内容正文:
2024-2025学年度第一学期期末阶段性监测
八年级英语试题
温馨提示:
1.本试卷共两部分,共120分,考试时间120分钟。
2.请不要在本试卷上答题,1-40题请在答题卡指定的位置上涂答案,其余题目请在答
题卡指定的位置上认真答题。
一、听力选择(1~15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
(一)根据你听到的内容,选出相应的图片,完成1~5小题。
A
0
A36
添
09
北火学
FEAING S VIVTRNTY
E
F
G
H
(二)根据你听到的对话,判断下列句子是否符合你听到的对话内容,符合的用“T”表
示,不符合的用“F”表示。
6.Mark watches sitcoms every Tuesday.
7.Lisa also likes sitcoms.
8.Lisa watches The Jimmy Kimmel Show with his sister.
9.Both Lisa's sister and Mark like watching sports shows.
10.Mark watches sports shows half an hour every day.
(三)你会听到五个人谈论未来的职业。从A到E的列表中,为每个说话者选择表达
每个人观点的字母。每个字母只用一遍。
11.Speaker 1
A.to be a basketball player
12.Speaker 2
B.to be an actor
13.Speaker 3
C.to be a teacher
14.Speaker4
D.to be an engineer
15.Speaker 5
E.to be a computer programmer
2024-2025学年度阶段性监测八年级英语试题
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®扫槽全能王
证头有明同中
请同学们把试卷翻到第二部分第四大题,继续做听力填空题。
二、完形填空。(16~25小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从16~25各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。
Sandwiches are popular in the world,but do you know where they came from?
Sandwich got its name from an English 16 called John Montagu,the Fourth Earl
of Sandwich.He lived in England about two hundred years ago.He had 17 money.
He was very rich and loved playing 18 with his friends very much.He often
played all day and night and had no time to 19 dinner.One day he played for 24
hours and felt very 20.He asked his servant (to get him some meat and bread.He
put the meat 21 the two pieces of bread so that he could 22 playing his cards.People
liked 23 idea and called the food sandwich.Today there are many different kinds of
sandwiches.You can make them at home or 24 them at restaurants easily.We love
sandwiches25 we can eat them everywhere,at workplaces,schools or parks,and
they're not expensive.
16.A.food
B.city
C.man
D.woman
17.A.a few
B.a lot of
C.a little
D.a lot
18.A.chess
B.cards
C.soccer
D.jokes
19.A.add
B.cut
C.have
D.find
20.A.hungry
B.careful
C.worried
D.angry
21.A.0n
B.at
C.with
D.between
22.A.keep
B.forget
C.stop
D.finish
23.A.its
B.his
C.her
D.their
24.A.wash
B.buy
C.sell
D.cook
25.A.if
B.until
C.because
D.although
三、阅读理解(2640小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面两篇短文,从2631各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。
A
Peter is a boy of eight.He began to go to school last year and now he's in Grade Two.
He lives not far from the school but he is often late for class.He likes watching TV in the
evening and goes to bed late,so he can't get up on time in the morning.
This term,Mrs.Black,Peter's aunt,works in Peter's school.She teaches math in
2024-2025学年度阶段性监测八年级英语试题第2页共8页
③扫槽全能王
证头南明同保中
Grade Three.She often tells the boy to come to school on time.Yesterday morning Peter got
up late.When he ran quickly to school,it was half past eight.His aunt was waiting for him
at the school gate."You're ten minutes late for first class,Peter,"Mrs.Black said angrily.
"Why are you often late for school?""Every time I get to the street corner,I see the
guidepost(路标).It says,SCHOOL-G0SLOW!(慢行),”said Peter.
26.Peter is often late for school because
A.he doesn't like playing
B.he can't get up on time in the morning
C.he can't sleep well at night
D.he lives very far from school
27.Mrs.Black is a
A.teacher
B.worker
C.farmer
D.policewoman
28.The guidepost is in fact(实际上)for
A.teachers
B.Peter
C.students
D.drivers
B
My name is Linda.I'm from Australia.I live in a small town.I'm fourteen years old.I
am going to go to Green High School next year.When I was 8 years old,I sang songs that I
loved from the TV.It became a habit.As I grew up,I got better and better at it.Now I sing
every day.I love singing.Singing makes me feel free and happy.People always tell me that I
have a beautiful voice and that I should use it.Last year I took part in our city's singing
contest ()I won first prize.From then on,I decided to be a singer because I like
singing and I am good at it.I hope I can become a singer.I am going to tour around
America,England and other countries to give concerts.I am going to be famous.I'm going
to use part of the money from the concerts to help poor children.But if my dream doesn't
come true,I am not going to be sad.I am not going to stop singing.I sing just because I like
it.
29.Where is Linda from?
A.Australia.
B.America.
C.England.
D.France.
30.The underlined(划线的)word“voice'”means(意思是)“
in Chinese.
A.面容
B.嗓音
C.心灵
D.身材
31.The passage(文章)is mainly(主要地)about Linda's
A.dream
B.school
C.family
D.life
2024-2025学年度阶段性监测
八年级英语试题
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国扫全能王
c
读下面的文章,然后判断文章后面32~35小题,正确的答案写T,错误的答案写F。
Dear Linda,
I'm really glad to receive your letter.You said you were learning to cook.Is it interesting?
I think if you want to keep healthy,food is very important.You'll be in good health if you try
different kinds of foods,especially vegetables and fruit.I eat them every day.
You asked me how to make a milk shake.There are many different kinds of milk
shakes,such as apple'milk shake,banana milk shake and carrot milk shake.Carrot milk
shake is my favorite,because carrots and milk are both good for health.Before starting,we
need a carrot,a glass of milk,some ice and two teaspoons of honey.Of course,you need a
blender.
Now,let's start.First,wash fhe carrot and cut it up.Next,put the carrot,the milk,
some ice and two teaspoons of honey into the blender.Then turn on the blender.Keep it
working for only one minute.Finally,pour the carrot shake in a glass and drink it.It's
delicious!
I want to learn how to make Chinese food,for example,dumplings.Could you teach
me?Write soon!
Yours,
Sally
32.Two kinds of milk shakes are mentioned(被提及)in the passage(文章).
33.Banana milk shake is Sally's favorite.
34.Sally needs a blender to make a carrot milk shake.
35.To make a milk shake,we should turn on the blender first.
D
七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据对话内容,从对话后的选项中选出能填入3640小题横线上的最佳选项。
A:Hello,Cindy!What did you do last weekend?
B:36
A:Did you see anything interesting there?
B:Yes,I did.37 It was really interesting.
A:What do the robots look like?
B:38 Some robots look like eyes.Some robots look like big bugs ()Others even
look like hands.
A:What can they do?
B:They can do housework like cleaning the floor and cooking food.39
A:What do you think robots will be like in the future?
B:_40
A:Yeah,I agree with you.
2024-2025学年度阶段性监测八年级英语试题
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器国扫槽全能王
对福证女南用用保-
444444
A.They have many different shapes.
六
B.I went to the science museum with my friend.
每
C.I had a great time last weekend.
简单的
Dearl
D.I saw a robot show.
E.I think robots will be human-like and more helpful in the future.
their l
F.It was sunny and hot.
p
G Also,they can play chess with people.
quiter
the w
四、听力填空(4145小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
1
斯
听下面一段短文,请根据所听内容完成下面的填空。每个空一词。把答案写在答题卡
world
4145小题的横线上。
from
41....,but she is a very
girL
42.Ms.White is so
and very helpful.
of st
期
43.Karen likes to
with her.
back,
44.Ms.White also helps Karen to
the problems in her study.
45.I hope Karen can do
in all her subjects.
song
五、语法填空(46~55小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料并填空,有的答案要填入适当的内容,有的答案要用括号内单词的正确
形式,但每个答案不多于3个单词。把答案写在答题卡46~55小题的横线上。
56.
Dear Tony,
57.
解
Thanks a lot for your46(invite).I'm 47(real)sorry I can't go to your
58.
house 48Saturday afternoon.I am going to take a vacation on the beach on
59
Saturday and Sunday with many49(friend).I am very busy this week.On
Monday,I must study for my science test.I feel worried about it.On Tuesday,I'm going
60
to my 50(uncle)house to visit him.He phoned me last week and 51(tell)me
that he missed me very much.On Wednesday,I have to look after my grandfather 52 he is
ill.On Thursday,I have to help my parents with some housework.And I have 53 guitar
茶
lesson on Friday.My mom thinks I can do much better in the guitar in this way.On Friday
evening,I would like 54(go)for a walk with my brother in the park.Can you come and
join55(we)?
Write soon.
Jessica
20242025学年度阶段性监测八年级英语试题
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六、整理笔记(56~60小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
读下面的文章,根据L血da参加的学校郊游信息,请在答题卡56~60每个题目下做
简单的笔记。
Dear Mom and Dad,
I'm doing fine here.Yesterday was October 2nd and Kitty's teacher invited me to join
their school trip to the World Park.I enjoyed myself!
It was a fine warm day.The sun was shining in a clear blue sky.The World Park is
quite far away.It took us about two hours to get there by bus.There was a lot of traffic on
the way and the journey was a little boring.
We finally arrived at the park.All of us couldn't wait to get off the bus.Soon the whole
world was there in front of us.There are models of more than a hundred places of interest
from all over the world.They are small but wonderful.
We became very excited when we saw the model Eiffel Towel(埃菲尔铁塔),It is made
of steel (and is really tall.The model Golden Gate Bridge looked as great as the one
back home.I couldn't believe my eyes.
It was an amazing day because we saw the main sights of the world in just one day.The
song and dance shows were also wonderful.We learnt a lot about different cultures ()
Love,
Linda
56.Date:」
57.Place:
58.Weather:
59.How to go:
60.About the park:
1There are models of more than
from all over the world.
②The】
shows were wonderful.
七、补全句子(61~65小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
根据汉语意思完成英语句子,每个空格填一个单词。把答案写在答题卡61~65小题的
横线上。
61.你每天晚上睡多少小时?
hours do you sleep every night?
2024-2025学年度阶段性监测
八年级英语试题
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国扫全能王
证人事南用同
62.我不在乎朋友是否和我相同。
I don't care if my friends are the
me.
63.不要忘记加一些水。
to add some water.
64.两年前那些老房子倒塌了。
The old buildings
two years ago.
65.如果他穿牛仔裤去参加聚会,他将会看起来很难看。
If he
jeans to the party,he
look the worst.
八、回答问题。6670小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
读下面的文章,回答问题,把答案写在答题卡66~70小题的横线上。
You may know the song Happy Birthday very well.But do you know about its writer?
It was written by an American girl.And she became very rich after that.
When she was a child,she was poor.Once,her friend invited her to her birthday party.
She was sad because she didn't have enough money to buy a gift for her.
“The party is coming soon,but now I have little money.”Tears(眼r泪)ran down her
face.
Later that night she was in bed,thinking about the gift when the door opened and her
grandma came in."What happened?"her grandma asked.Hearing the girl's story,she said,
"Don't worry.I think I can help you.How about singing a song together?Happy birthday
to ...What a beautiful song!They sang and sang.Suddenly she woke up.It was a dream!
She decided to write it down at once and sing it to her friends at the party.
When she sang the song at the party the next day,her friends were very happy."How
wonderfully you sing!We haven't heard such a beautiful song before.Thank you for giving
me the special(特殊的)gift,”said her friend.And they learnt to sing it together.Later the
girl became well-known(众所周知)in America,
66.Who wrote the song Happy Birthday?
67.Why was the girl sad when her friend invited her to her birthday party?
68.Did she go to her friend's birthday party?
69.What gift did she give her friend?
70.What did her friends think of the song?
2024-2025学年度阶段性监测八年级英语试题
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餐国扫调全能王
九、书面表达(满分15分)
新年是许下新年决心的好时机。你一定还记得去年你的新年决心,它们都实现了吗?
新的一年又到了,请你根据下列提示写一篇英语短文,首先介绍你去年最重要的新年决心,
然后谈谈你今年的新年决心和计划(如:锻炼身体、帮忙做家务、旅游、学一门乐器等)
以及如何实现。
内容提示:
1.What was your most important New Year's resolution last year?How did you keep
it?
2.What are your resolutions this year?(写2条新年打算)
3.How are you going to do that?
要求:
1,短文应包括提示中所有的写作要点,条理清楚,行文连贯,可适当发挥。
2.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名。
3.词数80词左右。
2024-2025学年度阶段性监测八年级英语试题
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2024~2025学年度第一学期末阶段性诊断
八年级英语参考答案
一、听力选择 (1~15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
1-5 EHGDB 6-10 FFFTT 11-15 EADBC
二、完形填空。(16~25小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
16-20 CBBCA 21-25 DABBC
三、 阅读理解 (26~31小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
26-28 BAD 29-31 ABA 32-35 FFTF 36-40 BDAGE
四、 听力填空(41~45小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
41. careless 42. kind 43. talk 44. solve 45. better
五、语法填空 (46~55小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
46. invitation 47. really 48. on 49. friends 50. uncle’s
51. told 52. because 53. a 54. to go 55. us
六、整理笔记(56~60小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
56. October 2nd
57. the World Park
58. a fine warm day/ fine, warm and sunny
59. by bus
60. ① a hundred places of interest ② song and dance
评卷时:本大题答案意思对即可,可以有不同过得表述。错三个词扣一分。
七、补全句子(61~65小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
61. How, many 62. same, as 63. Don’t, forget 64. fell down 65. wears, will
八、回答问题。 (66~70小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
66. An American girl.
67. Because she didn’t have enough money to buy a gift.
68. Yes, she did./ Yes.
69. A song.
70. It was beautiful/ wonderful./ They liked the song.
评卷时:本大题答案意思对即可,可以有不同过得表述。
九、书面表达 (满分15分)
一、评分原则:
1.本题总分为15 分,按五个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次
的要求,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数不符合要求 的,从总分中减去 2 分。
4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇均可接受。
6.如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点:参考提供的要点。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求:
第五档(很好):(13—15 分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
■覆盖所有内容要点。
■应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
■语法结构和词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。
■有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(好): (10—12 分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
■虽漏掉了 1、2 个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
■应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求。
■语法结构或词汇方面基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
■运用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(适当):(7—9 分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
■虽漏掉了一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
■应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
■有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
■应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(较差):(4—6 分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
■漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
■语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
■有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
■较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(差): (1—3 分)
未完成试题规定的任务。
■明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
■语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
■缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。0 分未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法判断;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。四、说明:
1.内容要点可用不同方式表达。
2.对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
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