精品解析：2024年湖北省潜江市、天门市、仙桃市中考模拟英语试题

2024年九年级四月教学调研考试 英语试卷 本卷共8页，满分120分，时间共120分钟 注意事项： 1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并在规定的位置贴好条形码，核准姓名与准考证号。 2. 选择题的答案选出后，必须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，先用橡皮擦干净，再选涂其它答案标号。非选择题答案必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔填写在答题卡对应的区域内，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，请将答题卡上交。 听力部分（30分） 第一节 听短对话，选择图片。（共5小题，每题1.5分，满分7.5分） 下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容，从所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中，选出与你所听内容相符的图片。听完每段对话后，你将有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听一遍。 A B C D E F 1.______ 2.______ 3.______ 4.______ 5.______ 第二节 听短对话，选择答案。（共5小题，每题1.5分，满分7.5分） 下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间作答和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。 6. What’s the pronunciation of the word? A. /leɪk/ B. /lʌk/ C. /laɪf/ 7. How will the weather be tomorrow? A. Rainy. B. Cold. C. Sunny. 8. How often does the boy’s sister listen to country music? A. Seldom. B. Every day. C. At least four times a week. 9. Why does the girl choose Rose Cinema? A. Because it is new. B. Because it is big. C. Because it is close to their home. 10. What did Tony do last Saturday morning? A. He went shopping. B. He took photos. C. He cooked noodles for his mom. 第三节 听长对话，选择答案。（共7小题，每题1.5分，满分10.5分） 下面你将听到3段长对话。根据你所听到的内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完每段对话后，每小题你将有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听两遍。 听第一段长对话，回答第11至12小题 11. What did the girl have for supper yesterday? A. Ice cream and watermelon. B. Hamburgers and fish. C. Dumplings and watermelon. 12. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Father and daughter. C. Doctor and patient. 听第二段长对话，回答第13至14小题。 13. When is the graduation ceremony? A. This Monday. B. This Friday. C. Next Monday. 14. Who would Jack like to thank most? A. Mr. Wilson. B. Mr. Green. C. Mrs. White. 听第三段长对话，回答第15至17小题。 15. Which of the following is mentioned in the conversation? A. Pandas’ weight. B. Pandas’ look. C. Pandas’ number. 16. How should we protect pandas in Mark’s opinion? A. By building more zoos. B. By planting more bamboo. C. By setting up more research centers. 17. What can we know from the conversation? A. Sue and Mark may be classmates. B. Pandas are Sue’s favorite animals. C. There are three thousand pandas living in China. 第四节 听短文，填写表格。（共3小题，每题1.5分，满分4.5分） 下面你将听到一段短文，根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词。听短文前，你将有15秒钟的时间浏览表格。听完后，你将有30秒钟的时间作答。短文听两遍。 How to take care of your teeth First Brush your teeth every day, after getting up and before going to bed. Second Brush all of your teeth, not only the 18 ones, but also the teeth along the sides and in the back. Third Spend at least 19 minutes each time you brush. Fourth Be sure your toothbrush is 20 . Last Care about what you eat and drink. 笔试部分（90分） 二、完形填空（共15小题，每题1分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 This summer I turned 12, I wished to grow up more quickly. Summer camp was coming and I was so worried about my ____1____ that I’d gotten into a big argument with my mom. “But I’ll ____2____ it!” I cried. I was certain that everyone would see me as nothing more than “the short girl”. “You won’t know anything ____3____ you get there,” my mom calmed. And I had to ____4____. On Monday my teacher Maggie told us about the climbing course, and my heart sank (下沉) when I saw the wall. I was the ____5____ one to try to climb that huge wall. It might have been ten floors high, and knew that I had no ____6____ to succeed. But I had to, after the other campers finished. I asked for a “short person’s pass”, smiling ____7____ and walking around the wall. “You know, Amy. What the mind can believe, the heart can achieve.” Maggie ____8____. “I’d really like you to do your best to get over the wall.” I pretended to hurt my knee ____9____ I could avoid it. “How’s the knee? Does it hurt a lot?” Maggie asked. She was so kind, which made me feel ____10____ because I didn’t like to lie. Maggie was really patient, showing me ____11____ she climbed the wall. And some campers were there ____12____ for me. I didn’t want to lie anymore, and I didn’t want to ____13____ again. I could see how much everyone believed in me, and I wanted to show them how much I valued their ____14____, so I kept trying. And then something ____15____ happened — I made it! “What the mind can believe, the heart can achieve.” Maggie reminded me. And this time I knew it was true. 1. A. hair B. build C. height D. weight 2. A. accept B. beat C. hate D. manage 3. A. if B. after C. when D. until 4. A. agree B. explain C. refuse D. complain 5. A. first B. last C. only D. right 6. A. risk B. chance C. time D. pressure 7. A. happily B. proudly C. weakly D. warmly 8. A. encouraged B. imagined C. introduced D. repeated 9. A. so B. or C. unless D. but 10. A. angry B. bored C. lonely D. bad 11. A. how B. when C. where D. why 12. A. cheering B. searching C. practicing D. competing 13. A. grow up B. give up C. wake up D. get up 14. A. dream B. decision C. support D. success 15. A. funny B. creative C. popular D. amazing 三、阅读理解（共20小题，每题2分，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题，每题2分，满分30分） 阅读三篇短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个可以与短文内容相符的最佳选项。 A The International Day of Families is celebrated on May 15th every year. It is to raise people’s attention to the happiness and progress of the family. To celebrate the 31st International Family Day this year (2024), Family Center will hold some family activities. Time 9:00 a.m. — 5:00 p.m., May 15th Place The South International Square Activities ★Family sports ★Reading a letter to your family ★A cooking competition among families Prizes 1st prize — a five-day foreign tour 2nd prize — a seven-day domestic (国内的) tour 3rd prize — a four-day domestic tour Rules ★Each family chooses two or three kinds of activities. When you sign up (报名), you should make a decision. ★All the letters must be written by families themselves. They will not be returned, so please keep a copy. ★Don’t be late, or you’ll not be allowed to take part in these activities. ★Families who want to take part in the activities must hand in their application (申请) forms before May 5th or you can call 2877-2197 to sign up before May 10th. ★We will provide free breakfast and lunch. 16. When was the first International Day of Families? A. In 1987. B. In 1990. C. In 1994. D. In 1996. 17. Which of the following activities can you take part in on that day? A. Doing sports with friends. B. Giving a talk about family. C. Writing a letter to your family. D. Joining in a cooking competition. 18. What can you get if your family wins the second prize? A. A trip in your country for four days. B. A trip in foreign countries for a week. C A trip in your country for a week. D. A trip in foreign countries for five days. 19. It’s clear that ______. A. you can take part in two activities at most B. you can make a call to sign up C. you can get your letter back from the center D. you can enjoy free lunch and dinner 20. Where can you find this passage? A. In a science magazine. B. In a newspaper. C. In a storybook. D. In a dictionary. B If you feel sad or upset, remember not to watch a happy movie. A sad movie may be more suitable for you. Some scientists at Ohio State University, the US, have found that sad movies can make people happier. They published (出版) their study in a magazine called Communication Research. Scientists asked 361 college students to watch a sad movie, Titanic. The movie tells a story of two lovers, Jack and Rose. Because of an accident, their ship sank. To save Rose, Jack lost his life. The 361 college students answered questions from the scientists before, after and three times during the movie to find out their different feelings, including sadness. According to the result of the survey, scientists found out that people felt better after watching the sad movie. Scientists believed this was because the movie made them think about their own lives and relationships. Compared to those of the unlucky lovers in the movie, their lives were full of hope. “I want to live my life to the fullest, and this movie has made me think a lot.” one student wrote. Therefore, if you feel sad, go to see a sad movie. That will cause you to think more about your own close relationships and value them more. 21. The scientists asked the college students to watch Titanic ______. A. to help them make more friends B. to show them how to make a survey C. to encourage them to share their feelings D. to find out how they felt after the movie 22. How many times did the students answer questions from the scientists? A. Three times. B. Four times. C. Five times. D. Six times. 23. What does the underlined word “those” in Paragraph 4 refer to? A. Lives. B. Stories. C. Friends. D. Feelings. 24. What is the structure of the passage? A. B. C. D. 25. What is the best title for this passage? A. Feeling Bad? Be Full of Hope B. Feeling Sad? Watch a Sad Movie C. Feeling Lonely? Find True Love D. Feeling Down? Value Time More C On a sunny Saturday morning, Mia was in her backyard with a bright smile. Today was perfect for trying out her latest invention—the Flower Watering Robot. She was excited to see if it could really water the garden by itself. She turned the robot on and watched as it started moving among the flowers. It was working! Just then, a group of kids from her school walked by and saw her invention. Frank, the tallest among them, stepped forward and turned the robot off. “What is this?” he asked “It’s my Flower Watering Robot. It helps water plants by itself.” Mia explained. The kids laughed, “Who needs a robot to water plants?” Frank picked up the robot and set it aside rudely before they all walked away. Mia felt sad as she picked up her robot. “Maybe Frank is right... Who would really use this?” she wondered, feeling discouraged (沮丧). Suddenly, she heard a voice. “Hey, are you okay?” It was Mr. Jackson, her neighbor. He noticed the robot and asked, “What’s this interesting thing?” Mia brightened up a bit. “It’s my Flower Watering Robot. I built it myself to help with gardening...” Mr. Jackson was amazed. “That’s amazing! You’re so creative. Don’t let those kids get you down. Keep inventing, and you’ll make something wonderful!” “And guess what? I run a local science fair (展览会),” he continued. “I think your robot is great. I can see it winning a prize!” Mia’s eyes lit up. The local science fair was a big deal, and the idea of her invention being part of it was exciting... 26. What could Mia’s latest invention do? A. Pick fruit. B. Water plants. C. Plant trees. D. Cut grass. 27. Why did Frank turn off the robot? A. Because he didn’t believe it was useful. B. Because he wanted to run it himself. C. Because he wanted to learn more about it. D. Because he thought it was a funny toy. 28. Which of the following words can best describe Mr. Jackson? A. Shy and friendly. B. Caring and humorous. C. Kind and supportive. D. Patient and hard-working. 29. Where will the next scene (场景) of the story probably take place? A. Frank’s backyard. B. Mr. Jackson’s office. C. The science fair. D. Mia’s garden. 30. What can we learn from the passage? A. It takes great patience to become a successful scientist. B. It brings us great joy to get along well with our neighbors. C. We should believe in ourselves and never give up easily. D. We must stay away from the people who disagree with us. 第二节（共5小题，每题2分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从下面所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。 There are many deserts on the earth. And the following are some facts you may find interesting. What are deserts like? Deserts can be hot and dry places. Rain may not fall there for months or years. Some deserts are sandy and stony. Deserts can also be very windy places. The wind can change the shape of the deserts. ____31____ Temperatures in the desert can be quite different. During the daytime, the temperature may reach 40°C even in the shade (阴凉处). ____32____ In winter there may even be a frost in the early morning. Living in the desert The camel is sometimes called “the ship of the desert”. It stores food in its hump (驼峰) and can go for days without water. It has large feet which help it not to fall into the sand. ____33____ An oasis is an area of the desert where water may be found. The water may be in pools or under the ground. People and animals visit an oasis for water and food. Plants grow at an oasis. ____34____ The Arabian Desert The Arabian Desert lies between the Red Sea and the Arabian Gulf. In some parts of the desert, it is too hot for people to live. Oil was discovered under parts of the desert and in the Arabian Gulf. ____35____ Much of the money has been spent building fine cities with lovely parks and lakes, and people live a comfortable life there. A. It moves sand around from place to place. B. It has made some countries in the area very rich. C. Its long eyelashes (睫毛) keep out the sand during sandstorms. D. At night, deserts can become very cold. E. The desert is quite dangerous. F. Some farmers are able to grow crops (庄稼) here. 四、短文填空（共10小题，每题1分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从方框中选出正确的词并用其适当形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 competition culture watch nervous careful but wherever one interest arrive Zheng Xiaohui is a Chinese student in Milan, Italy. She has performed many erhu performances on the street, spreading traditional Chinese ____36____ to the world. Zheng comes from Shandong Province and ____37____ in Italy in 2021. She is now studying for a master’s degree. She has been playing erhu since she was 9, winning prizes in national music ____38____. Since April 2023, Zheng has been performing on the street during her free time, and she does three or four shows a month. She prepares ____39____ for every erhu performance, dressing in Chinese hanfu. Her performances have not only traditional Chinese folk music such as “Horse Racing”, ____40____ recomposed (改编的) parts from popular music and famous Italian music. So many people are ____41____ in her beautiful music on the street. They would stop to listen, hoping to know more about the erhu she plays. Some of them said that it was their ____42____ time to see such a wonderful musical instrument. Before April 2023, Zheng hadn’t planned to perform on the street, but her mind changed after ____43____ a video of a violinist’s street performance. Thinking back to her own street performance, she was ____44____ at the beginning, but the excitement and interest from the people quickly cheered her up. Talking about the future, Zheng looks forward to it, and said that whatever she does and ____45____ she lives, she will bring her erhu with her. She expects to organize her own special concert to help more people to learn about Chinese folk music. 五、读写结合（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 任务型阅读 阅读短文，用英文填空或回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 In many countries, people are encouraged to buy electric cars. It is said that driving an electric car is good for the environment. But is that true? The University of Minnesota recently studied emissions (排放物) from different cars. The scientists found that sometimes, electric cars are more harmful than petrol (汽油) cars. Surprising? Well, please pay attention to the word “sometimes”. Electric cars are supposed to be clean. The problem lies in the power that is used to charge (充电) them. If the power comes from wind or solar energy, electric cars will cause little pollution. However, if the power is produced from coal, they will be very harmful. According to the study, emissions from these cars kill about 3,000 people a year. However, pollution caused by petrol cars only leads to 880 deaths a year. In fact, sales people are not lying when they say electric cars are clean. However, they are right only when the power used to charge their cars is also clean. So how clean electric cars are depends on what their electricity comes from. In France, more than half of the power comes from nuclear (核) stations. Electric cars there should be as clean as they are marketed to be. In many developing countries, however, electricity mainly comes from coal. India, for example, depends on coal for 61 percent of its power. Only two percent of electricity comes from nuclear energy. In countries like India, electric cars are not clean at all. 46. People in many countries are encouraged to buy electric cars because electric cars _______________. (10个词以内) 47. Whether electric cars are clean or not depends on ________________. (10个词以内) 48. In Paragraph 4, in which country the electric cars are cleaner than those in many developing countries? ______________________________________________ (5个词以内) 49. The power of electric cars may come from __________________________. (写出文中提到任意两种能源，5个词以内) 50. What do you think of the electric cars? Why? ____________________________________________ (20个词以内) 第二节 书面表达 51. 你校将举办一次户外活动，为了更好地开展这次活动，校英语社团正在向学生征集意见。假设你是李华，请根据表格内容写一篇短文 (先介绍你喜欢的户外活动，再说明理由，最后就活动安排提出合理的建议)，向社团投稿。 写作要点 参考句型 1. What outdoor activity do you like? We’d better... Maybe we can... It’ll be better if... ... 2. Why do you like it? 3. How do you arrange (安排) it? (when, where, what to do...) 要求： ①短文应包括提示内容中的所有要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥； ②不能出现真实的人名和地名； ③词数80词左右，短文开头及结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Sir, I’m happy to hear there will be an outdoor activity in our school. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Hope my suggestions help. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 2024年九年级四月教学调研考试 英语试卷 本卷共8页，满分120分，时间共120分钟 注意事项： 1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并在规定的位置贴好条形码，核准姓名与准考证号。 2. 选择题的答案选出后，必须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，先用橡皮擦干净，再选涂其它答案标号。非选择题答案必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔填写在答题卡对应的区域内，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，请将答题卡上交。 听力部分（30分） 第一节 听短对话，选择图片。（共5小题，每题1.5分，满分7.5分） 下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容，从所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中，选出与你所听内容相符的图片。听完每段对话后，你将有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听一遍。 A B C D E F 1.______ 2.______ 3.______ 4.______ 5.______ 第二节 听短对话，选择答案。（共5小题，每题1.5分，满分7.5分） 下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间作答和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。 6. What’s the pronunciation of the word? A. /leɪk/ B. /lʌk/ C. /laɪf/ 7. How will the weather be tomorrow? A. Rainy. B. Cold. C. Sunny. 8. How often does the boy’s sister listen to country music? A Seldom. B. Every day. C. At least four times a week. 9. Why does the girl choose Rose Cinema? A. Because it is new. B. Because it is big. C. Because it is close to their home. 10. What did Tony do last Saturday morning? A. He went shopping. B. He took photos. C. He cooked noodles for his mom. 第三节 听长对话，选择答案。（共7小题，每题1.5分，满分10.5分） 下面你将听到3段长对话。根据你所听到的内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完每段对话后，每小题你将有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听两遍。 听第一段长对话，回答第11至12小题。 11. What did the girl have for supper yesterday? A. Ice cream and watermelon. B. Hamburgers and fish. C. Dumplings and watermelon. 12. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Father and daughter. C. Doctor and patient. 听第二段长对话，回答第13至14小题。 13. When is the graduation ceremony? A. This Monday. B. This Friday. C. Next Monday. 14. Who would Jack like to thank most? A. Mr. Wilson. B. Mr. Green. C. Mrs. White. 听第三段长对话，回答第15至17小题。 15. Which of the following is mentioned in the conversation? A. Pandas’ weight. B. Pandas’ look. C. Pandas’ number. 16. How should we protect pandas in Mark’s opinion? A. By building more zoos. B. By planting more bamboo. C. By setting up more research centers. 17. What can we know from the conversation? A. Sue and Mark may be classmates. B. Pandas are Sue’s favorite animals. C. There are three thousand pandas living in China. 第四节 听短文，填写表格。（共3小题，每题1.5分，满分4.5分） 下面你将听到一段短文，根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词。听短文前，你将有15秒钟的时间浏览表格。听完后，你将有30秒钟的时间作答。短文听两遍。 How to take care of your teeth First Brush your teeth every day, after getting up and before going to bed. Second Brush all of your teeth, not only the 18 ones, but also the teeth along the sides and in the back. Third Spend at least 19 minutes each time you brush. Fourth Be sure your toothbrush is 20 . Last Care about what you eat and drink. 笔试部分（90分） 二、完形填空（共15小题，每题1分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 This summer I turned 12, I wished to grow up more quickly. Summer camp was coming and I was so worried about my ____1____ that I’d gotten into a big argument with my mom. “But I’ll ____2____ it!” I cried. I was certain that everyone would see me as nothing more than “the short girl”. “You won’t know anything ____3____ you get there,” my mom calmed. And I had to ____4____. On Monday, my teacher Maggie told us about the climbing course, and my heart sank (下沉) when I saw the wall. I was the ____5____ one to try to climb that huge wall. It might have been ten floors high, and knew that I had no ____6____ to succeed. But I had to, after the other campers finished. I asked for a “short person’s pass”, smiling ____7____ and walking around the wall. “You know, Amy. What the mind can believe, the heart can achieve.” Maggie ____8____. “I’d really like you to do your best to get over the wall.” I pretended to hurt my knee ____9____ I could avoid it. “How’s the knee? Does it hurt a lot?” Maggie asked. She was so kind, which made me feel ____10____ because I didn’t like to lie. Maggie was really patient, showing me ____11____ she climbed the wall. And some campers were there ____12____ for me. I didn’t want to lie anymore, and I didn’t want to ____13____ again. I could see how much everyone believed in me, and I wanted to show them how much I valued their ____14____, so I kept trying. And then something ____15____ happened — I made it! “What the mind can believe, the heart can achieve.” Maggie reminded me. And this time I knew it was true. 1. A. hair B. build C. height D. weight 2. A. accept B. beat C. hate D. manage 3. A. if B. after C. when D. until 4. A. agree B. explain C. refuse D. complain 5. A. first B. last C. only D. right 6. A. risk B. chance C. time D. pressure 7. A. happily B. proudly C. weakly D. warmly 8. A. encouraged B. imagined C. introduced D. repeated 9. A. so B. or C. unless D. but 10. A. angry B. bored C. lonely D. bad 11. A. how B. when C. where D. why 12. A. cheering B. searching C. practicing D. competing 13. A. grow up B. give up C. wake up D. get up 14. A. dream B. decision C. support D. success 15. A. funny B. creative C. popular D. amazing 【答案】1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. D 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了作者因为身高很矮，在参加夏令营时，不敢爬过高墙，在Maggie和同伴的鼓励下，她勇敢地做到了。 【1题详解】 句意：夏令营就要来了并且我非常担心我的身高，以至于和妈妈大吵了一架。 hair头发；build体形；height身高；weight体重。根据后文“‘the short girl’”可知，作者担心自己的身高问题。故选C。 【2题详解】 句意：但我会讨厌它。 accept接受；beat击败；hate讨厌；manage管理。根据“I cried.”可知，对于自己身高很矮这件事感到厌烦。故选C。 【3题详解】 句意：你到那之前什么都不会知道。 if如果；after在……之后；when当……时候；until直到。根据“You won’t know anything…you get there”可知，此处应该表达你到那之前什么都不会知道。用not…until表示“直到……才”符合语境。故选D。 【4题详解】 句意：我不得不同意。 agree同意；explain解释；refuse拒绝；complain抱怨。根据前文“my mom calmed.”可知，在妈妈冷静地劝解下，作者不得不同意了。故选A。 【5题详解】 句意：我是最后一个试图爬上那堵高墙的人。 first第一；last最后的；only仅有的；right正确的。根据后文“But I had to, after the other campers finished.”可知，作者是最后一个要爬过这个墙的。故选B。 【6题详解】 句意：它可能有十层楼高，我知道我没有成功的机会。 risk风险；chance机会；time时间；pressure压力。根据前半句“It might have been ten floors high,”可知，作者身高很矮，这个墙有十层楼高，作者认为自己没有机会成功。故选B。 【7题详解】 句意：我要了一张“矮个子通行证”，虚弱地微笑着绕着墙走着。 happily开心地；proudly骄傲地；weakly虚弱地；warmly热情地。根据前半句“I asked for a ‘short person’s pass,’”可知，作者身高很矮，看到要爬过这么高的墙，脸上是带着虚弱的微笑。故选C。 【8题详解】 句意：Maggie鼓励地说。 encouraged鼓励；imagined想象；introduced介绍；repeated重复。根据后文“‘I’d really like you to do your best to…’”可知，Maggie鼓励作者勇敢一些。故选A。 【9题详解】 句意：我假装伤了膝盖，这样就可以避免了。 so所以；or或者；unless除非；but但是。根据分析句子“I pretended to hurt my knee…I could avoid it.”可知，前后是因果关系，前因后果，所以用连词so连接，意为“所以”符合语境。故选A。 【10题详解】 句意：她太善良了，这让我很难过，因为我不喜欢撒谎。 angry生气的；bored无聊的；lonely孤单的；bad差的。根据空格后“because I didn’t like to lie.”可知，Maggie的善良让试图通过撒谎而逃避爬墙的作者感觉自己很差。故选D。 【11题详解】 句意：Maggie真的很有耐心，向我展示了她是如何爬上墙的。 how怎样；when什么时候；where哪里；why为什么。根据空格后“she climbed the wall.”可知，此处指的是展示如何爬上墙的。故选A。 【12题详解】 句意：一些露营者在那里为我欢呼。 cheering欢呼；searching寻找；practicing练习；competing比赛，竞争。根据空格后“for me”，结合语境可知，此处指的是一些露营者在那里为作者欢呼。cheer for sb，动词短语，意为“为……欢呼”符合语境。故选A。 【13题详解】 句意：我不想再撒谎了，也不想再放弃了。 grow up长大；give up放弃；wake up醒来；get up起床。根据后文“I could see how much everyone believed in me, and I wanted to show them how much I valued their…, so I kept trying.”可知，此处应该指的是作者不想再放弃了。故选B。 【14题详解】 句意：我想让他们知道我有多重视他们的支持，所以我一直在努力。 dream梦想；decision决定；support支持；success成功。根据前文“And some campers were there cheering for me.”可知，其他的同伴都为作者加油，作者觉得自己应该对得起他们的支持。故选C。 【15题详解】 句意：然后神奇的事情发生了——我做到了。 funny搞笑的；creative有创造力的；popular受欢迎的；amazing令人诧异的。根据后文“I made it!”可知，作者起初认为自己个子很矮，所以无法爬过那个高墙，但是在同伴和Maggie的鼓励下，她做到了，这是一件令人惊异的事。故选D。 三、阅读理解（共20小题，每题2分，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题，每题2分，满分30分） 阅读三篇短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个可以与短文内容相符的最佳选项。 A The International Day of Families is celebrated on May 15th every year. It is to raise people’s attention to the happiness and progress of the family. To celebrate the 31st International Family Day this year (2024), Family Center will hold some family activities. Time 9:00 a.m. — 5:00 p.m., May 15th Place The South International Square Activities ★Family sports ★Reading a letter to your family ★A cooking competition among families Prizes 1st prize — a five-day foreign tour 2nd prize — a seven-day domestic (国内的) tour 3rd prize — a four-day domestic tour Rules ★Each family chooses two or three kinds of activities. When you sign up (报名), you should make a decision. ★All the letters must be written by families themselves. They will not be returned, so please keep a copy. ★Don’t be late, or you’ll not be allowed to take part in these activities. ★Families who want to take part in the activities must hand in their application (申请) forms before May 5th or you can call 2877-2197 to sign up before May 10th. ★We will provide free breakfast and lunch. 16. When was the first International Day of Families? A. In 1987. B. In 1990. C. In 1994. D. In 1996. 17. Which of the following activities can you take part in on that day? A. Doing sports with friends. B. Giving a talk about family. C. Writing a letter to your family. D. Joining in a cooking competition. 18. What can you get if your family wins the second prize? A. A trip in your country for four days. B. A trip in foreign countries for a week. C. A trip in your country for a week. D. A trip in foreign countries for five days. 19. It’s clear that ______. A. you can take part in two activities at most B. you can make a call to sign up C. you can get your letter back from the center D. you can enjoy free lunch and dinner 20. Where can you find this passage? A. In a science magazine. B. In a newspaper. C. In a storybook. D. In a dictionary. 【答案】16. C 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. B 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍国际家庭日家庭中心将举办一些家庭活动。 【16题详解】 细节理解题。根据“To celebrate the 31st International Family Day this year (2024)”可知，2024年是第31届，所以第一届国际家庭日是在1994年，故选C。 【17题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Activities”列表可知，活动包括家庭运动、给家人读信和家庭烹饪比赛，故选D。 【18题详解】 细节理解题。根据“2nd prize — a seven-day domestic (国内的) tour”可知，二等奖是七天的国内游，故选C。 【19题详解】 细节理解题。根据“you can call 2877-2197 to sign up before May 10th”可知，可以打电话报名，故选B。 【20题详解】 推理判断题。本文主要介绍国际家庭日家庭中心将举办一些家庭活动，这类信息通常出现在报纸上，故选B。 B If you feel sad or upset, remember not to watch a happy movie. A sad movie may be more suitable for you. Some scientists at Ohio State University, the US, have found that sad movies can make people happier. They published (出版) their study in a magazine called Communication Research. Scientists asked 361 college students to watch a sad movie, Titanic. The movie tells a story of two lovers, Jack and Rose. Because of an accident, their ship sank. To save Rose, Jack lost his life. The 361 college students answered questions from the scientists before, after and three times during the movie to find out their different feelings, including sadness. According to the result of the survey, scientists found out that people felt better after watching the sad movie. Scientists believed this was because the movie made them think about their own lives and relationships. Compared to those of the unlucky lovers in the movie, their lives were full of hope. “I want to live my life to the fullest, and this movie has made me think a lot.” one student wrote. Therefore, if you feel sad, go to see a sad movie. That will cause you to think more about your own close relationships and value them more. 21. The scientists asked the college students to watch Titanic ______. A. to help them make more friends B. to show them how to make a survey C. to encourage them to share their feelings D. to find out how they felt after the movie 22. How many times did the students answer questions from the scientists? A. Three times. B. Four times. C. Five times. D. Six times. 23. What does the underlined word “those” in Paragraph 4 refer to? A. Lives. B. Stories. C. Friends. D. Feelings. 24. What is the structure of the passage? A. B. C. D. 25. What is the best title for this passage? A. Feeling Bad? Be Full of Hope B. Feeling Sad? Watch a Sad Movie C. Feeling Lonely? Find True Love D. Feeling Down? Value Time More 【答案】21. D 22. C 23. A 24. A 25. B 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要介绍了科学家通过实验证明看一部悲伤的电影会更适合不开心的人，因为它会让你珍惜当下你所拥有的。 【21题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The 361 college students answered questions from the scientists before, after and three times during the movie to find out their different feelings, including sadness.”可知，在学生观看完悲剧电影后，科学家们尝试发现他们的内心感受，故选D。 【22题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The 361 college students answered questions from the scientists before, after and three times during the movie to find out their different feelings, including sadness.”可知，361名大学生在电影上映前、上映后和上映期间三次回答了科学家的问题，一共是五次，故选C。 【23题详解】 词句猜测题。根据“Compared to those of the unlucky lovers in the movie, their lives were full of hope.”可知与电影中那些不幸的恋人的生活相比，他们的生活充满了希望，故此处those指代“生活”。故选A。 【24题详解】 篇章结构题。通读全文可知，第一段引出话题——悲伤的电影会更适合不开心的人；第二至第五段介绍了科学家关于这个话题做的研究以及结果；第六段进行总结。故选A。 【25题详解】 最佳标题题。本文主要介绍了科学家通过实验证明看一部悲伤的电影会更适合不开心的人，因为它会让你珍惜当下你所拥有的，所以B选项“感到难过吗？看一部悲伤的电影”符合本文标题，故选B。 C On a sunny Saturday morning, Mia was in her backyard with a bright smile. Today was perfect for trying out her latest invention—the Flower Watering Robot. She was excited to see if it could really water the garden by itself. She turned the robot on and watched as it started moving among the flowers. It was working! Just then, a group of kids from her school walked by and saw her invention. Frank, the tallest among them, stepped forward and turned the robot off. “What is this?” he asked. “It’s my Flower Watering Robot. It helps water plants by itself.” Mia explained. The kids laughed, “Who needs a robot to water plants?” Frank picked up the robot and set it aside rudely before they all walked away. Mia felt sad as she picked up her robot. “Maybe Frank is right... Who would really use this?” she wondered, feeling discouraged (沮丧). Suddenly, she heard a voice. “Hey, are you okay?” It was Mr. Jackson, her neighbor. He noticed the robot and asked, “What’s this interesting thing?” Mia brightened up a bit. “It’s my Flower Watering Robot. I built it myself to help with gardening...” Mr. Jackson was amazed. “That’s amazing! You’re so creative. Don’t let those kids get you down. Keep inventing, and you’ll make something wonderful!” “And guess what? I run a local science fair (展览会),” he continued. “I think your robot is great. I can see it winning a prize!” Mia’s eyes lit up. The local science fair was a big deal, and the idea of her invention being part of it was exciting... 26. What could Mia’s latest invention do? A. Pick fruit. B. Water plants. C. Plant trees. D. Cut grass. 27. Why did Frank turn off the robot? A. Because he didn’t believe it was useful. B. Because he wanted to run it himself. C. Because he wanted to learn more about it. D. Because he thought it was a funny toy. 28. Which of the following words can best describe Mr. Jackson? A. Shy and friendly. B. Caring and humorous. C. Kind and supportive. D. Patient and hard-working. 29. Where will the next scene (场景) of the story probably take place? A. Frank’s backyard. B. Mr. Jackson’s office. C. The science fair. D. Mia’s garden. 30. What can we learn from the passage? A. It takes great patience to become a successful scientist. B. It brings us great joy to get along well with our neighbors. C. We should believe in ourselves and never give up easily. D. We must stay away from the people who disagree with us. 【答案】26. B 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. C 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了Mia的最新的一项发明——浇花机器人，遭到孩子们质疑，但是在Mr. Jackson的鼓励和支持下，最后参加科技展览的故事。 【26题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Today was perfect for trying out her latest creation—the Flower Watering Robot. She was excited to see if it could really water the garden by itself.”可知，Mia的最新发明是浇水机器人，用来给植物浇水的。故选B。 【27题详解】 推理判断题。根据“The kids laughed, ‘Who needs a robot to water plants?’ Frank picked up the robot and set it aside rudely before they all walked away.”以及“Maybe Frank is right... Who would really use this?”可推知，Frank关掉机器人的原因是他不相信机器人有用。故选A。 【28题详解】 推理判断题。根据“Suddenly, she heard a voice. ‘Hey, are you okay?’ It was Mr. Jackson, her neighbor. He noticed the robot and asked, ‘What’s this interesting thing?’”以及“That’s amazing! You’re so creative. Don’t let those kids get you down. Keep inventing, and you’ll make something wonderful!”可推知，Mr. Jackson很善良，并对机器人持支持的态度。故选C。 【29题详解】 推理判断题。根据“The local science fair was a big deal, and the idea of her invention being part of it was exciting...”可推知，故事的下一个场景将发生在科学展览。故选C。 【30题详解】 推理判断题。通读全文可知，文章主要讲述了Mia的最新的一项发明——浇花机器人，遭到孩子们质疑，但是在Mr. Jackson的鼓励和支持下，最后参加科技展览的故事；从这篇文章中我们能学到我们应该永远相信自己，永不放弃。故选C。 第二节（共5小题，每题2分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从下面所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。 There are many deserts on the earth. And the following are some facts you may find interesting. What are deserts like? Deserts can be hot and dry places. Rain may not fall there for months or years. Some deserts are sandy and stony. Deserts can also be very windy places. The wind can change the shape of the deserts. ____31____ Temperatures in the desert can be quite different. During the daytime, the temperature may reach 40°C even in the shade (阴凉处). ____32____ In winter there may even be a frost in the early morning. Living in the desert The camel is sometimes called “the ship of the desert”. It stores food in its hump (驼峰) and can go for days without water. It has large feet which help it not to fall into the sand. ____33____ An oasis is an area of the desert where water may be found. The water may be in pools or under the ground. People and animals visit an oasis for water and food. Plants grow at an oasis. ____34____ The Arabian Desert The Arabian Desert lies between the Red Sea and the Arabian Gulf. In some parts of the desert, it is too hot for people to live. Oil was discovered under parts of the desert and in the Arabian Gulf. ____35____ Much of the money has been spent building fine cities with lovely parks and lakes, and people live a comfortable life there. A. It moves sand around from place to place. B. It has made some countries in the area very rich. C. Its long eyelashes (睫毛) keep out the sand during sandstorms. D. At night, deserts can become very cold. E. The desert is quite dangerous. F. Some farmers are able to grow crops (庄稼) here. 【答案】31. A 32. D 33. C 34. F 35. B 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍了一些有关沙漠的有趣事实。 【31题详解】 根据“The wind can change the shape of the deserts.”可知，风可以改变沙漠的形状。故此处应介绍风是如何改变沙漠的形状的。选项A“它把沙子从一个地方移动到另一个地方。”符合语境。故选A。 【32题详解】 根据“Temperatures in the desert can be quite different. During the daytime, the temperature may reach 40°C even in the shade (阴凉处)”可知，沙漠里的温度差别很大。白天，即使在阴凉处，温度也可能达到40°C，故接下来应介绍沙漠夜晚的温度。选项D“到了晚上，沙漠会变得非常冷。”符合语境。故选D。 【33题详解】 根据“The camel is sometimes called ‘the ship of the desert’”可知，本段都在介绍骆驼，故空格处内容应与骆驼相关。选项C“它长长的睫毛可以在沙尘暴来袭时挡住沙子。”符合语境。故选C。 【34题详解】 根据“An oasis is an area of the desert where water may be found...People and animals visit an oasis for water and food. Plants grow at an oasis”可知，绿洲是沙漠中有水的区域。人和动物来到绿洲寻找水和食物。植物生长在绿洲里，故空格处应介绍在绿洲可以做的事情。选项F“一些农民可以在这里种植庄稼。”符合语境。故选F。 【35题详解】 根据“Oil was discovered under parts of the desert and in the Arabian Gulf”可知，在部分沙漠的地下和阿拉伯湾发现了石油，故接下来应介绍这些石油带来的好处。选项B“它使该地区的一些国家非常富有。”符合语境。故选B。 四、短文填空（共10小题，每题1分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从方框中选出正确的词并用其适当形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 competition culture watch nervous careful but wherever one interest arrive Zheng Xiaohui is a Chinese student in Milan, Italy. She has performed many erhu performances on the street, spreading traditional Chinese ____36____ to the world. Zheng comes from Shandong Province and ____37____ in Italy in 2021. She is now studying for a master’s degree. She has been playing erhu since she was 9, winning prizes in national music ____38____. Since April 2023, Zheng has been performing on the street during her free time, and she does three or four shows a month. She prepares ____39____ for every erhu performance, dressing in Chinese hanfu. Her performances have not only traditional Chinese folk music such as “Horse Racing”, ____40____ recomposed (改编的) parts from popular music and famous Italian music. So many people are ____41____ in her beautiful music on the street. They would stop to listen, hoping to know more about the erhu she plays. Some of them said that it was their ____42____ time to see such a wonderful musical instrument. Before April 2023 Zheng hadn’t planned to perform on the street, but her mind changed after ____43____ a video of a violinist’s street performance. Thinking back to her own street performance, she was ____44____ at the beginning, but the excitement and interest from the people quickly cheered her up. Talking about the future, Zheng looks forward to it, and said that whatever she does and ____45____ she lives, she will bring her erhu with her. She expects to organize her own special concert to help more people to learn about Chinese folk music. 【答案】36. culture 37. arrived 38. competitions 39. carefully 40. but 41. interested 42. first 43. watching 44. nervous 45. wherever 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了中国学生郑晓慧在意大利街边表演二胡，向世界传播中国文化。 36题详解】 句意：她曾多次在街头表演二胡，向世界传播中国传统文化。根据“She has performed many erhu performances on the street, spreading traditional Chinese…to the world.”以及所给单词可知，此处说的是向世界传播中国传统文化，culture意为“文化”，名词。故填culture。 【37题详解】 句意：郑来自山东省，2021年抵达意大利。根据“Zheng comes from Shandong Province and…in Italy in 2021.”以及所给单词可知，此处说的是抵达意大利，arrive意为“到达”，此处描述的是过去发生的动作，应该用一般过去时，用动词过去式arrived。故填arrived。 【38题详解】 句意：她从9岁开始拉二胡，在全国音乐比赛中获奖。根据“She has been playing erhu since she was 9, winning prizes in national music…”以及所给单词可知，此处说的是全国音乐比赛，competition意为“比赛”，此处表示复数意义，用名词复数competitions。故填competitions。 【39题详解】 句意：她精心准备每一场二胡演奏，穿着汉服。根据“She prepares…for every erhu performance, dressing in Chinese hanfu.”以及所给单词可知，此处说的是精心准备每一场二胡演奏，carefully意为“精心地”，副词修饰动词。故填carefully。 【40题详解】 句意：她的表演不仅有《赛马》等中国传统民乐，还有流行音乐和意大利名曲的改编部分。not only…but (also)意为“不仅……而且……”。故填but。 【41题详解】 句意：那么多人对她在街上的优美音乐感兴趣。be interested in意为“对……感兴趣”，形容词短语。故填interested。 【42题详解】 句意：他们中的一些人说这是他们第一次看到如此美妙的乐器。根据“Some of them said that it was their…time to see such a wonderful musical instrument.”以及所给单词可知，此处说的是第一次看到如此美妙的乐器，first意为“第一”。故填first。 【43题详解】 句意：在2023年4月之前，郑没有打算在街头表演，但在观看了一个小提琴家的街头表演视频后，她的想法发生了变化。根据“…a video of a violinist’s street performance.”以及所给单词可知，此处说的是观看了视频，watch意为“看”，after是介词，其后跟动名词。故填watching。 【44题详解】 句意：回想她自己的街头表演，开始时她很紧张，但人们的兴奋和兴趣很快让她振作起来。根据“she was…at the beginning, but the excitement and interest from the people quickly cheered her up.”以及所给单词可知，此处说的是开始时她很紧张，nervous意为“紧张的”，形容词作表语。故填nervous。 【45题详解】 句意：谈及未来，郑充满期待，她说无论做什么，无论住在哪里，她都会带着二胡。根据“… she lives, she will bring her erhu with her.”以及所给单词可知，此处说的是无论住在哪里，wherever意为“无论哪里”。故填wherever。 五、读写结合（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 任务型阅读 阅读短文，用英文填空或回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 In many countries, people are encouraged to buy electric cars. It is said that driving an electric car is good for the environment. But is that true? The University of Minnesota recently studied emissions (排放物) from different cars. The scientists found that sometimes, electric cars are more harmful than petrol (汽油) cars. Surprising? Well, please pay attention to the word “sometimes”. Electric cars are supposed to be clean. The problem lies in the power that is used to charge (充电) them. If the power comes from wind or solar energy, electric cars will cause little pollution. However, if the power is produced from coal, they will be very harmful. According to the study, emissions from these cars kill about 3,000 people a year. However, pollution caused by petrol cars only leads to 880 deaths a year. In fact, sales people are not lying when they say electric cars are clean. However, they are right only when the power used to charge their cars is also clean. So how clean electric cars are depends on what their electricity comes from. In France, more than half of the power comes from nuclear (核) stations. Electric cars there should be as clean as they are marketed to be. In many developing countries, however, electricity mainly comes from coal. India, for example, depends on coal for 61 percent of its power. Only two percent of electricity comes from nuclear energy. In countries like India, electric cars are not clean at all. 46. People in many countries are encouraged to buy electric cars because electric cars _______________. (10个词以内) 47. Whether electric cars are clean or not depends on ________________. (10个词以内) 48. In Paragraph 4, in which country the electric cars are cleaner than those in many developing countries? ______________________________________________ (5个词以内) 49. The power of electric cars may come from __________________________. (写出文中提到的任意两种能源，5个词以内) 50. What do you think of the electric cars? Why? ____________________________________________ (20个词以内) 【答案】46. are good for the environment/are friendly to the environment/are less harmful to the environment 47. the power that is used to charge them/what their electricity comes from 48. In France/France. 49. wind energy、solar energy、coal、nuclear energy (任选两种) 50. I think they are cheaper. Because the power they use is mostly from the nature./I think they are convenient. Because the power they use can come from different kinds of energy./I think they are popular. Because a lot people around us have chosen electric cars. (言之有理即可) 【解析】 【导语】本文探讨了电动汽车的环保性问题，指出电动汽车是否真正环保取决于其电力来源。如果电力来自风能或太阳能等清洁能源，电动汽车几乎不会造成污染；但如果电力来自煤炭等污染性能源，电动汽车反而可能比传统汽油车更不环保。文章还以法国和印度为例，说明了不同国家电力来源对电动汽车环保性的影响。 【46题详解】 根据短文第一段“It is said that driving an electric car is good for the environment”可知，人们鼓励购买电动汽车是因为它们对环境有益。故填are good for the environment/are friendly to the environment/are less harmful to the environment。 【47题详解】 根据短文第四段“So how clean electric cars are depends on what their electricity comes from”可知，电动汽车否清洁取决于其电力来源。故填the power that is used to charge them/what their electricity comes from。 【48题详解】 根据短文第四段“In France, more than half of the power comes from nuclear stations. Electric cars there should be as clean as they are marketed to be”可知，法国的电动汽车比许多发展中国家的更清洁。故填In France/France。 【49题详解】 根据短文第二段“If the power comes from wind or solar energy”以及第四段“more than half of the power comes from nuclear stations”和“electricity mainly comes from coal”可知，电动汽车的电力可能来自风能、太阳能、核能或煤炭。故填wind energy、solar energy、coal、nuclear energy (任选两种)。 50题详解】 本题为开放性题目，答案需结合短文内容。故填I think they are cheaper. Because the power they use is mostly from the nature./I think they are convenient. Because the power they use can come from different kinds of energy./I think they are popular. Because a lot of people around us have chosen electric cars. (言之有理即可) 第二节 书面表达 51. 你校将举办一次户外活动，为了更好地开展这次活动，校英语社团正在向学生征集意见。假设你是李华，请根据表格内容写一篇短文 (先介绍你喜欢的户外活动，再说明理由，最后就活动安排提出合理的建议)，向社团投稿。 写作要点 参考句型 1. What outdoor activity do you like? We’d better... Maybe we can... It’ll be better if... ... 2. Why do you like it? 3. How do you arrange (安排) it? (when, where, what to do...) 要求： ①短文应包括提示内容中的所有要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥； ②不能出现真实的人名和地名； ③词数80词左右，短文开头及结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Sir, I’m happy to hear there will be an outdoor activity in our school. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Hope my suggestions help. 【答案】范文： Dear sir, I’m happy to hear there will be an outdoor activity in our school. I like climbing mountains with my classmates. We can enjoy the beauty of nature. We can also make friends and help each other on the way. To make the activity more interesting, I hope to go to East Mountain on June 25th. Since it’s a little far, we’d better meet at the school gate at 7:30 a.m. and go there by bus. We can collect some history stories about the famous mountain so that we can share them together. It’ll be nice if we can try some local food for lunch there. In the afternoon, we can pick up the rubbish to protect the environment. Then we can go home at 4:30 p.m. We’re sure to have great fun. Hope my suggestions help. Yours, Li Hua 【解析】 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇应用文； ②时态：时态为“一般现在时”和“一般将来时”； ③提示：写作要点已给出，要注意不要遗漏提示的相关要点，适当添加细节，并突出写作重点。 [写作步骤] 第一步，介绍自己喜欢的户外活动。 第二步，具体说明理由。 第三步，就活动安排提出合理的建议。 [亮点词汇] ①the beauty of nature自然之美 ②hope to do希望做某事 ③pick up拾起，捡起 [高分句型] ①Since it’s a little far, we’d better meet at the school gate at 7:30 a.m. and go there by bus. (since引导原因状语从句) ②It’ll be nice if we can try some local food for lunch there. (if引导条件状语从句) 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$