he couldn’t imagine any of them had done that. “Maybe we could go and 25 everyone in person.” his mother said. “What if we invited them to come here for a 26 instead?” Eric asked. They both loved the 27 . Over the next few days, they sent out invitations and prepared delicious food 28 their guests. They also decorated their house. Finally, the day of the party 29 . Their guests brought them different 30 . One woman, Mrs. Gilbert, gave Eric’s mother a book of piano music by Chopin. “I heard you playing the other night,” she said. “The sounds woke me out of bed. I 31 that you might play like this every night. So I wrote a short note. I hope you don’t think I disliked the playing.” Eric’s mother smiled at Mrs. Gilbert. “We should say sorry to you,” she said. “I didn’t 32 how late it was when we were playing.” “You play, you play!” Mrs. Gilbert said. “I like what you play! Just not so loud at night.” She pointed to the book she had given them, “These songs are not such 33 music.” “These songs are beautiful music,” Eric’s mother said. “We will be happy to play them.” “And we won’t play so loud or late!” Eric said. He was already looking forward to 34 the new music. More than that, he was so happy to see the big smile on his mother’s face. It gave him a 35 feeling. He felt that they were home at last. 21. A. lay B. walked C. stood D. sat 22. A. ring B. cry C. music D. voice 23. A. however B. instead C. later D. anyhow 24. A. rich B. kind C. proud D. lucky 25. A. watch B. doubt C. visit D. follow 26. A. party B. concert C. show D. play 27. A. action B. performance C. idea D. experience 28. A. from B. for C. with D. to 29. A. arrived B. passed C. finished D. continued 30. A. cards B. dishes C. notes D. presents 31. A. agreed B. worried C. promised D. advised 32. A. remember B. accept C. realize D. understand 33. A. loud B. sweet C. funny D. soft 34. A. recording B. changing C. writing D. practicing 35. A. sad B. warm C. strange D. terrible 三、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读三篇短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个与短文内容相符的最佳选项。 A Sunshine Art Museum Address: On the north side of King Square Arriving Here: Subway stations: Nelson Street (2-minute walk) Embankment (3-minute walk) Charing Cross (7-minute walk) Opening Hours: Mon. — Sat. 10 a.m. — 4 p.m. Prices: Adults: $10/person Children under 12: Free Call us at 723-1182 for more information. 36. _ is the closest subway station to the museum. A. King Square B. Nelson Street C. Embankment D. Charing Cross 37. Which of the following is TRUE? A. This is a tea culture museum. B. The museum is open at 9 a.m. C. The museum is free for the public. D. You can call the museum at 723-1182. 38. The sign means you can _ here. A. have a meal B. take photos C. ask for information D. buy a present 39. We can find Museum Shop _. A. in East Garden B. next to Dining Space C. across from Lost & Found D. between Ancient Arts and Modern Arts 40. The text is probably from _. A. a visitor guide B. a shopping list C. a street map D. a travel diary B Frank and his brother Jack lived near the ocean. Frank was outgoing while Jack was shy. They liked doing different things. Frank was famous for organizing games of beach volleyball, football, and any other sport. Jack loved to draw, paint, or build sandcastle (沙堡). Frank didn’t understand why Jack would rather do artistic things than play ball. He believed sports often allowed many kids to play together. That was when Jack’s idea formed. He would show Frank what doing things together looked like! After Jack finished creating a special sandcastle with stairs, towers and walls, he took pictures of it. Then he painted colorful posters (海报) featuring (突出) his sandcastle and the question, “Can you top this?” He hung his posters everywhere in town, telling people his plan for a day of sandcastle artistry—all ages welcome. When Frank saw posters, he not so nicely told Jack that no one would come. Still, shortly after sunrise on Saturday, Jack was on the beach digging in the sand. By mid-morning, four kids were sculpting (雕塑) the sand with him. By noon, the number had increased a lot. After Frank came back from his ball game, he went to check how his brother’s plan turned out. He couldn’t believe what he saw. At least 30 people were building a city of sandcastles, and everyone was chatting and laughing and working together! It was the most beautiful thing he had seen on the beach. “I guess you’ve proved (证明) me wrong,” Frank said. “You should make this sandcastle day a yearly tradition!” Handing Frank a shovel (铲子) with a smile, Jack got started together with his brother on their super creation in the sand. 41. What does the underlined word “That” refer to in Paragraph 2? A. Frank’s sports hobby. B. Jack’s art hobby. C. Jack’s sandcastle work. D. Frank’s doubt of Jack. 42. What helped people know about Jack’s plan? A. Beautiful towers. B. Colorful posters. C. A town building. D. A polite question. 43. What can we know about Jack’s idea according to the text? A. It came from picture. B. It needed 30 people’s support. C. It proved Frank right. D. It did work well. 44. Which of the following best describes Jack? A. Honest. B. Creative. C. Outgoing. D. Caring. 45. What might happen in the next year according to the text? A. Frank will stop playing ball games. B. The town will build a sandcastle park. C. They will hold another sandcastle day. D. Jack will lose interest in building sandcastles. C ①One morning, I got up early and decided to make an apple pie for my mum. I called my grandma for help, followed a TV program to make jam (果酱) and waited excitedly. I enjoyed every step so much that I didn’t notice three hours pass by. Although the pie looked terrible and was not that delicious, Mum ate it up and told me it was the best pie that she had ever had. For the first time, I realized that although I didn’t make the pie successfully, I really enjoyed the process. ②The process is important because it brings us something bigger than the result itself. That is, we always have new experiences during the process, which may help us improve our skills or form good relationships with others. If we just focus on (关注) the result and do not enjoy the process, we will be more likely to feel disappointed and want to give up. As a result, we will never understand the real meaning of success. ③But in this busy world, we see a lot of successful people are in competition. How can we enjoy the process? Well, the question has the answer in itself. ④Don’t always compare yourself with others. First of all, we are all different. And success means different things to us. For some, success means being famous, while for others, it may be health or power. Ride your own ride. ⑤Slow down. You need to stop expecting immediate (立刻的) results in what you do and learn to be patient. Impatience leads to unhappiness. Do it slowly, but never stop. ⑥Reward (奖励) yourself. Divide the process into small steps, and give yourself a reward after completing each of them. Rewarding yourself for small wins can go a long way. For example, if you are in the process of losing weight, enjoy your favorite cake once in a while. 46. How did the writer’s pie turn out? A. It looked great and tasted delicious. B. It looked bad but tasted good. C. It looked terrible and wasn’t very delicious. D. It looked normal and tasted okay. 47. Why is the process important according to the text? A. Because it can make us more competitive. B. Because it can bring new experiences. C. Because it always leads to a perfect result. D. Because it can make us famous. 48. What does the sentence “Ride your own ride.” mean in the text? A. Do things in your own way. B. Only focus on your own bike. C. Never care about others’ opinions. D. Compete with others in a different way. ( 1 2 3 4 5 6 ) ( 1 2 3 4 5 6 ) ( 1 2 3 4 5 6 ) ( 1 2 4 6 3 5 )49. Which of the following best shows the structure of the text? A. B. C. D. 50. Which could be the best title for the text? A. Never give up B. Enjoy the process C. What success means to us D. How to achieve good results 第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读短文,从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。 When you go to the park, you may notice many older people listening to audiobooks (有声书) instead of reading paper books. 51 Why are more and more people choosing audiobooks over traditional books? Is listening to an audiobook just as useful as reading a book? Reading needs us to pay attention to the words in the book, and we also need to find proper time and a quiet space to read. 52 At the same time, it gives your eyes a break. But the big question is, do we get knowledge from audiobooks as effectively (有效地) as we do from paper books? 53 Volunteers in Group 1 were asked to listen to an audiobook while volunteers in Group 2 read a book of the same article. It turned out that they remembered the same amount (数量) of information, whether they listened to it or read it. Another study further supported the result above. In the study, researchers studied people’s brains when they listened to and read books. 54 However, some people still believe that we learn better from reading paper books at the moment. 55 If we’re trying to learn while doing two things, we’re not going to learn as well. A. Researchers did a scientific test to find the answer. B. Audiobooks have become quite popular these days. C. Young people prefer to choose audiobooks more than the old do. D. However, you can listen to audiobooks anytime and anywhere you like. E. One reason might be that when we listen to audiobooks, we need to deal with several tasks. F. The result showed that listening to audiobooks makes almost the same parts of the brain active as reading does. 四、短文填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分) 阅读短文,从方框中选出恰当的单词并用其适当形式填空,使短文通顺、意义完整。每空仅填一词,每词仅用一次。 make and their insect European use bad seem really impossible “There is an interesting thing! Rubbish is 56 by birds to build their homes,” said a new study. A group of 57 scientists surveyed about 3,500,044 bird nests (巢). Some rubbish 58 to be useful. This is why birds like putting it in 59 nests. For example, cigarette butts (烟头) have some special chemicals (化学物质). So they can keep many kinds of 60 away. Plastic bags are helpful in keeping the birds warm. And other hard things, such as paper cards, can 61 their nests stronger. However, as a matter of fact, human rubbish may bring more harm (伤害) to birds. The chemicals in cigarette are harmful. They can hurt the baby birds 62 they can make them get sick or have shorter lives. What’s 63 , if the cigarette still burns when the bird brings it back to its nest, it may set fire to the nest. Pieces of fishing net may also catch birds, and it’s 64 for them to get out by themselves. If the baby birds eat other kinds of rubbish by accident, they will also get hurt easily. Our friends in the air are feeling the bad effects of pollution. It is 65 serious! We must take measures to collect the rubbish at once. 五、读写结合(共两节,满分25分) 第一节 任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读短文,用英文填空或回答问题。(请注意每小题的词数要求) As winter comes, hands can easily get cold. Thick gloves might be a good choice, but sometimes wearing them is not convenient. However, this was not a problem for ancient Chinese people, who had a fine tool to warm their hands: hand warmers. There is one folk story about its invention. Emperor Yang from the Sui Dynasty visited Jiangsu in winter. Because of the cold, a local official asked craftsmen (工匠人) to make a small warmer for the emperor that could be held in his hands. So, the hand warmer was created. By the Song Dynasty, the warmers had become popular among the common people. Skills for producing the tool were widely used in the Ming and Qing Dynasties. Many poets (诗人) from this period kept a record of people using hand warmers. The materials of making hand warmers also changed over time. In the early days, copper (铜) was often used in the production process. It was more suitable than silver and iron because it could transfer (传导) heat better, while reducing the risk of breakage or corrosion (腐蚀). Inside a hand warmer, there were coals, some of which were mixed with flowers, giving off a nice smell when burned. Ancient hand warmers had different designs. Round, square and octagonal (八边形) shapes were typical, and there were also some fashioned shapes which looked like pumpkins, flowers and turtle shells. The patterns on the warmers would usually be animals or symbols with good meanings, such as deer, flowers or the Chinese characters for a long life. 66. The passage talks about an ancient tool for Chinese people to . (不超过10词) 67. Why was copper more suitable than silver and iron in the production process? . (不超过15词) 68&69. Fill in the blanks according to the passage. Introduction Hand warmers The history the Sui Dynasty: Craftsmen made a small warmer for Emperor Yang. the Song Dynasty: The popularity of the warmers had risen. the Ming and Qing Dynasties: Many poets recorded the use of hand warmers. The 68 (仅填1词) The outside: copper The inside: coals, some mixed with flowers The designs Shapes: typical shapes and fashioned shapes Patterns: 69 (不超过10词) 70. What do you think of ancient hand warmers? Why? (结合自身实际,不超过20词) 第二节 书面表达(共1题,满分15分) 71. 假定你是李华,请根据该邮件内容,用英语给Tom回复。 Hi, Li Hua, You mentioned your dream job in your last letter. I’m really interested in it. Why did you choose it? What/Who influenced you to make the decision? Tell me your experience, please. I look forward to hearing from you soon! Tom 要求:①词数不少于80,开头和结尾已经写好,不计入总词数; ②可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯; ③文中不要出现任何真实人名、校名及其他相关信息,否则不予评分。 Dear Tom, Thanks for your e-mail. _ _Li Hua ( 天 九年级英语试卷 第 2 页 共 8 页 ) 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$