内容正文:
2024-2025学年度第一学期期末质量监测学校: 班级:_____________姓名:_______________ 准考证号:_______________
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七 年级 英语 科试题
(温馨提示:本卷满分 120 分,考试时间 90 分钟,请将答案写在答题卡上)
(考试时间:90分钟 满分:120分)
注意事项:
1.本试卷分听力、语言知识运用、阅读理解和书面表达四部分。
2.选择题用2B 铅笔填涂,其他题目答案用黑色笔填写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
Ⅰ. 听句子选图画(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
看图听句子,选出与句子意思一致的图画,每个句子读一遍。
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Ⅱ. 听句子选答语(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
根据你所听到的句子,选出正确的答语。每个句子读两遍。
6.A. Yes, I do. B. It’s easy. C. No,you can’t.
7.A. Yes, I like it. B. No,he’s reading. C. See you.
8.A. It’s cold. B. Good morning. C. OK.
9.A. Yes, he is. B. Fifteen. C. You’re welcome.
10.A. No, he isn’t. B. This is my father. C. A teacher.
Ⅲ. 对话理解(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
根据你所听到的对话内容,选出能回答所提问题的最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话,回答第11和第12小题。
11.When is Mike’s birthday?
A.In August. B.In September. C.In October.
12.What do they want to buy for Mike?
A.A pen. B.A book. C.A dictionary.
听第二段对话,回答第13至第15小题。
13.What does Alan think of history?
A.Boring. B.Difficult. C.Interesting.
14.Who is Alan’s art teacher?
A.Ms. Miller. B.Ms. Brown. C.Ms. White.
15.When is Alan’s art class?
A.On Wednesday. B.On Thursday. C.On Friday.
Ⅳ. 短文理解(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
根据你所听到的短文内容,选出最佳选项。短文读两遍。
16.What color is the bag?
A.Blue. B.Green. C.White.
17.What’s in the bag?
A.A green jacket and a blue watch.
B.A blue jacket and a purple watch.
C.A purple jacket and a blue watch.
18.What is Ruby’s telephone number?
A.It’s 678-5770. B.It’s 678-5771. C.It’s 678-5772.
19.Where are Carla and Ruby now?
A.In Classroom 5E. B.In the school library. C.In the computer room.
20.What is Carla talking about?
A.Her picture. B.A lost bag. C.Her bag.
第二部分 语言知识运用(共两大题,满分25分)
第一节 单项选择(共10题, 每题1分,满分10分)
从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. Which of the following underlined letters make a different sound?
A. now B. know C. down
22. Which word has the sound of /ʌ /?
A.use B.rule C.cup
23. —Do you like playing basketball?
—No,it's boring. my brother likes it.
A.the; But B./;And C./;But
24.Betty is my cousin. She is my uncle’s_________.
A.son B.daughter C.sister
25. Ms.Li is very old and she is . 学校: 班级:_____________姓名:_______________ 准考证号:_______________
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A.eight B.eighteen C.eighty
26. Eating too much at night is easy to get and it’s bad for our body.
A.healthy B.funny C.fat
27. —Mum,what is your favorite .
—Water.We should drink it everyday.
A.drink B.vegetable C.fruit
28. —Kate,would you like to go to nature park with me? We can birds.
—Sorry, I can’t . I must do my homework and read some books.
A.look B.see C.watch
29. —What’s your favorite day,Tom?
— ,because the next day is Saturday.
A.Tuesday B.Sunday C.Friday
30.Look at the sign near the river.It says .
A.Don’t swim in the river.It’s dangerous.
B.Let’s swim in the river.
C.Don’t boat in the river.
第二节 完形填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。
Jack likes his school very much. His school is very big and he likes his classroom. The 31 and chairs are new. There are lots of pictures on the wall. To keep the classroom tidy , they should 32 the classroom every day.
The teachers are nice and the students are friendly. He loves 33 because he can create (创造) a colorful world on the paper. He also loves 34 . He is good at playing football. He often plays it 35 his friends after school. He is in the school 36 team. He says he has a good time at school.
Jack doesn’t go to school on Saturdays and on Sundays. He gets up 37 six on Saturday. He goes jogging in the park for half 38 hour. Then he eats his 39 . After that, he helps his mother with housework. At eight he begins to do his homework. He has lunch in a fast food restaurant. In the afternoon, he goes shopping with Mum. Sometimes he plays computer games or chats with his friends on the Internet in the
afternoon. He goes to bed at 8:00 P.M. He enjoys his weekend 40 .
31. A. schoolbags B. pencils C. desks
32. A. clean B. live C. like
33. A. drawing B. swimming C. reading
34. A. hobbies B. sports C. animals
35. A. and B. with C. for
36. A. basketball B. volleyball C. football
37. A.in B.on C.at
38. A. a B. an C.the
39. A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner
40. A. a lot of B. a lot C.every much
第三部分 阅读理解(共三节,满分55分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
阅读下列三篇材料,根据材料的内容,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳选项。
A
根据材料内容选择佳答案。
41. What should you do in the morning?
A. Drink 3 liters of water. B. Eat a lot of food. C. Wake up early.
42. You should ______ every 30 minutes.
A. drink some water B. enjoy the morning sun C. get away from the computer
43. What’s the meaning of the underlined word “nap”?
A.淋浴 B. 小睡;打盹 C. 锻炼
44. Before you go to sleep, it is good to ______.
A. read books B. play with your phone C. drink some water
45. What time should you go to bed at night?
A. By 9:00. B. By 10:00. C. By 11:00.
B学校: 班级:______________姓名:_______________ 准考证号:_______________
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Do you like playing soccer? If you do, you may want to join the school soccer club. Read on and see how to join the school soccer club.
The first step (步骤) is to know the information about the club. You can find more information by asking these questions. How many students are there in the soccer club? How many new members do they need ? How often do they play soccer?
The second step is to practice (练习). Practice soccer with your friends or your family. Only good players can join the school soccer club. So you need to practice your skill.
The third step is to study hard. If you always get bad grades in the exams, your teachers and parents don’t let you join the soccer club.
The last step is to relax. Don’t be too nervous . You can take a deep breath and keep happy. Believe in yourself and you can be the best one.
46. There are _____ steps for you to join the school soccer club.
A.three B. four C. five
47. Which is NOT the suitable (合适的) question according to the second paragragh (段落)?
A.How many new members do they need?
B.Can I join the soccer club?
C.How many students are there in the soccer club?
48. Which step is about studying hard?
A.The first step. B. The second step. C.The third step.
49. If you always get bad grades in the exam,_____ don’t you join the soccer club.
A.your teachers and parents B.your teachers and friends C.your teachers and classmates
50. What’s the main idea of the passage?
A.It’s about how to join the school soccer club.
B.It’s about how to be a good soccer player.
C.It’s about how to make more friends at school.
C
Today is Saturday. It is Jim’s birthday. He is ten years old now. Many friends come to his birthday party. They sing songs, play games and share the birthday cake in the afternoon. In the evening, Jim watches TV with his parents in the living room. Two hours later, his mother says, “It’s time to go to bed. It’s ten to nine now.”
“But why don’t you go to bed?” Jim asks. “We are adults (成年人). Adults go to bed late, ” says his mother.
Jim doesn’t want to go to bed. He asks his mother to give him a cake. It is too late, so his mother doesn’t want him to eat it. She says, “The cakes all go to bed.”
“But not all of them, Mom,” Jim says. “The small cakes go to bed, but their parents don’t go to sleep. They are awake. They are adults and they can go to bed late. Am I right?”
Jim’s mother can’t reply (回答). Finally, she gives Jim a piece of cake. She learns a lot from this thing: if (如果) we want others to do something, we should do it first.
51. Jim ________ with his parents in the evening.
A.plays games B. listens to music C. watches TV
52. Jim’s mother doesn’t want him to eat a cake because ________.
A. it is too late B. the cakes all go to bed C. it is not healthy
53. The underlined word “awake” means ________ in Chinese.
A. 生气的 B. 醒着的 C. 睡着的
54. Jim finally gets ________.
A. a piece of cake B. a postcard C.a T-shirt
55. What can we learn from this passage?
A. We can learn how to have a birthday party.
B. We can learn when to go to bed.
C. If we want others to do something, we should do it first.
第二节 短文还原 (共5小题; 每小题2分,满分 10 分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Everyone needs friends. Friends are people you know and like. 56
Say hello!
Introduce (介绍) yourself to someone new. See if he or she would like to be friends. Ask questions like “ 57 ”, “Where are you from?” to know them.
58
Some like playing basketball. Some like reading books. What is your favorite thing to do? Do it with a friend.
Help each other.
Ask how a friend is feeling. If your friend is sad, try to make him happy. You can teach friends something they do not know. 59
Can be different.
Friends can be different. You can be older. Your friends can be younger. You can like singing. 60 You can like different things. What are your friends like?
A. Your friends can like dancing.
B. You should do everything for your friends.
C. Ask them for help when you need it.
D. What’s your name?
E. Let’s learn how to make friends.
F. Have fun with your friends.
第三节 任务型阅读 (共8小题,61-65每小题1分,66、67每小题2分,68题6分,满分15分)学校: 班级:______________姓名:_______________ 准考证号:_______________
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Do you know the name of Zhong Nanshan? Here is something about him.
Children call him Grandpa Zhong Nanshan. He helps Chinese fight against illness (抗击疫病). He tells people to wear masks (口罩) to go out. He is a doctor. He is from Nanjing and he works in Guangzhou. His parents are doctors, too. He loves his job and he likes playing sports. He is over 80 years old, but his body is strong. On August 11, 2020 he won (获得) the Medal of the Republic (共和国勋章). He is the hero of China.
Task I Finish the chart according to the article. Fill in each blank with one word .
(根据语篇填词,每空一词,每词1分,共5分)
Zhong Nanshan
He loves sports and he is very ___65____.
He help __64__
people to fight again illness.
He tells people to ___63___ masks.
He is over 80 years old and still works in ____62____.
He was born in Nanjing . He is a ___61____ .
Task Ⅱ:Answer the following questions. (回答问题,66、67题每题2分,68题6分,共10分)
66. Where does Zhong Nanshan come from?
_____________________________________________________________________
67.What did he win On August 11, 2020?
_____________________________________________________________________
68. What do you think of Grandpa Zhong Nanshan? Explain your reasons in about 20 words.
(你认为钟南山爷爷是一个怎样的人?请用大约20个词陈述你的理由)(本小题6分)
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写作 (20分)
假如你是腾飞,你校正在举办以“我爱我家”为主题的交流活动。请你根据以下提示,写一篇短文参与交流,60词左右 (开头已给出,不计入总词数)。
提示:eating habits (饮食习惯);have...for breakfast ;
1.介绍你家的人口与成员;
2.简述家人的运动与饮食习惯;
3.表达你对家人的爱。
Hello, everyone! I’m Teng Fei. I’m happy to join you to talk about my family.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
2024-2025学年度第一学期期末质量监测
七年级英语科试题参考答案
第一部分:听力( 满分 20 分)
1- 5 ECDBA 6 - 10 ABCBC
11 - 15 CBBAC 16-20 CBCAB
第二部分:语言知识运用( 共两大题,满分 30 分第一节 单项选择( 共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10分)
21-25 BCCBC 2 6-30 CACA
第二节 完形填空( 共 10 小题,每小题 1 . 5 分,满分 15 分)
31-35 CAABB 36-40 CCBAB
第三部分:阅读理解( 共两大题,满分 55分) 第一节 阅读理解( 共 15 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 30 分)
41-45 CCBAB 46-50 BBCAA 51 -56 CABAC
第二节 短文还原( 共 5 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
56--60 EDFCA
第三节 任务型读写( 共 15 分)
Task I 填词
61. doctor 62 . Guangzhou 63 . wear 64.Chinese 65. healthy/strong
Task II( 回答问题,66 、67题每题 2 分,68 题 6 分,共10 分)
66 . From Nanjing./ He is from Nanjing./He comes from Nanjing.
67 . The Medal of the Republic . / He won the Medal of the Republic .
68 . (6分)( 仅供参考)I think he is great/helpful . Because he won the Medal of the Republic . He is the hero of China.
注:拼写及语法错误一次扣 0 . 5 分。
小题表达观点2 分,所想到的词不限词性 。如有学生用短语或句子正确表达观点也可得 2 分。 说明的理由表达清晰无误 4 分 。说明的理由字数大约在 15 词左右,需和前面表达的观点符合逻辑 。拼写及语法错误一次扣 0 . 5 分,同一错误不重复扣分,合计最多扣 1 分。
第四部分:书面表达(20 分)
( 一)评分原则
1 . 先采意定档,后采点给分。
2 . 使用较复杂的句子结构或高级词汇,根据所给信息或文章内容进行适当的拓展的,该作文可适 当在同一文档中取较高分值。
( 二)评分标准
第五档( 优)17--20分
很好地完成了规定的写作任务,内容涵盖完整并有拓展,语言流畅,句式多样,文章结构清 晰,衔接自然,语法正确,词汇丰富,书写规范( 如大小写、拼写、标点符号等)。如有极个别非关键 的单词错误( 如名词单复数、冠词、大小写、拼写等错误),视数量扣分。
第四档( 良)13 - 16 分
较好地完成了规定的写作任务,文章结构清晰,格式正确,书写较为规范( 如大小写、拼写、标 点符号等)。内容完整,已合理补充活动的最后一项 。但句式单一或有少量语言错误。
第三档( 中)9 - 12 分
能使用合理的人称、正确的时态,所表达的内容基本完整,能够形成可读性的句子,基本能传 递信息,有一定的可读性,但逻辑性不强,语句欠通顺,有较多的语言错误。
第二档( 差)5 - 8 分
能正确抄写所有提示内容,文章内容残缺不全,只有个别句子有可读性,有很多语言错误,句 子成碎片化堆砌,格式不够正确,书写欠规范。
第一档( 极差)0 - 4 分
能抄写提示内容;内容严重残缺不全,基本没有传递语言信息的句子 。表达错误很多,书写极不规范。
七年级英语科试题 第 页 共4页 1
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