云南省云南师范大学附属中学2024-2025学年高二上学期期末英语试题

云南师大附中2026届高二年级上学期教学测评期末卷 英语 注意事项： 1.答题前，考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、考场号、座位号在答题卡上填写清楚。 2.每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。在试题卷上作答无效。 3.考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分) 注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上，听力部分结束前你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What did the woman do yesterday? A. She played football. B. She watched a game. C. She worked in the lab. 2. Where can the woman get the bus information? A. From the apartment. B. From the bus stop. C. From the local library. 3. What are the speakers talking about? A. How to make a paper plane. B. How to recycle rubbish. C. How to book a flight. 4. What are the speakers doing? A. Studying a book. B. Reading a letter. C. Collecting money. 5. What relation is Mr. Gomez to the woman? A. Her teacher. B. Her client. C. Her boss. 第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6. How does the woman suggest the man get home? A. By bus. B. By car. C. By taxi. 7. Where are the speakers? A. At home. B. At a bus station. C. At a restaurant. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8. Where would Phil rather live? A. In the city centre B. In the west suburbs. C. In the east of the city. 9. What do we know about the first flat? A. It's far from the station. B. It's well-equipped. C. It may be noisy. 10. What is a disadvantage of the second flat? A. It's too expensive. B. It lacks a shower. C. It has a small living room. 听下面一段对话，回答第11 至第13 三个小题。 11. What are the speakers discussing? A. A job candidate. B. A new workmate. C. Travel arrangements. 12. How does Steven Johnson impress the woman? A. By his communication skills. B. By his working experiences. C. By his international background. 13. When will the speakers meet Steven Johnson? A. Tomorrow. B. Next week. C. The week after next. 听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。 14. What are the special boards used for? A. Covering buildings. B. Producing energy C. Keeping sunshine out. 15. Where are the gardens? A. In the backyards. B. On the roofs. C. Next to the workstations. 16. What does Molly say about BedZED? A. There's plenty of parking space. B. It is really environment-friendly. C. The public transportation is poor. 听下面一段独白，回答第17 至第20 四个小题。 17. What do people mean by saying they never dream? A. They forget about their dreams. B. They don't want to tell the truth. C. They have important dreams. 18. Why did Tom stop having dreams? A. He got a serious heart attack. B. He was too sad about his brother's death. C. He was frightened by a terrible event. 19. What is the speaker's opinion about dreaming? A. It is very useful. B. It makes things worse. C. It stops the mind from working. 20 What is the function of dreaming according to the speaker? A. To sleep better. B. To recover from illnesses. C. To stay away from their problems. 第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A As cruising (乘船游览) becomes a more attractive vacation option for travelers of all ages, cruise lines are building new (and often massive) vessels with reimagined entertainment, upscale accommodations and impressive culinary offerings. The list includes exciting new ships for adults, younger travelers and multigenerational families looking for their next big cruise vacation. Norwegian Aqua: April 2025 ·Top feature: New Aqua Slidecoaster thrill ride ·Fares begin around: $ 968 per person (double occupancy) for a four-day Bahamas cruise ·Sails to: Caribbean, Mexico, Bermuda, Norwegian’s private islands (Great Stirrup Cay, Bahamas; Harvest Caye, Belize) Norwegian Aqua, set to depart in April 2025, is Norwegian Cruise Line’s first Prima Plus class vessel. The ship measures 156, 300 gross tons and 1, 056 feet long. Aqua accommodates 3.571, guests at double occupancy and 1, 388 crew members. Vikingesta: July 2025 ·Top feature: Larger capacity for 998 guests (double occupancy) ·Fares begin around: $2, 799 per person (double occupancy) for an eight-day Mediterranean sailing ·Sails to: Mediterranean, Northern Europe Viking Vosta will be the line’s second 998-passenger (double occupancy) vessel to join the 12-ship fleet when it sets sail in summer 2025. The 54, 300-gross-ton ship is identical to sister ship Viking Vela and features the adults-only line’s sleek Scandinavian design and all-veranda (全阳台) accommodations. Oceania Allura: July 2025 ·Top feature: New Creperie culinary venue ·Fares begin around: $2, 299 per person (double occupancy) for a seven-day Mexico/Central America cruise ·Sails to: Mediterranean, Mexico, Caribbean, Canada, New England, transoceanic (越洋的) cruises When it launches in summer 2025, Allura— Vista’s sister ship— will be Oceania’s eighth vessel in the fleet. The 1, 200-passenger ship (double occupancy) boasts one chef for every 10 guests; in fact, half of the 800 crew members are dedicated to onboard culinary experiences. 1. Which cruise ship has the largest capacity? A. Viking Vela. B. Norwegian Aqua. C. Viking Vesta. D. Oceania Allura. 2. What do Viking Vesta and Viking Vela have in common? A. They both have a larger capacity for guests. B. They both feature the Scandinavian design. C. They both offer culinary experiences. D. They both sail to the Caribbean. 3. What is the most probable source of this passage? A. A travel guidebook. B. A science magazine. C. A cruise ship advertisement. D. A news report on maritime accidents. B Inspired by Marco Polo, who traveled to China along the ancient Silk Road more than 700 years ago, Italian traveler Vienna-Cammarota set off from the legendary explorer’s hometown Venice on April 26th, 2022, to retrace the route on foot. With a simple backpack and two trekking poles (徒步手杖), 74-year-old Cammarota has covered 20, 000 km and passed through dozens of countries. The moment she set foot in China on August 29th, she was warmly greeted by people who put on traditional dance and singing performances for her arrival via Irkeshtam, the country’s farthest-west land port in Xinjiang Uygur Autonomous Region. Starting from Xinjiang, Cammarota has embarked on a 15-month cultural journey across China and will explore over 30 cities in 17 provinces. Her journey will come to an end in Beijing to mark the 750th anniversary of Marco Polo’s arrival in China. Throughout her trip, Cammarota witnessed the transformation of the ancient Silk road into a corridor of economic and cultural exchange, “I have seen the bridges, highways, and railways built under China’s Belt and Road Initiative which connect countries in a way that echoes the Silk Road’s historical role in facilitating trade and cultural exchange.” Last year, Cammarota reached Tajikistan, where she visited the China-Tajikistan highway project. The infrastructure project, once completed, is expected to enhance regional connectivity and bring new opportunities. “This project embodies the spirit of BRI — bring hope and development to the countries along the path,” she said. For Cammarota, this journey is more than retracing Marco Polo’s footsteps. She hopes her travel will help people in Italy and the West see the true beauty and greatness of China. “This is a land filled with numerous UNESCO heritage sites, cutting-edge technology, and a harmonious balance between urban development and natural preservation,” she said. Describing herself as an ambassador of cultural exchange and mordern-day Marco Polo, Cammarota noted that “I want people to know about Marco Polo and the Silk Road, but I also want to send a message to women of my age — it’s never too late to pursue your dream” 4. What can we learn about Cammarota? A. She fully equipped herself with devices before departure. B. She was impressed by the charm and beauty in China. C. She focused on providing high-quality introduction. D. She spent 15 months travelling from Venice, Italy to Beijing, China. 5. What does the underlined word “echoes” in paragraph 4 probably mean? A. Reflects. B. Cites. C. Anticipates. D. Adapts. 6. Which is NOT the purpose for Cammarota to set about her journey? A. To follow the footsteps of Marco Polo. B. To gain recognition from the public. C. To set a positive example to her peers. D. To bridge the communication between the West and China. 7. Why did Cammarota name herself as an ambassador of cultural exchange? A. Because she is totally qualified for the position. B. Because she has undertaken the task without any hesitation. C. Because she has applied the theory into practice successfully. D. Because she has committed herself to promoting cultural exchange. C In our daily lives, we may encounter situations where someone needs immediate assistance. However, what happens when the victim is responsible for getting into the dangerous situation? Does this change the duty of the rescuer? The duty of rescue can be broadly divided into two categories: natural and artificial. A natural duty arises when a rescuer encounters a victim by chance and has the ability to provide assistance without significant cost to themselves. On the other hand, an artificial duty is created by agreement among participants, such as in a mutual aid framework or an insurance policy that covers the costs of a professional rescue service. When considering the duty of rescue, it is crucial to acknowledge the responsibility of the victim. If the victim is responsible for getting into difficulties, this may affect the rescuer’s obligations in several ways. Firstly, it may reduce the cost that the rescuer is obliged to bear. Secondly, the victim’s responsibility may reduce the force of the duty of rescue. In other words, the rescuer may have stronger reasons to prioritize other duties over the duty of rescue, especially when facing limited resources or choices between different victims. However, it is important to note that the duty of rescue should never be completely negated (否认). Even in cases of carelessness or wrongdoing, the rescuer’s primary aim should be to protect the victim’s life and bodily integrity. In practical terms, acknowledging the victim’s responsibility can just help balance the expected costs of the rescue between the victim and the rescuers more fairly. For example, in the case of a lost hiker who knowingly exposed themselves to risk, volunteers may choose to delay the rescue until morning or charge the victim for the costs involved. Moreover, recognizing the victim’s responsibility can encourage personal accountability and prevent future risks. By making individuals aware of the potential consequences of their actions, we can encourage responsible behavior and reduce the need for rescue in the long run. 8. Which of the following situations may create an artificial duty of rescue? A. A passerby sees a car accident and decides to help. B. A friend offers to help another friend move to a new house. C. A volunteer in a mutual aid agreement assists other members. D. A firefighter responds to a call for assistance in a burning building. 9. What is the primary aim of the rescuer when facing a victim? A. To protect the victim’s safety and health. B. To acknowledge the victim’s responsibility. C. To charge the victim for the costs of the rescue. D. To prioritize other duties over the duty of rescue. 10. What is illustrated by the example of the lost hiker? A. The need for professional rescue services. B. The extra cost of rescue caused by victims. C. The difficulty of balancing duties in emergencies. D. Recognition of victim’s fault for fair rescue cost split. 11. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The artificial and natural duties of rescuers. B. Ways to reduce the need for rescue services. C. The effects of technology on rescue operations. D. The rescuer’s duty and the victim’s responsibility. D Cows love having an open area of grassland to graze on. But in some parts of the world, this is only possible during the summer. In the winter months, it can become too cold for cows to safely stay outside, so they are kept in a large farm building for warmth. Being stuck inside is not always pleasant for the cattle, and their unhappiness is closely connected to less milk production. For this reason, some cattle owners have fitted their cows with VR headsets that run a program specifically. The program simulates grassland in summer and was designed specifically for the way that cows get color and light. According to the National Library of Medicine, cattle see shades of red the easiest but have a hard time distinguishing between blue and green. Reports from a farm in Moscow, Russia — where the VR headsets were first developed by vets — found in 2019 that the cows that used the VR headsets saw a decrease in anxiety and an improved mood. This led to an increase in milk production; which went from 5.8 gallons to 7 gallons a day. Cattle owner Izzet Kocak from Aksaray, Turkey, heard about this experiment and tried the VR headsets on his cows in December 2021. When Kocak put the headsets on his cows, he found an improvement in the emotional well-being of his animals. “They are watching an area of grassland, and it gives them an emotional boost. They are less stressed,” he said. The technology is now being passed around the world. According to the BBC, the headsets were made specifically for the “structural features of cow heads” by vets, and the animals were shown a “unique summer field simulation program”. The familiar sight of an area of grassland is enough to improve the mood of the entire herd. Ministry of Agriculture of the Russian Federation says that research has shown a link between a cow’s emotional state and its milk production. They stated, “Examples of dairy farms from different countries show that in a calm atmosphere, the quantity of milk increases markedly.” 12. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The cows can produce milk normally in the winter. B. The cows prefer to live in a misty environment. C. The VR headsets operate a unique program. D. The VR headsets only display three colors. 13. What’s the result of cows’ wearing the VR headsets? A. They could distinguish between blue and green. B. Their milk production rose accordingly. C. Their physical health improved greatly. D. They could adapt to winter easily. 14. What concept is behind the VR headset program? A. High tech is necessary in the dairy field. B. A silent environment helps cows stay healthy. C. Natural grassland is better for the milk quality. D. A cow with good moods can produce more milk. 15. Which can be the best title for this passage? A. Keeping cows inside benefits a lot. B. VR headsets boost milk production. C. VR technology sees farming development. D. Depressed emotion affects the quality of milk. 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Before 2022, there was barely a whisper about it. ___16___ A quick TikTok search, for instance, finds that videos related to “food noise explained” attracted 1.8 billion views as of this summer. “Food noise”, which sounds negative, actually describes some of the most basic human drives: hunger, appetite, longing. But now these are being seen as problems, rather, than features. ___17___ To call something noise is to go beyond describing it: It’s to prove that simply loving food, letting food occupy our thoughts and responding to our hunger is questionable. But it isn’t. ___18___ , Food connects us to ourselves, and with each other, and there is real harm in teaching people to view the pleasure they take such far e as a problem. English food writer Nigella Lawson wrote in a post that she “couldn’t bear to live without food noise.” One commenter responded in a agreement “I believe it is called ‘food music.’” Some people who agree with the term “food noise” experience intense food thoughts, as well as engaging in harmful behaviors such as bingeing (大吃大喝) ___19___ In other words, food noise is what may happen when you’re not eating enough to satisfy your appetite, often under the pressure of diet-culture. As for any of us, the joy and pleasure of food should not be discounted. We need to eat to live, of course, but it goes beyond that, to live to eat has long given many of us meaning. Food noise should not be treated as a problem. ___20___ A. We should resist this definition. B. They avoid responsible thoughts on food. C. “Food noise” was invented by social media users. D. Rather, we might call it “food music”, and dance to it. E. The pleasure we take from food is an important human good. F. But according to the experts, these problems are often rooted in restriction. G. Now the concept of “food noise” seems to be everywhere on social media. 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 In March 2010, photographer Martin Bond decided to take a picture of his hometown every day. ___21___ “A Cambridge Diary”, the project included subjects such as dancers, birds and even King Charles. Bond tells The Guardian’s Donna Ferguson he wanted to showcase ___22___ in Cambridge, England, which often go ___23___ by tourists, while reawakening the love locals feel for the city. “The ___24___ of photographing everyday moments reminds us that we’re human. There’s a connectedness that we sometimes are not ___25___” he adds. Now, 5,000 photos and 13 years later, Bond has decided to conclude the project. The final image, which he shared on social media, ___26___ a full moon. “The full moon symbolizes a moment of release and completion and a time to sit in the fullness of life and feel ___27___ for my blessings,” Bond writes on Twitter. In the post he thanked those who have followed his ___28___ adding that he will continue sharing photos, although not daily, as the project ___29___ him psychologically and emotionally. Originally shared through a Facebook page, the diary ____30____ has garnered (获得) over 100,000 followers across multiple platforms. Although “A Cambridge Diary” has ____31____, Bond continues to create. According to The Guardian, Bond eventually ____32____ to review about 25,000 photos taken since 2010, which he will use to create two additional ____33____. Reflecting on his work, he is struck by how many meanings can be assigned to a single image. As he writes on his website, “The best thing about street photography is that it is possible for the final viewers of a picture to see more than the ____34____ photographer. It serves as ____35____ that there is more going on in any moment than a single person can understand.” 21. A. Given B. Recalled C. Titled D. Linked 22. A. scenes B. legends C. chapters D. events 23. A. unaccepted B. unnoticed C. unconcerned D. unadjusted 24. A. condition B. trick C. coherence D. power 25. A. capable of B. aware of C. involved in D. equipped with 26. A. features B. appears C. appreciates D. imitates 27. A. sympathetic B. faithful C. merciful D. grateful 28. A. ride B. flight C. journey D. voyage 29. A. conveys B. feeds C. shows D. teaches 30. A. currently B. finally C. previously D. initially 31. A. come into power B. come to life C. come to an end D. come into being 32. A. refuses B. exposes C. agrees D. intends 33. A. operations B. collections C. applications D. associations 34. A. original B. exceptional C. ideal D. gifted 35. A. setting B. pattern C. proof D. result 第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Scientists at Chicago’s Field Museum of Natural History have studied the wrappings of ancient Egyptian mummified human remains ___36___ (uncover) new details about their identities and how they were prepared for the afterlife. In September, staff members rolled 26 of the mummies on display at the museum on specially ___37___ (build) carts to the parking lot to be put through a mobile CT scanner. The nondestructive technology resulted ___38___ thousands of X-rays of the mummies and their coffins. The new ___39___ (insight) are helping to cast light on ___40___ they thought was important to carry into the afterlife. ___41___ the scans took about four days to complete, the processing and analysis of the 3D images may take up to three years, a researcher said. In addition to ___42___ (provide) insights about the best methods to preserve the mummies for generations, the scans also offer a chance to understand the individuality and ___43___ (person) details of each mummified Egyptian in a respectful way. “From an archaeological (考古的) perspective, it is ___44___ (incredible) rare that you get to investigate history from the perspective of an individual,” said Stacy Drake, human remains collections manager at the Field Museum. “This is a really great way for us to look at who these people ____45____ (be) — not just the stuff that they made, but the actual individuals that were living at ancient time.” 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (满分15分) 46. 假设你是李华，一名高二学生，计划申请一项英国某大学的文化交流项目。请向对方学校提交一封申请信，内容包括： 1.自我介绍； 2.申请原因； 3.预期收获。 注意： 1.词数80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 参考词汇：文化交流项目 Cultural Exchange Program Dear Admissions Officer, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 (满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 One afternoon, Debbie was relaxing at home when the doorbell rang unexpectedly. Standing at the doer was 16-year-old Amy from next door, looking very pale and worried. “Help! My brother Dylan is bleeding!” she cried. Debbie followed Amy to her house, where 8-year-al d Dylan was sitting on the floor, holding his arm tightly, with blood pouring through his fingers. A piece of glass was on the ground nearby, and a broken hole in the glass door showed what had happened. Dylan had been running indoors and fell, accidentally putting his arm through the door. Amy, visibly shaken, said in a trembling voice that their mum had just gone out to the store, leaving her in charge. Though frightened herself, Debbie took control of the situation. She had recently taken a first aid course and remembered the importance of applying pressure to stop bleeding. “Amy, grab a towel!” she instructed while rushing to Dylan’s side. Debbie pressed the towel firmly on the wound, trying to stop the blood flow, and spoke gently to. Dylan to calm him down. “You’re doing great,” she said to comfort him, even though her hands-were shaking. Dvlan, looking pale and scared, cried softly but nodded at her words. Meanwhile, Amy called for an ambulance, describing Dylan’s condıtion and their address with as much calm as she could-manage. Just then, Dylan’s mum returned, horrified-to find her son injured. Dropping her shopping bags, she rushed to his side, her voice breaking as she asked what had happened. Debbie quickly explained and encouraged her to help applying pressure to the wound while they waited for the paramedics. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150左右; 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Debbie’s heart raced as she tried to keep the pressure steady, watching the towel turn red with Dylan’s blood. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ A few weeks later, Dylan’s mum brought Debbie a bouquet of flowers, showing her gratitude. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 云南师大附中2026届高二年级上学期教学测评期末卷 英语 注意事项： 1.答题前，考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、考场号、座位号在答题卡上填写清楚。 2.每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。在试题卷上作答无效。 3.考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分) 注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上，听力部分结束前你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What did the woman do yesterday? A. She played football. B. She watched a game. C. She worked in the lab. 2. Where can the woman get the bus information? A. From the apartment. B. From the bus stop. C. From the local library. 3. What are the speakers talking about? A. How to make a paper plane. B. How to recycle rubbish. C. How to book a flight. 4. What are the speakers doing? A. Studying a book. B. Reading a letter. C. Collecting money. 5. What relation is Mr. Gomez to the woman? A. Her teacher. B. Her client. C. Her boss. 第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6. How does the woman suggest the man get home? A. By bus. B. By car. C. By taxi. 7. Where are the speakers? A. At home. B. At a bus station. C. At a restaurant. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8. Where would Phil rather live? A. In the city centre B. In the west suburbs. C. In the east of the city. 9. What do we know about the first flat? A. It's far from the station. B. It's well-equipped. C. It may be noisy. 10. What is a disadvantage of the second flat? A. It's too expensive. B. It lacks a shower. C. It has a small living room. 听下面一段对话，回答第11 至第13 三个小题。 11. What are the speakers discussing? A. A job candidate. B. A new workmate. C. Travel arrangements. 12. How does Steven Johnson impress the woman? A. By his communication skills. B. By his working experiences. C. By his international background. 13. When will the speakers meet Steven Johnson? A. Tomorrow. B. Next week. C. The week after next. 听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。 14. What are the special boards used for? A. Covering buildings. B. Producing energy C. Keeping sunshine out. 15. Where are the gardens? A. In the backyards. B. On the roofs. C. Next to the workstations. 16. What does Molly say about BedZED? A. There's plenty of parking space. B. It is really environment-friendly. C. The public transportation is poor. 听下面一段独白，回答第17 至第20 四个小题。 17. What do people mean by saying they never dream? A. They forget about their dreams. B. They don't want to tell the truth. C. They have important dreams. 18. Why did Tom stop having dreams? A. He got a serious heart attack. B. He was too sad about his brother's death. C. He was frightened by a terrible event. 19. What is the speaker's opinion about dreaming? A. It is very useful. B. It makes things worse. C. It stops the mind from working. 20 What is the function of dreaming according to the speaker? A. To sleep better. B. To recover from illnesses. C. To stay away from their problems. 第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. B 3. C B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. A 6. B 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. A 10. D 11. D D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. C 13. B 14. D 15. B 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. G 17. A 18. E 19. F 20. D 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. C 第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. to uncover 37. built 38. in 39. insights 40. what 41. Although##Though##While 42. providing 43. personal 44. incredibly 45. were 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】 Dear Admissions Officer, My name is Li Hua, a second-year high school student from China, and I am writing to apply for your esteemed university’s Cultural Exchange Program. I am deeply passionate about British culture and history, and I believe that participating in this program will broaden my horizons and enhance my understanding of different cultural perspectives. Additionally, I am eager to improve my English language skills through immersion in an English-speaking environment. I am confident that this experience will not only enrich my academic journey but also prepare me for future global opportunities. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 (满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】 Debbie’s heart raced as she tried to keep the pressure steady, watching the towel turn red with Dylan’s blood. She continued to talk to Dylan softly, keeping him as calm as possible. Eventually, the paramedics arrived, their presence bringing a sense of relief. They quickly assessed Dylan’s condition and skillfully bandaged his wound before transporting him to the hospital for further care. Debbie and Amy stood back, feeling both exhausted and relieved as they watched the ambulance drive away. Dylan’s mum, her eyes filled with gratitude, hugged Debbie tightly. “Thank you,” she whispered, her voice choked with emotion. A few weeks later, Dylan’s mum brought Debbie a bouquet of flowers, showing her gratitude. She smiled warmly and said, “Debbie, you saved Dylan’s life that day. I can’t thank you enough.” Debbie blushed and replied modestly, “I’m just glad I could help.” On top of the flowers, Dylan’s mum gifted Debbie a card signed by Dylan himself with a message saying, “You’re my hero.” This touching moment reminded Debbie of the importance of knowing first aid and reinforced her confidence in handling emergencies. The bond between the neighbors deepened, knowing they could count on each other in times of need. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $