贵州省黔南州2024-2025学年高一上学期期末检测英语试题

null 黔南州2024—2025学年度第一学期期末质量监测 高一英语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共8页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前将姓名、准考证号、座位号准确填写在答题卡指定的位置上。 3. 选择题须使用2B铅笔将答题卡相应题号对应选项涂黑，若需改动，须擦净另涂；非选择题在答题卡上对应位置用黑色墨水笔或黑色签字笔书写。在试卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What will the weather be like tomorrow? A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Windy. 2. 此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Who came to China earlier? A. Jack. B. Jack’s dad and mom. C. Jack’s grandparents. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Why is the woman going to Shanghai? A. To have a holiday. B. To visit a friend. C. To work there. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What color is the woman’s bedroom now? A. Grey. B. Blue. C. Yellow. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 How many chairs are there in total? A. 75. B. 110. C. 40. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. Why does Tina say sorry to Tony? A. She has to put off their travel plan. B. She isn’t prepared enough for her test. C. She can’t travel with him as planned. 7. What does Tina want Tony to do? A. Help her with her studies. B. Take a book to her friend Mary. C. Study together at the weekend. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. How will the woman probably get to her branch office? A. By plane. B. By car. C. By train. 9. What does the man suggest doing? A. Checking the Internet. B. Making a phone call. C. Writing an e-mail. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 10. How many showings are there on weekdays? A. 3. B. 4. C. 5. 11. Why can’t the man buy tickets for the 5 pm showing tonight? A. He thinks it is too late. B. A friend of his can’t make it. C. There aren’t enough tickets left. 12. What day is it today? A. Friday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday. 13. Where does the dialogue take place? A. In the school. B. In the cinema. C. In the supermarket. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. Why is the apartment cheaper? A. It isn’t close to the subway. B. It doesn’t have much space. C. It doesn’t have a good view. 15. What is included in the rent? A. Wi-Fi service. B. Electricity. C. Air conditioner. 16. What does the woman want to do next? A. Use the mobile phone. B. Complete the paperwork. C. Find another apartment. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 17. What job does Han Meimei want to apply for? A. A typist. B. A tour guide. C. A secretary. 18. Which language is Han Meimei good at? A. English. B. Japanese. C. French. 19. Which is Han Meimei’s hobby in her spare time? A. Swimming. B. Reading. C. Dancing. 20. Which of the following may best describe Han Meimei? A. Sociable. B. Calm. C. Humorous. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分,满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Young People Take to Gardening In the past, when talking about hobbies, most elderly people would mention gardening. But now, more and more young people are also finding a love for plants. Why do young people keep plants? ·For food Growing herbs and vegetables allows them to have fresh, homegrown produce. This not only helps them save money but also enables them to eat healthily. ·For emotional healing (治疗) In a fast-paced world, caring for plants can reduce stress and bring a sense of calmness. After a long day, tending to plants can be relaxing. ·To decorate their homes Plants add a touch of nature and beauty, making living spaces more attractive. ·To improve air quality Plants take in harmful matters and release oxygen, creating a healthier environment. Where do young people keep plants? ·Balcony ·Living room ·Study room ·Yard What plants do young people like? In today’s society, young people have a variety of preferences when it comes to plants. Ferns are popular for their delicate leaves and add beauty to indoor spaces. Water weeds are favored by some for their uniqueness. Roses, with their fragrance, are always a classic choice. Arrowroot is also liked by those who appreciate its practical uses. Each plant has its own attraction, meeting varied tastes and interests of young people. 21. What is a reason why young people keep plants? A. To reduce their pressure. B. To decorate their offices. C. To sell herbs and vegetables. D. To improve their social skills. 22. Which plant is chosen for its practical uses? A. Ferns. B. Waterweeds. C. Roses. D. Arrowroot. 23. Which section of a newspaper is the text probably from? A. Travel. B. Lifestyle. C. Sports. D. History. B I like playing basketball though I’m not good at it. I’ve had a basketball since I was a child. At first, I could play freely because no one cared when I was just a kid. But as I grew up it seemed harder for me to enjoy basketball. At school, boys always played basketball during PE classes, while girls were only allowed to play volleyball or badminton. My parents prevented me from playing basketball at home. “Basketball is not fit for girls,” they said. When I went to play basketball with my friends, boys stared at me on the court as if I were an alien. I was feeling down and had lost hope of playing basketball. Unexpectedly, something changed on the first day of senior high. I made some friends who also shared the same interest. They encouraged me to get back on the court. One of them told me with a smile, “Just follow your heart!” This girl would always play basketball with me. Even the boy who sat next to me in class passionately chatted with me about how to shoot and how to defend. I was so inspired by them that confidence and passion returned to my heart. Basketball now has become a significant part of my life. I watch matches and enjoy playing almost every day. I have been going all out to play. For me, the sky is limitless. I’ve once heard the NBA star Tracy McGrady say “Nothing is impossible.” I have figured that life is just like playing basketball. You should have an aim. Never give up and you’ll make it sooner or later. 24. What can we know about the author in the first paragraph? A. She was faced with few hard situations. B. She was disqualified for playing sports. C. She had difficulty in playing basketball. D. She was discouraged by others’ opinions. 25. Why did the author’s parents stop her playing basketball at home? A. They disliked playing basketball. B. They worried she would get hurt. C. They wanted her to focus on study. D. They thought it unsuitable for a girl. 26. Which of the following can best describe the author? A. Responsible. B. Determined. C. Careful. D. Generous. 27. What would be the best title for the text? A. Finding True Friendship B. Seeking Your Dream Job C. Following Your Passion D. Strengthening Your Body C If you think English means endless new words, difficult grammar and sometimes strange pronunciation, you are wrong. Haven’t you noticed that you have become smarter since you started to learn a language? According to a new study by a British university, learning a second language can lead to an increase in your brain power. Researchers found that learning other languages changes grey matter (灰质). This is the area of the brain which processes information. It is similar to the way that exercise builds muscles. Researchers studied grey matter of three groups of people. The first group was some Britons who only spoke English. The second group was some “early bilinguals (会说两种语言的人)”. The third group was some later learners. They found that grey matter density (密度) was greater in bilinguals than that in people without a second language. “Our findings suggest that the structure of the brain is changed by the experience of learning a second language,” said the scientists. “Having two languages gives you two windows on the world and makes the brain more flexible (灵活的),” professor Dylan said, “You are actually going beyond language and have a better understanding of different ideas.” The findings were matched in a study of native Italian speakers, who had learned English as a second language between the ages of 2 and 34. The study showed that the earlier they started to learn, the better. “Studying a language means you get an entrance to another world,” explained the scientists. 28. Why does the author mention “exercise” in Paragraph 2? A To discuss its impact. B. To give an explanation. C. To stress its importance. D. To introduce a new topic. 29. How did the researchers carry out their study? A. By chatting with bilinguals. B. By referring to past studies. C. By observing people’s behaviors. D. By comparing grey matter density. 30. What aspect (方面) of bilingualism is talked about in Paragraph 4? A. Its methods. B. Its benefits. C. Its problems. D. Its background. 31. What influences language learning according to Paragraph 5? A. Intelligence. B. Personality. C. Age. D. Nationality. D Traditionally, dining out has been seen as a social activity, and eating alone may be strange for many people. However, in recent years, the shame around eating alone has decreased in countries like the US and Germany. According to OpenTable,a restaurant booking platform, solo (单独的) dining bookings in the US have gone up by 29 percent over the last two years. In Germany, they’ve risen by 18 percent this year and in the UK by 14 percent. The rise of solo dining is due to several reasons, including the growth of single families and the desire for more “me time”. OpenTable CEO Debby Soo told AP that solo dining connects with a broader movement of self-love and enjoying one’s own time. Restaurant critic Jay Rayner shares this view, saying that eating alone in restaurants has gone viral. “In the right situations, it can be one of life’s most wonderful adult pleasures: a great plate of food, a good bottle of wine you don’t have to share or compromise (妥协) on…” he told The Guardian. However, cultural attitudes toward solo dining have divided opinions. In South Korea, for instance, eating alone was once considered socially unacceptable. The country has long stressed the importance of belonging to a social group. As The Straits Times reported, “Eating alone and enjoying me-time go against the rooted group behavior that South Korean people are used to and those who do it may be seen as outsiders.” Curious stares from other diners or embarrassing reactions from staff might cloud the solo dining experience, but the bottom line is that eating alone isn’t sad. As Rayner put it, “When I eat out alone…I’m here to show myself a good time. I’m here for the comfort of my own thoughts. I’m here for some great things to eat and drink. That’s all.” 32. What are the numbers in Paragraph 2 about? A. Table manners. B. Food choices. C. Dining partners. D. Booking restaurants. 33. What do the underlined words “gone viral” mean in Paragraph 4? A. Unfamiliar. B. Popular. C. Strange. D. Unique. 34. What is South Koreans’ attitude towards solo dining? A. Opposed. B. Doubtful. C. Objective. D. Supportive. 35. What’s the text mainly about? A. The change of diets. B. The rise of eating alone. C. The trend of eating out. D. The need for“me time”. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面的短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Find the Best Accommodation (住宿) for Your Travel Journey After booking your holiday flights, the next most important decision to make is where you are going to stay during your vacation. This all depends on your budget (预算), your preferred style and the dates you want to travel. ____36____ Use a trusted booking site. It’s easy to be attracted by what seems like a really great accommodation deal, only to have it can celled at the last minute, without any explanation. By using a trusted booking site, you’ll find competitive rates and customer support. ____37____ No matter where you choose to visit, the location of your accommodation can make a big difference to your stay. Do you want to be within walking distance of major tourist sites? ____38____ Check to see how close the restaurants and public transportation are, so that you don’t have to walk too far. Check the facilities and services. For some people, having a comfortable place to rest their head at the end of the day is all they are looking for in a holiday rental. For others, they want a gym so they never miss a workout or a pool. ____39____ So that they can at least prepare some of their meals. Book early. Typically, the earlier you book, the better the accommodation you will find. As they say, “the early bird catches the worm” and this is true for holiday rentals. ____40____ Therefore, if you leave it to the last minute, you might find yourself with slim pickings. A. Choose proper visiting time. B. Select your location carefully. C. The best places are always booked early. D. Do they have a preference for shopping malls? E. Other travellers have a kitchen on their “must have” list. F. Would you prefer a more “local” food in the countryside? G. Here are some tips for finding a comfortable and convenient place. 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Mike, a British blogger with 400,000 followers, began a journey to Xinjiang with only 400 RMB. Such a trip was filled with joy and ____41____. With ____42____, he walked out of the train station and met a kind woman, who ____43____ him to find the way. At that moment, he felt the local people were ____44____. The first stop was Kashgar. He ____45____ his arms by the roadside, hoping to get into a free car. ____46____, he soon met a nice man, who gave him a ____47____. Talking with the driver, he learned a lot about the local culture. This cross-cultural exchange made him ____48____. Later, he met a Uyghur ____49____. Despite having some trouble communicating with each other, they _____50_____ friendship after sharing food together. Knowing that he was short of money, the boy _____51_____ him some pocket money, which enabled him to _____52_____ his journey. He was deeply moved by the boy’s _____53_____, saying, “The people here are really friendly.” Throughout the travel, Mike not only tasted the _____54_____ food of Xinjiang, but also admired its amazing views. The more he _____55_____ the place, the deeper love he had for it! 41 A. warmth B. secrets C. danger D. tears 42. A. anger B. bitterness C. curiosity D. patience 43. A. asked B. helped C. told D. wanted 44. A. open-minded B. strong-willed C. well-behaved D. kind-hearted 45. A. folded B. waved C. opened D. crossed 46. A. Fortunately B. Obviously C. Sadly D. Unluckily 47. A. hug B. kiss C. ride D. lesson 48. A. impressed B. ashamed C. anxious D. confused 49. A. man B. woman C. boy D. girl 50. A. built B. harmed C. tested D. maintained 51. A. showed B. sent C. awarded D. offered 52. A. end B. start C. change D. continue 53. A. humor B. generosity C. comfort D. bravery 54. A. strange B. stinky C. delicious D. horrible 55. A. ignored B. recorded C. checked D. explored 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Tea is native to China, and Chinese tea culture has a long history. Tea was ____56____ (original) used as a medicine instead of a drink. Shen Nong, ____57____ was a legendary (传说中的) ruler in ancient China, once ____58____ (taste) a lot of plants and discovered the medical effect of the tea. Tea has various health ____59____ (benefit). Many people enjoy drinking it because it has a positive effect ____60____ energy levels. ____61____ (drink) tea improves our immune system and does good to our digestion. Besides, it helps reduce heat inside the body. Some students and office workers drink tea ____62____ (stay) awake and focused. After a long day, a cup of warm tea can help them relax and relieve stress. Tea enjoys great popularity around the world. There ____63____ (be) many sorts of tea, such as green tea, black tea and white tea. Tea is not only a drink, ____64____ also part of life. People feel closer to nature by drinking tea. In tasting tea, people enjoy peace of mind. What’s more, tea is _______65_______ cultural symbol, from which we can have a taste of China. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） 66. 假定你是李华，你的外教Alex对音乐很感兴趣。请用英语给他写一封信，邀请他来参加你们音乐社的迎新春活动，内容包括： 1. 写信目的； 2. 活动时间、地点； 3. 活动内容。 注意： 1. 词数80左右； 2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear Alex, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） 67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 In December 2023, as Nicole drove her family back home to North Dakota after visiting Grandpa in Texas, her son, 9-year-old Bob, was in tears. Why? Well, during the visit, he had fallen in love with a stray (走失的) dog. At first, his mom told him not to touch the dog. But the dog kept coming back. The dog was just so pleasant to Bob that he won the family over. Together, they gave the dog a bath, some food and even a name: Rocky. With each passing day, Bob was getting closer to the dog. However, it was time to say goodbye. Christmas was just around the corner and Bob missed the dog so badly. Little did he know, his grandpa had a plan for Christmas! Wishing to make his grandson happy and give Rocky a forever home, Grandpa made a special delivery — he surprised Bob on Christmas morning by driving Rocky more than 1,200 miles from Texas to North Dakota. Bob was excited to see Rocky again, especially when he learned he could keep Rocky. 注意： 1. 续写词数应为150左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Every day, Bob took good care of Rocky. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Six months later, the owner of Rocky appeared. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 黔南州2024—2025学年度第一学期期末质量监测 高一英语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共8页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前将姓名、准考证号、座位号准确填写在答题卡指定的位置上。 3. 选择题须使用2B铅笔将答题卡相应题号对应选项涂黑，若需改动，须擦净另涂；非选择题在答题卡上对应位置用黑色墨水笔或黑色签字笔书写。在试卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】A 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. C 7. B 【8~9题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. A 【10~13题答案】 【答案】10. B 11. B 12. A 13. B 【14~16题答案】 【答案】14. C 15. C 16. B 【17~20题答案】 【答案】17. C 18. A 19. B 20. A 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分,满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. D 23. B B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. D 25. D 26. B 27. C C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. B 29. D 30. B 31. C D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. D 33. B 34. A 35. B 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面的短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. G 37. B 38. F 39. E 40. C 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【41~55题答案】 【答案】41. A 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. A 49. C 50. A 51. D 52. D 53. B 54. C 55. D 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【56~65题答案】 【答案】56. originally 57. who 58. tasted 59. benefits 60. on##upon 61. Drinking 62. to stay 63. are 64. but 65. a 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） 【66题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Dear Alex, Knowing that you are keen on music, I am writing to invite you to join us in the Spring Festival Celebration of our music club. The activity will be held in the school hall on January 15th, lasting 2 hours. Various performances will be put on, such as singing, dancing and story-telling. Besides, we will have an interactive session themed “Sound of New Year”, during which everyone can passionately sing out their new year wishes. You are warmly welcome to show your talents for music! It is definitely a fantastic opportunity for you to have fun and more than fun. The celebration would be incomplete without your presence Looking forward to your coming. Yours sincerely Li Hua 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） 【67题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Every day, Bob took good care of Rocky. Determined to make Rocky feel at home, Bob fed him, bathed him and petted him. The house witnessed their joyous interactions, with Bob’s laughter lingering in the air. They took long walks together, exploring the neighborhood and discovering the wonders of nature. At night, Bob would gently tuck the dog into its bed, a gesture filled with love and care. Looking after this adorable creature was part of Bob’s daily routine and their bond grew stronger with time going by. Six months later, the owner of Rocky appeared. Explaining the intention of the visit sincerely, the owner thanked Bob’s family and asked for their permission to take Rocky back. While Bob was heartbroken to let go of Rocky, he knew exactly what a dog meant to his owner. Caring for Rocky taught Bob love, patience and responsibility. Undoubtedly, Rocky was not just a pet, but a loyal companion. Though the time they spent together was limited, Bob’s life was enriched by the love of Rocky and together they created lasting memories. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$