安徽省合肥市包河区合肥市第一中学2024-2025学年高一上学期1月期末英语试题

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2025-01-26
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2024~2025学年度高一年级上学期期末测试 英语试题 (考试时间:120分钟 满分:150分) 注意事项: 1. 答题前,务必在答题卡和答题卷规定的地方填写自己的姓名、准考证号和座位号后两位。 2. 答题时,每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。 3. 答题时,必须使用0. 5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔在答题卷上书写,要求字体工整、笔迹清晰。作图题可先用铅笔在答题卷规定的位置绘出,确认后再用 0. 5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔描清楚。必须在题号所指示的答题区域作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在试题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 4. 考试结束,务必将答题卡和答题卷一并上交。 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分,满分7. 5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Doctor and patient. B. Husband and wife. C. Parent and child. 2. What is the weather like now? A. Rainy. B. Snowy. C. Sunny. 3. What is John doing now? A. Playing football. B. Watching TV. C. Doing revision. 4. When will the next bus leave? A. At 9: 30. B. At 9: 35. C. At 10: 00. 5. Where does the woman plan to take her holiday this year? A. In Canada. B. In Turkey. C. In Italy. 第二节(共15小题;每小题 1分,满分 15分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. Why is the blouse so expensive? A. It’s from China. B. It’s made of silk. C. It looks nice. 7. How much will the woman pay in total? A. 150 dollars. B. 240 dollars. C. 300 dollars. 听第7段材料,回答第 8至10题。 8. What is the man planning to buy? A. A garden. B. A house. C. A farm. 9. What do we know about the house? A. It is large. B. It needs fixing. C. It has one bedroom. 10. What does the man suggest growing? A. Corn. B. Rice. C. Potatoes. 听第8段材料,回答第 11至13题。 11. When did the man begin his first horse riding lesson? A. Yesterday. B. Last week. C. A month ago. 12. What did the man think of his first horse riding lesson? A. Boring. B. Difficult. C. Interesting. 13. What did the woman say about her teacher? A. She was a good teacher. B. She was an excellent rider. C. She was a humorous person. 听第9段材料,回答第 14至16题。 14. Why does the woman go to England today? A. To visit a friend. B. To go shopping. C. To do business. 15. What kind of tickets will the woman buy? A. Single ones. B. First-class ones. C. Weekly return ones. 16. When will the return flight leave? A. At 8: 15 am. B. At 6: 50 pm. C. At 9: 30 pm. 听第10段材料,回答第 17至20题。 17. How long will it take to get to the museum? A. About 20 minutes. B. About 30 minutes. C. About 50 minutes. 18. What is special about the trip for the students? A. They can pick up ancient pots to study. B. They can take old rings out of the glass case. C. They’ll take a related test when back at school. 19. How do the students find information in the Technology Center? A By using iPads. B. By using computers. C. By asking Jane Witton. 20. What does the speaker want the students to do after the trip? A. Make postcards. B. Draw posters. C. Give reports. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分,满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。 A Celebrating the arrival of new year is a tradition almost people around the world do every year. Here are some interesting customs in different places. New York, U. S. A Most of New Yorkers spend the final seconds of each calendar year watching a nearly 12,000-pound geodesic sphere (Times Square Ball) descend over Times Square in New York City. Close to 60,000 spectators gather to see the ball drop in person, but if being one of them is on your bucket list, be forewarned: There are no bathrooms, and to get a good view, you’ll likely need to get your spot (and start holding it) around 3 p. m. Scotland, U. K The Scots stretch New Year’s Eve into a three-day celebration starting with a parade through Edinburgh on Dec. 30, followed by a housecleaning. Then, during “first footing”, friends and family visit each other after midnight to become the first to set foot in each other’s homes. For good luck, the first visitor should be a tall, dark-haired male (a contrast to the blond Viking invaders of Scotland’s past), with shortbread, whisky and a lump of coal. Greece Greeks mash pomegranates (石榴), which symbolize renewal in their culture, for New Year’s. Another tradition is waking up children on Jan. 1 by tapping them on the head with onion, which represents growth and good health. Brazil Brazilians run into the ocean at midnight and jump over seven waves, each symbolizing a different wish for the year ahead. Water temperatures at that time of year average a balmy 75 degrees Fahrenheit, whereas those who brave the “polar bear plunge” on New Year’s Day in the U. S. and Canada are in for a much chillier dip. But their hearts are in the right place: It raises money for charity. 1. In order to attend the ceremony in New York Times Square, you need to ________? A. grab your spot in person about 9 hours earlier. B. buy a ticket on the spot. C. reserve your spot in advance. D. book a bathroom the day before 2. Why do Scots hope it would be better if the first visitor is a dark-haired male? A. Scots like tall male Chinese. B. Dark color means good luck in Scotland. C. The invasion from blond Vikings in the past leads to this custom. D. A dark-haired man will bring them shortbread, whisky and coal as presents. 3. As for the New Year custom in Greece and Brazil, which one is correct? A. Greeks use pomegranates to wish they will have more children. B. Greeks think onion will not grow unless it touches children’s head. C. Brazillians run into the ocean at midnight to raise money. D Brazillians may have 7 different wishes by jumping over 7 waves. B In August 2020, a doctor told me that I have an anxiety disorder. But she didn’t seem too worried, so neither was I. I left with a sense of relief at having the great mystery of my mental health revealed, without the need for medication. For the next nine months, I went on with my job and in a relationship that left me an anxious, isolated mess. I couldn’t sleep, and I wasn’t eating. The anxiety that ruled my life meant I couldn’t switch off. I felt alone in my misery. By May 2021, my family decided it was time to take me away from London for a week of fishing in northeast Scotland. This meant days of tangled lines, grey skies, wind, rain and mud. For years, they had dragged me along on fishing trips until I was old enough to resist. Fishing always felt like failure to me because I just couldn’t do it. I wanted to be inside, reading a book, curled up on the sofa, rather than out in the cold and wet. But this time was different. I found myself immersed in the gentle rhythm of casting the line and watching the fly move through the forest to different pools, a cup of coffee here and there, breaking for lunch with my family to enjoy the morning and being outside, willing the days to last longer. On that final morning, after a week of fishing, I finally caught my first salmon(鲑鱼). I found myself close to tears. Catching that fish made me realize I had control over the way I felt. I have something now that gives me hope when life is at its most unbearable. I still go fishing to this day. I also read, write, run, cook, swim, talk and laugh--but fishing is the thing that absorbs me most completely. In searching for silence, fishing is my complete companion. 4. Why did the author continue to work after he was told he had anxiety disorder? A. The doctor’s words made him relieved. B. He felt he had a lot of work to do. C. The author was used to staying up late. D. The author didn’t take his illness seriously. 5. Why didn’t the author resist his family dragging him to go fishing this time? A. He couldn’t switch off his work. B. He was trapped in his illness. C. He hoped to go fishing with his family. D. He didn’t think that fishing was a failure. 6. Why did the author hope the days would last longer? A. He believed that he would catch his first fish. B. The slow pace of life in Scotland healed his anxiety. C. He began to appreciate the peaceful scenery in Scotland. D. He realized the importance of company from his family. 7. What does the author imply in the last two paragraphs? A. He needs some silence and stillness in his life. B. A person needs motivation from a success. C. Only fishing can attract him completely. D. He enjoys being silent and lonely. C Many young people boast of having “Brain Rot” nowadays on various social media platforms. Brain rot has its own vocabulary that includes internet slang like “skibidi toilet” and viral video, such as an old clip of Barron Trump saying “I like my suitcase!” mixed with synth-heavy club music. Gen Z and Gen Alpha, who grew up with smartphones and social media, are the primary audience for this content and have popularized the term. Emilie Owens, a doctoral researcher in the University of Oslo, surveyed some high school students about their online consumption habits and attitudes. She found that the teenagers described ridiculous videos on TikTok as “brain rot.” “It’s not like they were discussing a serious condition,” Owens said. “They were using it in a positive way to refer to the stuff they liked to watch, or a language they use to watch TikTok together.” It’s almost a mark of pride, she said, certifying you as a card-carrying member of a certain generation, or at least clued into their inside joke. “Each generation use their own version of brain rot to do the same thing,” Owens said. “If you have a really stressful job and you had a horrible week, you probably really look forward to going home and spending a Saturday on the sofa watching all of ‘Friends’ again, or episodes of ‘Desperate Housewives’.” The phrase brain rot can cause concern and panic about young people and their screen time. But social media users say it implies a certain degree of self-awareness — knowing that you have consumed so much online content that you can understand even the most proper references and jokes. “I think there’s big stigma around content consumption in general, and people think that it’s making us less intelligent,” said Krissy Ryan, 34, a content creator in Jacksonville, Fla, who runs more than 20 meme pages across platforms like Facebook and Threads. “But I don’t think it is. We know that the content is stupid at the end of the day. ” 8. What can you learn about “brain rot” according to the first two paragraphs? A. Brain rot has its own textbooks. B. Brain rot originates from Baron Trump. C. Brain rot offers people club music. D. Brain rot is favored by most young people. 9. What did Emilie Owens find in her survey? A. It’s a manner for young people to express something they like online. B. Some high students are addicted to the internet. C. Brain rot has caused some damage to their intelligence. D Brain rot is a special mark for some youth organizations. 10. Why would some people watch TV series “Friends” and “Desperate Wives” again? A. They are the most popular American TV series around the world. B. Watching American TV series has become a fashion. C. They can get some comfort and relief from such TV series. D. Such TV are better than video games. 11. From Krissy Ryan’s words, what can you infer? A. Brain rot is harmful to young people’s intelligence. B. Brain rot is misunderstood by most of the public. C. Most young people don’t realise brain rot just offers some fun. D. Most contents of brain rot are silent videos. D Are you obsessed with staple foods like rice, noodles and bread? If you give positive answer, you may have a “carb brain (碳水脑袋)”. However, have you wondered where this obsession comes from? The answer might be embedded in our DNA, according to a study published in the journal Science. Researchers from the Jackson Laboratory and the University at Baffalo in the US analysed the genomes (基因组) of 68 ancient humans, focusing on a gene called AMY1. It is responsible for producing an enzyme (酶) called amylase, which starts breaking down complex carbohydrates (碳水化合物), such as starch (淀粉), in our mouths. Amylase is crucial for digesting staple foods. Humans today have multiple copies of the AMY1 gene, and the research team discovered that hunter-gatherers (狩猎采集者), who lived before the advent of agriculture 45,000 years ago, had an average of four to eight copies of the AMYI gene. This suggests that human ancestors had a preference for starchy foods even long before they began farming. The presence of multiple copies of the AMY1 gene in these three human species indicates that this trait was inherited from a common ancestor. This means that the shared trait existed as far back as 800, 000 years ago, before the different species evolved separately, according to Kwondo Kim, one of the lead authors of this study. What’s more, the analysis revealed that the number of AMY1 gene copies a person carries has significantly increased over the past 4, 000 years. This rise was likely driven by natural selection as humans adapted to starch-rich diets following the shift from a hunter-gatherer lifestyle to agriculture. The study provided strong proof of how humans developed the ability to convert hard-to-digest starches into easily accessible sugars Professor Taylor Hermes at the University of Arkansas in the US told CNN. Hermes also noted that, more importantly, the new research supported an emerging theory that carbohydrates, rather than proteins, were the key source of energy that fueled the increase in human brain size over time. 12. What are the first two paragraphs mainly about? A. If you don’t have the enzyme amylase, you cannot eat staple foods. B. The gene AMY1 can only be found in Asian people. C. People who like staple foods are usually smarter. D. Whether people prefer carb foods is determined when they are born. 13. What does the study on ancient humans’ genes indicate? A. All human beings have a common ancestor. B. Farming originated from hunting and gathering. C. AMYI gene existed long before people engaged in agriculture. D. Human species has an 800,000 years history of consuming staple foods. 14. What does the underlined word “convert” in paragraph 6 mean? A. process B. change C. produce D. break 15. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. The origin of carbohydrate foods. B. The secret of being smart. C. Carb love runs deep. D. The function of AMY1 gene. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分,满分12. 5分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Humor is a shared language which comes in various forms. One of the most commonly known types of humor is dry humor. What exactly is dry humor, then? ___16___ Read on to know more about this unique type of humor. People with a dry sense of humor tend to make cheerful jokes without being too obvious about them. They may use sarcasm and irony(讽刺和反话), but without any obvious emotion like laughter or facial expressions that would show their real purposes. ___17___ Dry humor and sarcasm can often be confused with one another, but actually they are two totally different forms of communication. ___18___ Dry humor is the art of making jokes in a way that does not clearly make fun of something or someone, while sarcasm is used to laugh at someone or something in a more obvious way. ___19___ . Obviously, dry humor can make us laugh without turning to cheap jokes, allowing us to make lighthearted observations about the world around us. Additionally, dry humor can help people express themselves more freely if they don’t feel like making jokes all the time. However, keep in mind that a dry sense of humor isn’t for everyone. ___20___ As a result, before introducing a dry sense of humor into a conversation, pay attention to who you’re talking with and think about their level of comfort with your jokes. A. They may think you’re less serious. B. There are some key differences that set them apart. C. Try to ensure everyone involved has a positive experience. D. Generally, it means humorous content that is expressed in a seemingly serious way. E. That makes it really easy for the listener to miss the joke. F. Many people have a preference for a dry sense of humor for its various benefits. G. Sometimes, it may displease people you didn’t intend your joke for. 第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分 30 分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 It was 1999. A few days after Christmas, a black dog ___21___ onto the front porch (门廊) from nowhere. He didn’t seem to have an owner or any destination, just roaming (闲逛) the area until he found a place to rest. Then he ___22___ as if he’d lived there forever. Whenever anyone left the house, whether to do chores or walk next door, the dog would ___23___ , patiently waiting for us to return together. Inside, the house was filled with ___24___ as my 91-year-old father-in-law, Jim Cravens, was ___25___ ill. Family members ___26___ to care for him, cook meals, and welcome visitors. The arrival of the black dog brought a welcome ___27___ . Whose dog was he? Had someone ___28___ him along the road? Did he plan to stay? We weren’t sure, but we knew that it would soon be dark, and the dog would be cold. We ___29___ local radio stations, animal shelters, and farms, hoping to find the dog’s owner. ___30___ , we made him comfortable with food, water, and a blanket. Jim, sitting in his rocking chair by the window, watched the ___31___ dog’s comings and goings, his tail wagging (摇). As New Year ___32___ , no news came. Still, we were content to have the dog’s ___33___ . Jim had wished to live long enough to see the new millennium, and he did. He passed away on January 2. On that day, the black dog ___34___ . Later, we heard that the black dog was from a farm nearby and he returned to visit us later. We shared with his owners how much his ___35___ visit had comforted our family during such a difficult time. 21. A. fell B. wandered C. dived D. drove 22. A. cut in B. set in C. settled in D. took in 23. A. follow B. avoid C. pass D. bark 24. A. awkwardness B. kindness C. madness D. sadness 25. A. lightly B. casually C. gravely D. absolutely 26. A. moved B. scattered C. gathered D. removed 27. A. concentration B. creation C. attraction D. distraction 28. A. adopted B. abandoned C. aided D. abused 29. A. contacted B. greeted C. thanked D. prohibited 30. A. However B. Meanwhile C. Therefore D. Otherwise 31. A. disappointed B. uneasy C. cheerful D. stressed 32. A. neared B. delayed C. shifted D. processed 33. A. company B. absence C. occupation D. attention 34. A. died B. disappeared C. faded D. remained 35. A. thought-provoking B. mind-blowing C. spine-chilling D. heart-warming 第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Chinese Game won International Awards Black Myth: Wukong, a game ____36____ (develop) by Chinese firm Game Science, has won the Best Action Game and Players’ Voice awards at The Game Awards 2024, which are known ____37____ the Oscars of the gaming world. Black Myth: Wukong is inspired by ____38____ novel Journey to the West. It is an example of successful ____39____ (adapt) from classic traditional culture into modern life. In recent years, China’s gaming industry ____40____ (experience) significant growth, particularly in terms of global influence. Games are no longer seen simply as entertainment, ____41____ as powerful tools for cultural expression and storytelling. ____42____ the game features are a large number of elements about traditional Chinese culture. This industry has ____43____ (creative) introduced the China’s geographical landscapes and literary (文学的) treasures to the rest of the world. It ____44____ (believe) that the Chinese gaming industry should focus on enhancing cultural expression and building a system ____45____ links our culture with games. In this way, the gaming industry can make the brilliant Chinese culture accessible to the rest of the world. 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华,寒假即将来临,你校的交换生 Linda正在寻找能够帮助她在假期练习中文口语的同伴。请你给她写信推荐自己,内容包括: 1. 自我简介;2. 你的优势;3. 表达期待。 注意:1. 词数80左右;2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。 Dear Linda, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I got off the school bus, hitting the ground at a dead run, dropped my book bag at the house door and ran down to the backyard. I couldn’t wait to touch my little dog Tony and to continue training him. The previous training went well and there had already been a special love and trust between Tony and me. The dog was bought for very little money from a poor quality situation. He was the first dog I adopted. Upon reaching there, my smile was replaced with a confused face as Tony was nowhere to be seen, but a huge retriever with a golden color met me at the gate. I frantically(发疯地) searched the entire backyard, afraid my little dog Tony was hurt and in need of help. However, he was not anywhere. Almost in tears, I ran to find my mother. “Mom? ” I questioned her anxiously. “Where’s Tony, and where did that new dog come from? ” “We traded him with our friend Jones. I’ve always wanted a retriever. ” The answer was unexpected and heartbreaking. I begged Mom to let Tony back but she didn’t explain a word. It was just expected of me to accept it. I went back to my room. Tony needed me, as much as I needed him. How could my parents ignore that? I believed it was time to take a stand. I would get Tony back, so I began making a plan. While doing dishes afterward, I prepared a few snacks in my backpack. When I was sure all were asleep, I set out to locate Tony in the dark. I started down the driveway toward Jones’ house and imagined how upset my parents would be when they found this. One hour later, I got to Jones’ house and climbed through the open door into the backyard and found him in the dog kennel. I couldn’t help smiling and took him out of the kennel. “What are you doing here, Lucy? ” I turned quickly to face the familiar but shocked voice that scared me. 注意: 1. 续写的词数应为 150 左右。 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Looking Jones straight in the eye while holding Tony’s head tightly, I replied nervously, “I…I came to get my dog. ” ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Soon my parents entered the yard, with their eyes wide open as they looked at the scene. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024~2025学年度高一年级上学期期末测试 英语试题 (考试时间:120分钟 满分:150分) 注意事项: 1. 答题前,务必在答题卡和答题卷规定的地方填写自己的姓名、准考证号和座位号后两位。 2. 答题时,每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。 3. 答题时,必须使用0. 5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔在答题卷上书写,要求字体工整、笔迹清晰。作图题可先用铅笔在答题卷规定的位置绘出,确认后再用 0. 5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔描清楚。必须在题号所指示的答题区域作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在试题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 4. 考试结束,务必将答题卡和答题卷一并上交。 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分,满分7. 5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Doctor and patient. B. Husband and wife. C. Parent and child. 2. What is the weather like now? A. Rainy. B. Snowy. C. Sunny. 3. What is John doing now? A. Playing football. B. Watching TV. C. Doing revision. 4. When will the next bus leave? A. At 9: 30. B. At 9: 35. C. At 10: 00. 5. Where does the woman plan to take her holiday this year? A. In Canada. B. In Turkey. C. In Italy. 第二节(共15小题;每小题 1分,满分 15分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. Why is the blouse so expensive? A. It’s from China. B. It’s made of silk. C. It looks nice. 7 How much will the woman pay in total? A. 150 dollars. B. 240 dollars. C. 300 dollars. 听第7段材料,回答第 8至10题。 8. What is the man planning to buy? A. A garden. B. A house. C. A farm. 9. What do we know about the house? A. It is large. B. It needs fixing. C. It has one bedroom. 10. What does the man suggest growing? A. Corn. B. Rice. C. Potatoes. 听第8段材料,回答第 11至13题。 11. When did the man begin his first horse riding lesson? A. Yesterday. B. Last week. C. A month ago. 12. What did the man think of his first horse riding lesson? A. Boring. B. Difficult. C. Interesting. 13. What did the woman say about her teacher? A. She was a good teacher. B. She was an excellent rider. C. She was a humorous person. 听第9段材料,回答第 14至16题。 14. Why does the woman go to England today? A. To visit a friend. B. To go shopping. C. To do business. 15. What kind of tickets will the woman buy? A. Single ones. B. First-class ones. C. Weekly return ones. 16. When will the return flight leave? A. At 8: 15 am. B. At 6: 50 pm. C. At 9: 30 pm. 听第10段材料,回答第 17至20题。 17. How long will it take to get to the museum? A. About 20 minutes. B. About 30 minutes. C. About 50 minutes. 18. What is special about the trip for the students? A. They can pick up ancient pots to study. B. They can take old rings out of the glass case. C. They’ll take a related test when back at school. 19. How do the students find information in the Technology Center? A. By using iPads. B. By using computers. C. By asking Jane Witton. 20. What does the speaker want the students to do after the trip? A. Make postcards. B. Draw posters. C. Give reports. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分,满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. A 2. C 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. A 10. C 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. C 14. B 15. C 第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分,满分12. 5分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. D 17. E 18. B 19. F 20. G 第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分 30 分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. A 33. A 34. B 35. D 第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. developed 37. as 38. the 39. adaptation 40. has experienced 41. but 42. What 43. creatively 44. is believed 45. that##which 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】 Dear Linda, I am Li Hua, a senior student with a profound passion for language exchange. Learning that you’re seeking a partner to practice Chinese during the winter vacation, I’m writing to recommend myself. I’m fluent in Chinese and have extensive experience in language tutoring. I can patiently correct your pronunciation and explain cultural allusions behind idiomatic expressions. Plus, I’m an outgoing person, always ready to engage in lively conversations. I sincerely hope we can team up and make your Chinese-learning journey more fruitful. Looking forward to your reply. Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】 Looking Jones straight in the eye while holding Tony’s head tightly, I replied nervously, “I…I came to get my dog. ” Jones seemed a bit angry at first, but as he saw the determination and sadness in my eyes, his expression softened. He listened quietly as I poured out my feelings about how much Tony meant to me and how we had built a special bond during the training. After a long moment of silence, Jones finally said, “I understand your feelings, Lucy. If you truly love him this much, you can take him back.” I was overjoyed and thanked him sincerely. Just as I was about to leave with Tony, I heard the sound of a car approaching. Soon my parents entered the yard, with their eyes wide open as they looked at the scene. They were shocked to see me there with Tony. I bravely stepped forward and told them how much Tony meant to me and that I couldn’t live without him. I also apologized for running away at night but emphasized my strong desire to keep my dog. Mom and Dad looked at each other, and then Dad said gently, “We’re sorry, Lucy. We didn’t realize how important he was to you.” From then on, Tony stayed with me, and our family became more harmonious as we learned to respect each other’s feelings. 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $

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安徽省合肥市包河区合肥市第一中学2024-2025学年高一上学期1月期末英语试题
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安徽省合肥市包河区合肥市第一中学2024-2025学年高一上学期1月期末英语试题
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安徽省合肥市包河区合肥市第一中学2024-2025学年高一上学期1月期末英语试题
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