湖南省娄底市2024-2025学年高二上学期1月期末英语试题

1 2024年下学期娄底市部分普通高中期末考试试卷 高二英语 满分：150分 时量：120分钟 命题人：邱朝霞 审稿人：曾国胜 注意事项: 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂 黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答 案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试 卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 （共 5小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 7.5分） 听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选 项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和 阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the man like now? A. Modern dance. B. Folk dance. C. Ballet. 2. What did the man do just before the conversation? A. He read a book. B. He saw a movie. C. He watched TV. 3. When does the man finish his first class? A. At 9:10 a. m. B. At 10:10 a. m. C. At 11:00 a. n. 4. What does the man think of learning baseball? A. Boring. B. Difficult. C . Interesting. 5. What causes Jane to sit there for hours? A. An accident. B. A phone call. C. A checkup. 第二节 （共 15小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分） 听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、 B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小 题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白 读两遍。 听第 6段材料，回答第 6、7题。 6. What does John come to the coffee shop for? A. Getting relaxed. B. Doing his work. C. Meeting Sarah. 7. What is John's favorite coffee? A. Cappuccino. B. Espresso. C. Latte. 听第 7段材料, 回答第 8、9题。 2 8. What does the man want to do with the broken chairs? A. Return them. B. Replace them. C. Repair them 9. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Co-workers. B. Manager and clerk. C. Shop owner and customer. 听第 8段材料, 回答第 10至 12题。 10.What does the man say about seeing the dentist? A. It's costly. B. It's terrible. C. It’s cheap. 11. What did the man have at breakfast today? A. Oranges. B. Ice cream. C. Apples. 12. What does the woman advise the man to do? A. Have a rest. B. See a doctor. C.Take out his dentist's card. 听第 9段材料, 回答第 13至 16题。 13.Which country was the woman's starting point of the journey? A. Russia. B. Mongolia. C. China. 14. How many people were there on the trip? A. 10. B. 11. C. 13. 15. What did the woman see in Siberia? A. Animals. B. Trees. C. Rivers. 16. What is said about the woman? A. She rode a camel on the trip. B. She caught several fish in China. C. She ate noodles on the train. 听第 10段材料, 回答第 17至 20题。 17. What's the speaker talking about? A. A course plan. B. A trip. C. A new school. 18. When is the first lesson? A. On Monday. B On Tuesday. C. On Wednesday. 19. Where will the English test be held? A. In RoomA. B. In Room B. C. In Room C. 20. How long does the English test last? A. For 20 minutes. B. For 1 hour. C. For 2 hours. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分 50分) 第一节 (共 15小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A California’s Hidden Gems Lost Coast An experienced hiker’s paradise, California's Lost Coast stretches from Shelter Cove to Mattole Beach, about 75 miles. If that’s too ambitious, drive the Mattole Loop instead, stopping to explore Humboldt Redwoods State Park, home to Avenue of the Giants, and the town of Ferndale, recognized by its Victorian architecture. Mono Lake Otherworldly in a number of ways, Mono Lake is an ancient saline lake on 3 California’s eastern edge. No fish swim here, but brine shrimp do, and those draw myriad bird species that migrate along the Pacific Flyway, Distinct limestone formations called tufa stand out — literally and figuratively — at Mono Lake. Point Reyes Point Reyes is pleasantly quiet, especially along its coastal trails. Look for wildflowers and endemic animals on Tomales Point Trail — which rambles for nearly 10 miles on this special, skinny peninsula, delivering gorgeous, foggy views of the Ocean. Trinity Alps Another stunning preserve in Northern California, Trinity Alps Wilderness awes visitors with its alpine lakes and granite peaks. It’s an excellent option for day hiking, like Hidden Lake Trail, but also for multiday backpacking trips such as the 18.6-mile Canyon Creek Lakes Trail. Shasta Lake This sprawling reservoir might best be experienced via houseboat. Once on board your floating accommodations, try your hand at all the water sports: swimming, water skiing, fishing, jet skiing, and more, all with regal Mount Shasta in the background. 21. What is the best choice for people who like go hiking? A. Shasta Lake. B. Point Reyes. C. Mono Lake. D. Lost Coast. 22. What can you do in Point Reyes? A. Visit a natural preserve. B. Enjoy fantastic views. C. Climb sharp peaks. D. Try some water sports. 23. Where would this passage most probably come from? A. A travel guide B. An advertisement C. An encyclopedia D. A nature novel B By the time she turned 18, Khadijah Williams had attended twelve schools. She had lived in shelters, in parks, and in motels, never in a permanent residence for more than a few months. She had tolerated the blames of students who considered her as “different”. Homeless since early childhood, Khadijah struggled all her life to hide her circumstances from teachers and fellow students. However, academics proved to be a way for her to find confidence in herself again. For instance, at the age of 9, she placed in the 99th percentile on a state exam, and her teacher told her she was “gifted”. From that moment forward, Khadijah decided to do whatever it took to keep herself in that category. “I was so proud of being smart. I never wanted people to say, ‘You got the easy way out because you’re homeless,’” she said. “I never saw it as an excuse.” By the second year of high school, she realized that she could not succeed in getting the further education she dreamed of without getting help to go beyond what her current school could offer. She talked to teachers and counselors (辅导员) who helped her apply to summer community college classes, scholarships, and enrichment programs. And in 11th grade, when she enrolled at Jefferson High School, she decided to complete the rest of her school career there—a decision that meant taking a bus 4 each morning at 4 a. m. and not getting home until 11 p. m. Her perseverance and hard work paid off, however. When she poured the story of her life into her Harvard University college application, she was accepted. Once Khadijah felt ready to tell her story, it won her notice not only from college admissions boards but also from the news media, including Oprah, who introduced Khadijah on her show. Now as a successful student at Harvard, Khadijah continues to use the lessons of her extraordinary life to help and inspire other students. 24. What was Khadijah’s life like before she turned 18? A. She was badly treated at home. B. She had lived in various places. C. She struggled with academics. D. She often misbehaved at school. 25. How did Khadijah find confidence in herself again? A. By hiding her circumstance from others. B. By being proud of her homeless background. C. By working hard for academic success. D. By getting help from teachers and counselors. 26. Why did Khadijah apply for summer community college program? A. To use her experience to inspire others. B. To get financial help from her teachers. C. To realize her dream to go to university. D. To be admitted to Jefferson High School. 27. What is the text mainly about? A. Khadijah’s experience of overcoming difficulty. B. Khadijah’s success in her academic pursuits. C. Khadijah’s involvement in community service. D. Khadijah’s achievements at Harvard University. C Chinese food is well received by the world. Who doesn’t long for a favorite Chinese dish? But there is one interesting concept concerning Chinese food which is almost unheard of in the West, and which is becoming increasingly ignored by the youth of the East — the ancient custom of “tonic (滋补) food”. Tonic food is food which is consumed to improve one’s well-being or avoid sickness. For instance, it was once the custom for new mothers to eat a sesame oil (麻 油) hot pot every day for the first month after giving birth. It was believed that this dish would benefit the muscles, reduce pain, improve circulation, stimulate sweating, and warm the body. Some foods, such as goat meat and spinach, are seen as “hot”, while others, such as Chinese cabbage and radishes, are seen as “cold”. One should be careful not to eat too much of either “hot” or “cold” food. However, how much “hot” or “cold” food one should eat depends on the time of the year, how the food is prepared and what it is prepared with, and the individual’s health. The custom of employing tonic food for a healthier life also influences the catering industry. Chinese herbal medicines, such as wolfberry (枸杞), can be found on many a restaurant menu, either added to fruit tea or as a beneficial addition to a dish. These herbs attract customers, such as overworked office staff, in need of a 5 modest pick-me-up. So, whether you need to boost your strength with a large helping of chicken soup, or increase your mental powers with a serving of fish soup, you may find that this ancient Chinese custom could be just the tonic you were looking for. 28. What is the present situation of tonic food? A. It is becoming increasingly popular. B. It is enjoyed by many young people. C. It is well-known worldwide. D. It is catching less attention. 29. What is believed to benefit new mothers? A. Chinese cabbage. B. Fruit tea. C.Sesame oil hot pot. D. Fish soup. 30. Which of the following best explains “catering” underlined in Paragraph 3? A. Restaurant. B. Medicine. C. Manufacture. D. Agriculture. 31. What’s the attitude of the author towards “ tonic food”? can be a suitable title for the text? A. Opposed B. Supportive C. Indifferent D. Disapproval D A study claims that wearable devices could also be used by cows on the farms of the future. Researchers from Southwest Jiaotong University in China have developed a smartwatch that can be used to monitor cows’ health, reproductivity and location. “Monitoring environmental and health information of cattle can help prevent diseases and improve the efficiency of pasture breeding ( 草 场 培 育 ) and management,” said Zutao Zhang, co-author of the study. In the study, the team set out to develop a wearable device that could be used to collect vital information on cows. “This information can include oxygen concentration, air temperature, amount of exercise, reproductive cycles, disease, and milk production,” explained Mr Zhang. The smart devices are worn around the cows’ necks and ankles. They contain a unique motion enhancement mechanism (运 动 增 强 机 制 ) to strengthen small movements the cows make. Once captured, the kinetic energy (动能) from the cow’s movements is stored in a battery and used to power the device. This means the device doesn’t need to be charged like a traditional smartwatch. “There is a large amount of kinetic energy that can be harvested in cattle’s daily movements, such as walking, running, and even neck movement,” said co-author Yajia Pan. To put the device to the test, the researchers tested it on human participants. The tests revealed that even a light jog was enough to power temperature measurements on the device. Beyond cows, the researchers say that the smart device could have a range of application in humans. This includes in sports monitoring, healthcare, smart homes, and wireless sensor networks. “Kinetic energy is everywhere in the environment—leaves falling in the wind, the movement of people and animals—these phenomena all contain a lot of kinetic energy,” said Zhang. “We shouldn’t let this energy go to waste.” 32. Why did the team develop the wearable device? 6 A. To monitor cows’ environmental effects. B. To improve the quality of milk. C. To locate where cows reproduce. D. To gather vital information on cows. 33. How is the device different from other smartwatches? A. It makes use of the energy from the cow’s movements. B. It should be worn around the cow’s necks and ankles. C. It can be applied to many human related fields. D. It takes less time to be charged than traditional smartwatches. 34. What do we know about kinetic energy from the last two paragraphs? A. It is easy to harvest. B. It is huge in amount. C. It is simple to test. D. It is widely applied. 35. What is the best title for this passage? A. The Quality Meat of the Super Cows B. The Kinetic Energy in Natural World C. Wearable Devices in the Future Farm D. Wide Applications of a New Invention 第二节 (共 5小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两 项为多余选项。 All parents know that young children are always energetic, eager to run, jump and play. Turning that natural energy into competitive sports can help keep kids active and healthy as they grow. Competitive sports such as soccer, track, basketball and swimming can also help kids learn important life lessons about teamwork and fair play. ___36___ . Learning How to Compete Joining in sports teaches children and teenagers how to compete in the real world. As they grow older, they'll face competition in school, in the workforce and other areas of life. But these competitions don't have to be negative（负面的）or unhealthy. ___37___ . Realizing the Value of Exercise ___38___ . In addition，many children who are active in sports are encouraged to eat healthier foods，such as fruits and vegetables. Improving Self-respect Improved self-respect is another benefit of competitive youth sports. ___39____ . Even when he doesn't win, he can learn a valuable lesson: that you can't win every time. Losing with his team can also increase self-esteem, as he learns to hold his head high and feel proud for trying his best. ___40___ Youth sports can help stop negative behavior, such as joining a gang（帮派）, because competitive sports provide a way of expressing their energy, friendship and controlled attacking behaviour. Teens who have positive influences and friends feel 7 less of a need to join in risky behaviors. A. Developing Good Values B. Reducing Risky Behavior C. Here are the benefits of competitive sports for youth D. When a child wins a game with his team, he feels recognized E. If you try your hardest, you have a better opportunity to succeed F. Taking part in competitive youth sports burns calories and helps to keep slim G. Playing sports can help kids understand how competition works in a friendly environment 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 45分） 第一节（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C和 D四个选项中，选出可以 填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。 Li Ziqi, a remarkable Chinese content 41 , has left a deep mark on the global stage. She was born in a small village and her childhood was filled with hardships. However, these 42 did not stop her from sharing the beauty of Chinese traditional culture. Li Ziqi's videos are mainly about the traditional 43 life in China. In her videos, she shows us how to make various traditional Chinese dishes and handicrafts. 44 , she has demonstrated the 45 of making mooncakes, a traditional Chinese snack. She also shows us how to make beautiful bamboo products by weaving（编织） them skillfully. The details in her videos are so 46 that viewers can almost feel the 47 and simplicity of rural life. Her works have attracted more than 100 million 48 both in China and abroad. OnYouTube, her videos have 49 millions of views and subscribers. People from different countries are 50 by the charm of Chinese culture shown in her videos. 51 , in 2021, Li Ziqi stopped updating videos due to some business problems. Her fans were really disappointed but they never lost hope and kept waiting for her 52 . Finally, in 2024, Li Ziqi made a comeback with a new video introducing Chinese intangible cultural heritage – lacquerware（漆器）. Once again, she 53 to capture the hearts of her fans. Li Ziqi's story is an inspiration for us all. She has shown us that we can make a 54 by sharing our culture. Through her efforts, more and more people, especially the young generation, have become interested in learning about and 55 traditional Chinese culture. 41. A. inventor B. discoverer C. creator D. singer 42. A. difficulties B. opportunities C. disadvantages D. strengths 43. A. urban B. rural C. city D. ancient 44. A. For fun B. For sure C. For good D. For instance 45. A. progress B. property C. process D. poverty 46. A. important B. accurate C. contradictory D. vivid 47. A. noise B. peace C. boredom D. loneliness 8 48. A. fans B. villagers C. friends D. relatives 49. A. accepted B. persuaded C. received D. refused 50. A. disappointed B. amazed C. characterized D. frightened 51. A. Unfortunately B. Fortunately C. Apparently D. Expectedly 52. A. turn B. recovery C. departure D. return 53. A. managed B. tried C. planned D. organized 54. A. decision B. fortune C. difference D. living 55. A. preventing B. protecting C. predicting D. promising 非选择题部分 第二节（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确 形式。 Black Myth: Wukong Wins Best Action Game at TGA 2024 Do you like playing games? There is a very famous Chinese game 56 (call) Black Myth: Wukong. It is the 57 (one) AAA game in China. In 2024, it took part in The Game Awards, 58 we can also call TGA. TGA is like the Oscars in the game world. Black Myth: Wukong was nominated (提名) in some 59 (category). One of the most important nominations was for the Best Action Game. And it won this award! It means the fighting and action parts in the game are 60 (real) great. When the game 61 (launch) on August 20th, many people played it at the same time. There were over 2.2 million players 62 (play) it together on a platform called Steam. It also sold very well. In less than four days, it sold more than 10 million copies. In the first month, it sold over 20 million copies. However, there is another big award called Game of the Year. 63 many Chinese players hoped Black Myth: Wukong could win this award, it didn't. The winner of the Game of the Year was 64 game from Sony called Astro Bot. Even though it did not get the Game of the Year award, Black Myth: Wukong is still a very good game. It has done well in the world of games. It can become even 65 (good) and give more fun to players all over the world in the future. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分 15分） 假如你是李华，与美国留学生 Peter约好到他家讨论将要举行的“汉语桥”中 文演讲比赛，但是在路上目睹一起交通事故，并把伤者送往医院，没能赴约。请 你给他写一封道歉信，信的内容如下：1. 向 Peter表示歉意；2. 解释未能赴约的 原因；3. 约定时间以便再作讨论。 注意： 1. 词数 80左右； 2. 可以适当增加细节，使行文连贯。 参考词汇：“汉语桥”中文演讲比赛 “Chinese Bridge” Chinese Speech Contest Dear Peter, 9 I am terribly sorry that_______________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ Sincerely yours, Li Hua 第二节 读后续写（满分 25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整 的短文。续写的词数应为 150左右。 第二节 读后续写(满分 25分) 67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整 的短文。 On my way to the park, I saw Ollie sitting on the steps of his house. “It’s finally nice spring weather,” I called. “Want to skateboard?” “Shhh,” he said softly. “You’ll scare him away!” I was about to say “Who?” when I noticed the cutest little bird in the world just sitting on Ollie’s shoulder. “Whoa!” I whispered. “Where did he come from?” “He landed on this flowerpot,” said Ollie. “And when I bent down to make sure he was OK, he just jumped right onto my shoulder!” “This one definitely acts like someone’s lost pet,” I believed. “I agree,” said Ollie. “His owner must be so worried!” “Hi,” I said to the bird in a gentle voice. “I wish you could tell us your name. And right then, the bird chirped (叽喳叫) back. Ollie smiled.” I don’t exactly speak bird language, but I’m pretty sure he just said his name is Blue. “Is Ollie right?” I asked. “If your name really is Blue, will you sing us a song?” And I know this sounds unbelievable, but Blue seemed to understand—because right then, he chirped a lot more! When Ollie’s grandma, Abuela, stepped outside and saw the bird, she was very astonished. “This is a big adventure for such a small bird!” she said. “Let’s get you a nice drink of water and give the animal shelter a call.” Abuela brought out a dish of water and the phone. Soon we got through to the animal shelter. “Sorry,” the man said. “No birds have been reported missing this week. 10 You may as well put flyers (传单) up in your area and you can also check the Found Animal recordings every day.” Luckily, Abuela’s friend Michiko, knowing all about birds, came over with a spare cage. “His name is Blue,” Ollie told her, “you know, until we find his owner.” “What an adorable bird!” Michiko screamed. 注意： 1. 续写词数应为 150左右； 2. 开头已给出。 Paragraph 1: That afternoon, Ollie and I made lots of Found Bird flyers.__________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2: Another week passed before Ollie got a call from the animal shelter. __________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ null1 2024 年下学期娄底市部分普通高中期末考试 高二英语参考答案及评分细则 第一部分 听力（共 20小题，每小题 1.5分，满分 30分） 1-5 CABCB 6-10 ABACB 11-15 ABABB 16-20 CABCB 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，20小题，每小题 2.5分，满分 50分） 21-23 DBA 24-27 BCCA 28-31 DCAB 32-35 DABC 36-40 CGFDB 【A】 本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了加利福尼亚州的一些隐藏瑰宝的详细信息。 21.D 细节理解题。根据 Lost Coast 部分 An experienced hiker’s paradise, California's Lost Coast stretches from Shelter Cove to Mattole Beach, 可知 Lost Coast是有经验的徒步远足者的乐园，故选 D。 22. B 细节理解题。根据 Point Reyes 部分“Look for wildflowers and endemic animals on Tomales Point Trail— which rambles for nearly 10 miles on this special, skinny peninsula, delivering gorgeous, foggy views of the Ocean.可知，在 Point Reyes可以欣赏到美丽的景色。故选 B。 23. A 推理判断题。根据文章标题“California’s Hidden Gems (加利福尼亚隐藏 的瑰宝)”以及文章对于加利福尼亚州景点的介绍可推知，文章可能出自旅游指 南。故选 A。 【B】 这是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了自幼无家可归的 Khadijah 辗转多所学校，饱受同 学的嘲笑和轻视，最终在个人的努力和老师的帮助下成功考入哈佛大学的故事。 24.B 细节理解题。由文章第一段中“She had lived in shelters, in parks, and in motels, never in a permanent residence for more than a few months. 可知，她曾住在 不同的地方。故选 B。 25. C 细节理解题。根据文章第二段中“However, academics proved to be a way for her to find confidence in herself again. 可知，莉兹通过努力学习获得学术上的 成功来重拾信心。故选 C。 26. C 细节理解题。由文章第三段中“By the second year of high school, she realized that she could not succeed in getting the further education she dreamed of without getting help to go beyond what her current school could offer. She talked to teachers and counselors (辅导员 ) who helped her apply to summer community college classes, scholarships, and enrichment programs. 可知，为了实现她上大学的 梦想，她申请暑期社区大学项目。故选 C。 27. A 主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是由文章最后一段中“Once Khadijah felt ready to tell her story, it won her notice not only from college admissions boards but also from the news media, including Oprah, who introduced Khadijah on her show. Now as a successful student at Harvard, Khadijah continues to use the lessons of her extraordinary life to help and inspire other students. 可知，文章讲述了自幼无家可 归的 Khadijah 辗转多所学校，饱受同学的嘲笑和轻视，最终在个人的努力和老 师的帮助下成功考入哈佛大学的故事。选项 B“Khadijah’s experience of overcoming difficulty . (Khadijah克服困难的经历)”符合题意。故选 A。 2 【C】 这是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了中国传统滋补品的现状，功效以及滋补品对现 代餐饮业的影响。 28. D 细节理解题。根据第一段中“But there is one interesting concept concerning Chinese food which is almost unheard of in the West, and which is becoming increasingly ignored by the youth of the East — the ancient custom of “tonic (滋补) food”.(但关于中餐，有一个有趣的概念在西方几乎闻所未闻，而东方的年轻人也 越来越忽视它——那就是“滋补”的古老习俗)”可知，滋补食品它引起的关注越来 越少。故选 D项。 29. C 细节理解题。根据第二段中“For instance, it was once the custom for new mothers to eat a sesame oil (麻油) hot pot every day for the first month after giving birth. It was believed that this dish would benefit the muscles, reduce pain, improve circulation, stimulate sweating, and warm the body.” 可知，人们认为麻油火锅对新 妈妈有好处。故选 C项。 30. A 词义猜测题。根据第三段中“Chinese herbal medicines, such as wolfberry(枸 杞 ), can be found on many a restaurant menu, either added to fruit tea or as a beneficial addition to a dish. These herbs attract customers, such as overworked office staff, in need of a modest pick-me-up.” 可知，此处为使用滋补食品以健康生活的 习俗也影响了餐饮业。故可猜测划线单词 catering为“餐饮”的意思，结合选项 B 项 Restaurant“餐饮，餐厅”意思一致。故选 A项。 31. B 推理判断题。根据文章最后一段中“So, whether you need to boost your strength with a large helping of chicken soup, or increase your mental powers with a serving of fish soup, you may find that this ancient Chinese custom could be just the tonic you were looking for.” 可知，作者认为这种古老的习俗可能是人们在找的滋 补，可推断作者认可滋补食品，故选 B项。 【D】 本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍了中国西南交通大学的研究人员开发了一款智能手 表，可以用来监测奶牛的健康、繁殖和位置，且这个设备可以从奶牛的运动中充 电。 32. D 推理判断题。根据第二段中 “In the study, the team set out to develop a wearable device that could be used to collect vital information on cows. "This information can include oxygen concentration, air temperature, amount of exercise, reproductive cycles, disease, and milk production, ” explained Mr Zhang.可知，该团 队开发这种可穿戴设备是为了收集有关奶牛的重要信息。故选 D项。 33. A 细节理解题。根据第三段中"The smart devices are worn around the cows' necks and ankles. They contain a unique motion enhancement mechanism to strengthen small movements the cows make. Once captured, the kinetic energy from the cow's movements is stored in a battery and used to power the device. This means the device doesn't need to be charged like a traditional smartwatch.可知，这款设备能 利用奶牛运动的能量。故选 A项。 34. B推理判断题。根据倒数第二段""There is a large amount of kinetic energy that can be harvested in cattle's daily movements, such as walking, running, and even neck movement." said co-author Yajia Pan. 以 及 最 后 一 段 中 ”“Kinetic energy is everywhere in the environment—leaves falling in the wind, the movement of people 3 and animals —these phenomena all contain a lot of kinetic energy, ” said Zhang可知， 动能在自然界中无处不在，且数量巨大。故选 B项。 35. C 主旨大意题。根据第一段“A study claims that wearable devices could also be used by cows on the farms of the future. Researchers from Southwest Jiaotong University in China have developed a smartwatch that can be used to monitor cows' health, reproductivity and location.可知，本文主要介绍一种未来奶牛的可穿戴设 备。所以 C项"Wearable Devices in the Future Farm（未来农场中的可穿戴设备）” 是本文最好的标题。故选 C项。 【七选五】 36．C 根据下文的黑体字“Learning How to Compete（学习如何竞争）”以及 “Improving Self-respect（提高自尊）”可知，划线句是提出竞技体育对年轻人有 好处。C选项“Here are the benefits of competitive sports for youth”（以下是竞技体 育对年轻人的好处）符合题意，故选 C项。 37．G 根据前文“Joining in sports teaches children and teenagers how to compete in the real world.（参加体育运动教会孩子和青少年如何在现实世界中竞争。）”以及 “But these competitions don't have to be negative（负面的）or unhealthy.（但这些竞 争不一定是负面的或不健康的。）”可知，本段是讲述竞技运动帮助孩子了解在健 康环境下如何竞争。 G 选项 “Playing sports can help kids understand how competition works in a friendly environment”（做运动可以帮助孩子们理解在友好 的环境中竞争是如何运作的）符合题意，故选 G项。 38．F 根据后文“In addition，many children who are active in sports are encouraged to eat healthier foods，such as fruits and vegetables.（此外，许多积极参加运动的孩 子被鼓励吃更健康的食物，如水果和蔬菜。）”可猜测，本段是讲述体育对孩子身 体健康方面的好处。F 选项“Taking part in competitive youth sports burns calories and helps to keep slim”（参加竞争性的青年运动燃烧卡路里，有助于保持苗条） 符合题意，故选 F项。 39．D 根据后文“Even when he doesn't win, he can learn a valuable lesson: that you can't win every time.（即使他没有赢，他也能从中学到宝贵的一课:你不可能每次 都赢。）”可猜测，前后转折，所以划线句是描写孩子比赛赢的时候的收获。D选 项“When a child wins a game with his team, he feels recognized”（当一个孩子和他 的团队赢得一场比赛时，他会感到被认可）符合题意，故选 D项。 40．B 根据下文“Youth sports can help stop negative behavior（青少年体育可以帮 助阻止负面行为）”以及“Teens who have positive influences and friends feel less of a need to join in risky behaviors.（有积极影响和朋友的青少年觉得不太需要参与危 险行为。）”可知，本段是介绍体育可以帮助青少年减少危险行为。A选项“Reducing Risky Behavior”（减少危险行为）符合题意，适合作本段标题，故选 B项。 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30分） 第一节（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分） 文章讲述了内容创作者李子柒，在网络平台发表的视频，吸引了 1亿多粉丝， 在 YouTube 上获得数百万点击量和订阅。她的视频展示了如何制作各种中国传 统菜肴和手工艺品，比如月饼，竹制品等，细致入微，令人感受到乡村生活的宁 静和质朴。2024 年，由于一些商务问题沉寂多年的她带着一段介绍中国非物质 4 文化遗产“漆器”的新视频王者归来。她的故事启发我们也要学习、保护和传播 中国传统文化。 41-45 CABDC 46-50 DBACB 51-55 ADACB 41. 语境题。根据第二段第一、二句可知，李子柒是一个非凡的中国内容创作者。 A. 发明家 B. 发现者 C. 创作者 D. 歌手。故选择 C。 42. 语境题。根据上下文可知，“她的童年充满了艰辛，然而，这些困难并没有 阻止她分享中国传统文化之美。”A. 困难 B. 机会 C. 劣势 D. 优势。故选择 A。 43. 语境题。根据上下文可知，“她出生在一个小村庄里...她创作的视频细节非常 丰富生动，观众可以感受到乡村生活宁静和质朴。”A. 城市的 B. 乡村的 C. 城市 D. 古代的。故选择 B。 44. 语境题。根据上下文可知，“在她的视频中，她向我们展示了如何制作各种 中国传统菜肴和手工艺品。例如，她展示了制作一种中国传统小吃月饼的过 程。”先总体介绍视频内容，再分别举例她展示月饼和竹制品的制作。A.为了 好玩 B.肯定的 C. 永远 D. 例如。故选择 D。 45.语境题。根据上下文可知，她展示了如何制作各种中国传统菜肴和手工艺品 的全过程，例如制作月饼的过程。A. 进步 B. 财产；性质 C. 过程 D. 贫穷。 故选择 C。 46. 语境题。根据上文可知，视频的细节肯定非常丰富生动以至于观众可以感受 到乡村生活的宁静和质朴。A. 重要的 B. 精确的；精密的 C. 矛盾的，对立的 D. 生动的。故选择 D。 47. 语境题。此题应用积极的词汇。A. 噪音 B. 宁静，和平 C. 厌烦，无聊 D. 孤 独。故选择 B。 48. 语境题。根据上下文可知，她的作品在国内外吸引了 1亿多粉丝...2021年， 她因一些商务问题而停止更新视频。粉丝们很失落，但他们从未失去过希望...A. 粉 丝 B. 村民 C. 朋友 D. 亲属。故选择 A。 49. 语境题。根据上下文可知，她的作品在国内外吸引了 1亿多粉丝，在 YouTube 上，获得数百万点击量和订阅。A. 接受 B. 说服 C. 获得 D. 拒绝。故选择 C。 50. 语境题。根据上文 “...观众可以感受到乡村生活的宁静和质朴”和下文“... 在她的视频中展现了中国文化的魅力”可知，不同国家的人对此感到大为惊奇。 A. 失望的 B. 大为惊奇的 C. 具有...特征的 D. 害怕的 。故选择 B。 51. 语境题。此处，话锋一转，2021年，她因一些商务问题而停止更新视频。粉 丝们很失落。A.不幸地 B. 幸运地 C. 显然 D. 预期地。故选择 A。 52. 语境题。根据上下文可知，2021 年，她因一些商务问题而停止更新视频... 粉丝们继续等待她的回归。最后，在 2024年，李子柒带着一段介绍中国非物质 文化遗产“漆器”的新视频王者归来。A. 转动；转弯；（依次轮到的）机会 B. 恢 复 C. 离开 D. 返回,回归。故选择 D。 53. 语境题。根据上文可知，她的作品在国内外吸引了 1亿多粉丝...虽然期间沉 5 寂数年，但是她再一次成功俘获了大批粉丝的心。A. “manage to do sth.设法做成 某事” B. “try to do sth. 努力做某事”C. 计划 D. 组织。故选择 A。 54. 语境题。根据上文可知，她的视频在全球舞台上留下了深深的印记，影响很 大。她的故事给了我们启示：通过分享我们的文化带来改变和影响。A. “make a decision作决定” B. “make a fortune 发财、赚大笔的钱” C. “make a difference 有影响” D. “make a living谋生”。故选择 C。 55. 语境题。根据上文可知，她的故事给了我们启示：通过分享我们的文化可以 带来改变和影响。句意：通过她的努力，越来越多的人，尤其是年轻一代，已 经对学习和保护中国传统文化产生了兴趣。A. 预防；阻止 B. 保护 C. 预言 D. 承诺。选项 A、C和 D,与句意不符。故选择 B。 第二节（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分） 本文介绍了中国首款 3A 游戏《黑神话： 悟空》获得了多个奖项类别的提 名，并且因游戏中十分出色的打斗和动作设计而获评 TGA2024年度最佳动作游 戏。 56. called 考查非谓语动词。过去分词在句中做后置状语。因被修饰的名词 a very famous Chinese game和 call存在被动关系，故用过去分词。 57. first 考查序数词。句意：“它是中国首款 3A游戏。”故用序数词。 58. which 考查非限制性定语从句。which指代先行词 The Game Awards引导非 限制性定语从句对先行词进行补充说明，在从句中作宾语。 59. categories 考查名词的单复数。句意：“《黑神话： 悟空》获得了多个奖 项类别的提名” 60.really 考查副词。副词修饰形容词“great”。“真的很棒；十分出色” 61. was launched 考查谓语动词。分析句子结构可知，launch充当 when 引导的 时间状语从句的谓语，需要注意其时态、语态、主谓一致问题。根据过去时间状 语 on August 20th, 用一般过去时态，同时主语 the game 和动词 launch之间存在 被动关系，主语表示单数意义。句意：“8月 20日游戏上线时，很多人同时在玩 这款游戏。” 62. playing 考查非谓语动词。现在分词在句中做后置状语。因被修饰的名词 players 和 play存在主谓关系，故用现在分词。句意：“在 Steam平台上， 同时 在线的玩家超过了 220万。” 63.Although / Though / While / As 考查从属连词。根据前后的逻辑关系可知，该 句为含有让步状语从句的复合句。句意：“尽管很多中国玩家都期望《黑神话：悟 空》能赢得该奖项，但它最终与之失之交臂。” 64. a 考查不定冠词。句意：“年度最佳游戏奖的得主是索尼旗下的一款游戏 《Astro Bot》。”表泛指。 65.better 考查形容词比较级。句意：“未来它有望变得更加出色， 给全球玩家带 来更多乐趣。”该句是对《黑神话： 悟空》这款游戏的期许，希望它比现在更上 6 一层楼。同时，even常被用来加强比较，“甚至更，愈加”。故用形容词 good 的 比较级 better作系动词 become的表语。 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40分） 第一节 应用文写作（15分） Dear Peter, I am terribly sorry that I didn't show up at your home to discuss the coming “Chinese Bridge” Chinese Speech Contest as planned. Please excuse me for my absence. On the way to your home,I came across a car accident. Seeing the man seriously injured, I soon rushed him to hospital in a taxi and stayed there until he was properly treated. Everything happened so unexpectedly that I didn't have time to inform you. Please accept my sincere apology. I would appreciate it if you could kindly tell me when you are available so that we will discuss the contest later. Sincerely yours, Li Hua 【应用文写作评分标准】 在评分时，应注意以下几个方面： 1. 本题总分为 15分，5个档次给分。 2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要 求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3. 词数少于 60，从总分中减去 2分。 4. 评分时，注意内容要点、使用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的 连贯性。 5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程 度予以考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 6. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，分数降低一个档次。 评分细则 分值 评分标准 第五档 (13~15分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ·覆盖所有内容要点; ·应用了较多的语法结构和词汇; ·语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高 级词汇所致,具备较强的语言运用能力; ·有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档 (10~12分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ·虽漏掉一两个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容; ·应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求; ·语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂 7 语法结构或词汇所致; ·应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档 (7~9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ·虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容; ·应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求; ·有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解; ·应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。 基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档 (4~6分) 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 ·漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容; ·语法结构单调、词汇有限; ·有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解; ·较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档 (1~3分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 ·明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求; ·语法结构单调、词汇有限; ·较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解; ·缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。 0 ·未能传达给读者任何信息; ·内容太少,无法评判; ·写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 第二节 读后续写（25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整 的短文。续写的词数应为 150左右。 One Possible Version: That afternoon, Ollie and I made lots of Found Bird flyers. But Abuela, armed with the skills of attending to birds, took good care of Blue. The chirping bird sang songs in the cage like a happy angel. Ollie said,” We decided to keep the bird, but we still should spare no effort to find his owner since his owner could have been very upset without his company. “Although feeling sorry for that, we put up all the flyers. And for a month and a half, we kept checking the Found Animal recordings. Nonetheless, no one claimed Blue yet. Another week passed before Ollie got a call from the animal shelter. Ollie instantly knew someone had claimed Blue. After meeting with the owner, amazingly, we found Blue was really the bird’s name. The owner explained Blue accidentally flew out of the car. She gave us a thankful hug, with Blue hopping and chirping on her 8 shoulder. “No words could fully express my gratitude to you for finding Blue, without whom I could have led a lonely life! ” she wept. Both of us were unwilling to leave Blue but we would be much delighted to see that Blue reunite with his previous owner. 【读后续写评分标准】 在评分时,应注意以下几个方面: 1.本题总分为 25分,按 5个档次给分。 2.评分时, 先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次, 然后以该档次 的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3.词数少于 130的, 从总分中减去 2分。 4.评分时,应主要从以下四点考虑： (1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度; (2)内容的丰富性; (3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性; (4)上下文的连贯性。 5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面, 评分时, 应视其对交际的影响程 度予以考虑。 6. 如书写较差, 以致影响交际, 将分数降低一个档次。 评分细则 分值 评分标准 第五档 (21~25分) ·与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理; ·内容丰富,应用的语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完 全不影响意义表达; ·有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档 (16~20分) ·与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理; ·内容比较丰富,应用的语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许 错误,但完全不影响意义表达; ·比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,所续写短文结构紧凑。 第三档 (11~15分) ·与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔 接; ·写出了若干有关内容,应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽 有一些错误， 但不影响意义表达; ·应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。 第二档 (6~10分) ·与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔 接; ·写出了一些有关内容,语法结构单调,词汇有限,有些语法结构和词汇 方面的错误，影响了意义的表达; 9 听力录音材料： Text 1 W: You are interested in ballet, aren't you? M: Yes. I have grown tired of modern dance and folk dance. Text 2 M: I just finished a cool book about the outer space. I suggest you read science fiction ! W: I watch a lot of science fiction movies and TV series, but I actually haven't read any science fiction novels. I' ll have to check it out! Text 3 W: Todd, what's your typical day at university like? M: Well, I usually get up around 8:00 a. m.My first class starts at 9:10 a. m. It lasts an hour. And I have lunch with my roommates, usually after 11:00 a. m. Text 4 W: Have you played baseball before? Our team needs one more player. M: Not really. But I like ball games, so I believe it will be fun to learn baseball. Text 5 M: What's the matter with Jane? She has been sitting there for hours. W: She got a call from her mother just now. She hasn't seen her mother for nearly a year. Text 6 M: Hi, Sarah. I've heard a lot about your work. Do you come here often? W: Thanks, John! Not really, but I love the atmosphere. So, what brings you here? M: I'm feeling burnt-out at work. It's good to have such a quiet coffee shop to relax. W: It is! I come here to escape the busy life sometimes. I heard they have the best cappuccino here. M: Yes. By the way, what's your favorite coffee? W: Oh, I'm a fan of latte. How about you? M: Espresso all the way. It can clear my mind. ·较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档 (1~5分) ·与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差; ·产出内容太少,语法结构单调,词汇有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面 的错误,严重影响了意义的表达; ·缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。 0 白卷、内容太少,无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。 10 Text 7 M: Good afternoon. I've received the 20 chairs I ordered here, but the legs of four chairs are broken. W: Sorry. I'm afraid there must be a problem with the delivery. Would you like me to change them? M: No, that's not necessary. Actually, I bought two spare chairs at first. And two of my colleagues quit this month. So 16 new chairs are enough. My manager wants me to ask for the return of the four broken chairs. W: I see. As soon as we receive the four broken chairs, we’ ll give your money back to your account. M: OK. Thank you. Text 8 M: Ouch! Eating this ice cream really hurts my teeth! W: You should go to see the dentist right away. M: I had a terrible experience there when I was a child. I've had bad dreams ever since. W: Oh, come on! Technology has really come a long way since then. M: Maybe I' ll just stop eating ice cream. W: That's not a bad idea. My dentist suggested eating fruit for dessert instead. M: It's very painful for me to eat fruit. I felt really bad when I had oranges at breakfast today. W: In that case, there is no question that you should have your teeth checked. Here is my dentist’ s card. You can call her when we get home. Text 9 M: I heard that you took a train journey. W: Yes, I started from Russia, travelled through Mongolia, and ended up in China. M: Wow! That was a long way! W: Yes, it was. It took three weeks. I went on a tour with ten other friends. It did cost a lot of money, but it was worth it. M: Cool! What was the landscape like? W: Much of what we saw was flatland, mile after mile. As we reached Siberia, we saw many trees. When we got to Mongolia. we caught sight of some camels and winding rivers every once in a while. M: So what did you eat during the trip? W: We stopped several times along the way and bought food that the local people were selling — dried fish and other types of Russian food. And we ate instant noodles on the train. Text 10 11 W: Hello, I have some information about your English classes. Listen carefully. The school opens on Monday and all students should do an English test then. Your first lesson is on Tuesday. There are three levels. If your lesson is too easy or too difficult, don't worry. You can try a different level on Wednesday. Now, about the rooms. English lessons are usually taught in Rooms A, B and C. But when you go to do your test, please go to Room C. It's the only one that's big enough for everyone to sit in and write at the same time. English lessons usually start at eight and last for two hours. You have two lessons each morning with a twenty-minute break between them when you can buy some coffee and snacks. Your English test only takes an hour, however. So you have time to look around the school on your first day.