安徽省六安市清水河学校2024-2025学年上学期九年级期末考试英语试卷

2024—2025学年度第一学期九年级期末素质评估英语试题 注意事项： 1.本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2.全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卷”或“答题卡”（2页）两部分。 3.请务必在“答题卷”或“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。 4.考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。 第一部分 听力 （共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What did Mary use to be afraid of? A. B. C. 2. How is Jane feeling? A. B. C. 3. What is the girl supposed to do when she meets her pen friend? A. To shake hands. B. To kiss her face. C. To bow. 4. What invention are the speakers talking about? A. The computer. B. The TV. C. The mobile phone. 5. How does Peter learn English? A. By watching English movies. B. By listening to tapes. C. By reading English novels. Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听对话，回答以下各小题。 6. Whose toy truck is this? A. Maria’s. B. Maria’s brother’s. C. Deng Tao’s. 7. What does Deng Tao want to be in the future? A. A reporter. B. An actor. C. A scientist. 听对话，回答以下各小题。 8. Where does Alice have to do her homework? A. At home. B. At school. C. At her friend’s home. 9. How long can the boy play the computer games on school days? A. For half an hour. B. For one hour. C. For two hours. 10. When is Alice allowed to go to the movies? A. On school days. B. On Sunday evening. C. On Saturday evening. Ⅲ.短文理解（共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 听短文，回答以下各小题。 11. Who gave the speaker a shirt? A. Andy. B. David. C. Eric. 12. What was in the red gift box? A. A gift card. B. A birthday card. C. A scarf. 13. Where can the gift card be used? A. In the shopping mall. B. In the restaurant. C. In the bookstore. 14. What was the gift basket filled with? A. Postcards. B. Snacks. C. CDs. 15. What kind of CD did Joe give to the speaker? A. Rock. B. Country. C. Pop. Ⅳ.信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 An introduction of ChatGPT Characteristics（特点） ●a（n） 16 AI chatting（聊天） robot ●to tell why the picture looks 17 ●to write stories and emails, 18 menus, translate languages, and answer all kinds of questions Worries ●making it easier for students to 19 ●spreading wrong information Action ●not allowed in some schools in the US, 20 and Australia 第二部分 英语知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. After class, our English teacher always ______ us into several groups so that we can discuss and share our ideas. A. replaces B. presents C. breaks D. divides 2. —Is that the ________ spelling? —I don’t know. Let me look it up in the dictionary. A. strange B. typical C. direct D. correct 3. Studies shows that if you are interested in something, it’s easy for you to pay ________ to it for a long time. A. ability B. attention C. direction D. doubt 4. —Is everybody here? —No, we are all here ________ Peter. A. with B. against C. besides D. except 5. ________ Jim ________ his cousins have been to America, but both of them know the city well. A. Not only; but also B. Both; and C. Neither; nor D. Either; or 6. —Listen, Mary is singing in the next room. —It ________ be Mary. She has a sore throat today. A. can’t B. mustn’t C. may D. could 7. It’s said that the music festival ________ if the heavy rain doesn’t stop. A. will be cancelled B. will cancel C. was cancelled D. is cancelling 8. —Sorry, the plane will take off soon. Please ________ your mobile phone, sir. —OK, I will. A. turn on B. depend on C. look through D. shut off 9. —Do you like watching game shows? —No. I like shows ________ can make me laugh. A. that B. what C. when D. who 10. —China has developed very quickly in science and technology these years. —________ I feel proud of it. A. Good Luck. B. That’s true. C. No problem. D. It’s a good idea. Ⅵ.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A As an American college student who is in the rich Chinese culture right here in Beijing, my life is both exciting and challenging. Now, Beijing is such a(n) ____11____ city that mixes different cultures. However, this also makes learning Chinese a bit ____12____, since so many locals speak English fluently (流利地)! At first, I ____13____ myself speaking English more often than Chinese. But my world changed when I started to explore Chinese ____14____. It was like finding hidden treasures. The old stories, many kinds of tea, and classic tea cups were all shared in ____15____, offering me a special way to learn the language. While tasting different tea, I picked up new words and met people who taught me more about tea and Chinese. I’ve been ____16____ tea for six or seven years now, and it’s been a daily adventure (冒险) about Chinese language use. What’s super exciting is ____17____ to the past, like the Qing, Ming, or even earlier Chinese dynasties. I get to ____18____ where different kinds of tea come from and see how tea influenced the culture. Tea isn’t just a drink; it’s a ____19____ into history, through which I’ve been able to view and learn about China’s past. This journey has improved my ____20____ of Chinese culture. And through Chinese tea, I’m not only learning words but also experiencing the essence (本质) of the country. 11. A. crowded B. ancient C. international D. clean 12. A. difficult B. proper C. special D. popular 13. A. suggested B. found C. provided D. pushed 14. A. food B. painting C. opera D. tea 15. A. Russian B. Chinese C. English D. Japanese 16. A. making B. drying C. inventing D. studying 17. A. going back B. getting up C. looking up D. giving back 18. A. create B. know C. match D. weigh 19. A. window B. desk C. chair D. room 20. A. memory B. position C. situation D. understanding B When eating out, people want to have a great experience. It means that they expect not only nice ____21____ but also the good atmosphere (气氛) in the restaurant. One thing people shouldn’t do at a table is talking on a mobile phone. Such ____22____ is thought to be impolite to the people around you. It is important to use good manners in the restaurant, including the people who are ____23____ you. Always say “please” and “thank you” to the waiters (服务员). These simple ____24____ can improve the service. Table manners are ____25____, too. Keep your elbows off the table when you are eating. Always chew (咀嚼) your food with your ____26____ closed. If you want to say something, ____27____ eating before speaking up. It is not OK to talk with your mouth ____28____. Kids should not ____29____ the tables in a restaurant. They should stay in their seat during the meal. Make sure they don’t make noise or cause trouble to other people. Being ____30____ in a restaurant helps everyone have a good time. As long as people show respect (尊敬) for others, everyone will have fun eating. 21. A. advice B. food C. music D. health 22. A. action B. fact C. game D. plan 23. A. pushing B. missing C. serving D. watching 24. A. decisions B. rules C. promise D. words 25. A. important B. different C. strict D. special 26. A. eyes B. ears C. mouth D. nose 27. A. finish B. hope C. stop D. throw 28. A. empty B. full C. tiny D. wide 29. A. take back B. look through C. pick up D. run around 30. A. alive B. brave C. polite D. proud Ⅶ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: David, what are you doing? B: I am listening to some quiet music. ___31___ A: Really? But I prefer music that is loud. ___32___ B: Why do you like loud music? A: Because I like dancing to it. ___33___ B: That must be very fun with so many people. A: Yeah. ___34___ Would you like to come? B: I’d love to. I want to dance with you and your friends. A: Great ___35___ B: OK. See you. A. We will have a party tonight. B. I don’t listen to the quiet music often. C. I enjoy dancing alone to the loud music. D. I also invite lots of friends to dance with me. E. They always make me relaxed. F. See you at six in the school music hall. G. Do you like R&B music? 第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Parks are public spaces. They provide us with a place to enjoy and rest. In order to have a fun and safe time, we should follow the park rules. Here are some rules of some parks. Dolores Park Open hours: 6:00 a. m. to 10:00 p. m. ▲No smoking. ▲Dogs must be kept on a leash (牵引绳). ▲Dog walkers must pick up dog waste. ▲Don’t feed birds or animals. ▲No camping or fires. ▲Keep Dolores Park clean. Central Park Open hours: 6:30 a. m. to 9:30 p. m. ▲Keep the park clean. ▲No unleashed dogs. ▲No feeding birds. ▲Don’t enter the park after it is closed. ▲No performing. Bolin Park Open hours: 7:00 a. m. to 9:00 p. m. ▲Children must be with adults. ▲No climbing on any monuments (纪念碑). ▲No overnight camping allowed. ▲Please use waste containers (容器). ▲No restrooms in the park. Veterans Park Open hours: 5:30 a. m. to 10:00 p. m. ▲No skateboarding or bike riding. ▲No smoking. ▲No camping. ▲Feed the birds with food that the park offers you. 36. What time can you get into Dolores Park? A. At 5:25 a. m. B. At 6:15 a. m. C. At 10:05 p. m. D. At 11:35 p. m. 37. Which park can’t Peter, a three-year-old boy, go alone? A. Dolores Park. B. Central Park. C. Bolin Park. D. Veterans Park. 38 What can people do in Veterans Park? A. Feed birds. B. Go camping. C. Skateboard. D. Ride bikes. B Zhao Chengnan is a college student. When her 22nd birthday was coming, she decided to celebrate it in a special way. She wanted to climb China’s Five Great Mountains in five days. When she was a middle school student, Zhao had an interest in sports and started to ride bikes and climb mountains. So when she talked about climbing the five mountains, her family thought it was a good idea. On April 25, Zhao reached the top of Mount Huashan after a four-hour climb. Then she took trains and buses, and even had a two-hour night climb in Mount Songshan. She then climbed Mount Taishan and Mount Hengshan in Shanxi. The most difficult part was climbing Mount Hengshan in Hunan. “It wasn’t difficult to climb, but I was really tired at that time.” Zhao said. She didn’t have enough time to sleep. After getting to the top of Mount Hengshan, she quickly got back to school. Zhao said planning the trip wasn’t an easy job, either. She needed to book tickets and leave enough time to rest before the next climb. However, she sounded pretty happy when she described the excitement of travelling under the stars, watching the amazing sunrise, and enjoying free winds at the top of the mountains. “The trip is also a gift for my mum, who brought me into this world and has been there for me all these years,” Zhao said. 39. What does the underlined word “it” refer to (指的是)? A. Riding bikes. B. Celebrating the birthday. C. Climbing mountains. D. Having a party. 40. What does the third paragraph mainly talk about? A. How Zhao finished her trip. B. Why Zhao started her trip. C. What Zhao thought of her trip. D. When Zhao finished climbing. 41. What does Zhao think of travelling in nature? A. Worried. B. Surprised. C. Tired. D. Excited. 42. What’s the best title (标题) for the text? A. How to climb mountains B. How to spend a special birthday C. How to travel for a birthday D. How to play sports for a birthday C A broken heart or a sad ending to something. That’s something most of us have experienced, or probably will. After all, it’s part of life. But this experience can be devastating. Many people may find it difficult to get over. However, research shows listening to sad music is a good way to help you go through the sadness. In other words, sad music can help comfort (安抚) you. Another research, from the University of Kent, found that when people were experiencing sadness, listening to music that was “beautiful but sad” raised their spirits. In fact, it did so when the person found out the situation causing their sadness, and then began listening to the sad music. When people wished that the sad music might help, they found it did. These findings have something to do with the other studies that show accepting your full experience gives you hope. For example, a research from Cornell University found that embracing (拥抱) difficulties about a life experience or new situation, and regarding it as a step towards growth and change, helps you to pass through it. 43. What does the underlined word “devastating” probably mean? A. Painful. B. Shameful. C. Hopeful. D. Cheerful. 44. What can you learn from Paragraph 2? A. People in sadness prefer sad music. B. The University of Kent did research on students. C. When people think sad music can be good, it will help. D. The advantages of sad music have been studied clearly by scientists. 45. What helps people pass through difficulties according to the text? A. Listening to music. B. Asking friends for help. C. Communicating with people. D. Taking difficulties as a kind of growth. D Bi Sheng was born in the Song Dynasty. He lived in a small village which lies in Huanggang today. He invented the printing around 600 AD. He is the world’s first inventor of the printing. It is about 400 years earlier than the printing in Germany. The printing is also called the movable type printing (活字印刷). But how did it work in the past? First of all, the clay was made into movable types. Then words were engraved (雕刻) carefully onto the types. After that the words were chosen and put in right order in a box (方框) according to the text. Next, the workers brushed ink (墨) onto the movable types. Finally, the types could be used for printing. They could be used again and again for different books. The movable type printing plays an important role in Chinese culture. With the help of it, Chinese culture spread around the world more quickly. At the same time, the movable type printing was widely used in the world at that time. As a result, more and more culture communication among countries took place. The movable type printing, the compass (指南针), gunpowder (火药) and the paper—making are called “Four Great Inventions of Ancient China”. They make China own an important and even top position in the history of human civilization (文明). 46. When was the movable type printing invented? A. About 600 years ago. B. Around 600 AD. C. Before the Song Dynasty. D. About 400 years ago. 47. What should the workers do after the words were chosen and put in right order? A. Brush ink onto the types. B. Make the clay into movable types. C. Print by using the types. D. Engrave words onto the types. 48. How many steps of the movable type printing are mentioned in the text? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six. 49. What’s the text mainly about? A. Four great inventions and their position in the history. B. How the movable type printing worked in the past. C. The movable type printing and its importance. D. How Bi Sheng invented the movable type printing. E The snake comes sixth in the Chinese Zodiac (生肖). In Western culture, snakes are usually considered dark and terrible such as The Farmer and the Viper (《农夫与蛇》), and Voldemort, the main bad character in Harry Potter, whose true form is a snake. It’s not hard to understand. Because snakes, with their strange look and sound, are not exactly cute. But believe it or not, in traditional Chinese culture, snakes are actually a symbol of something good. In Chinese folk stories, for example, the creator of man is a goddess named Nüwa, who had a human head and the body of a snake. She created humans with the yellow earth. Nüwa was kind, peace-loving and brave. She lost her life to mend (修补) the broken sky. In China, the snake is also known as xiaolong, the little dragon. Because in Chinese culture, a snake is believed to be like dragons in some way, which may explain why the snake comes right after the dragon in the Chinese Zodiac. 50. What are snakes like in western culture? A. Kind and brave. B. Smart and beautiful. C. Dark and terrible. D. Ugly and scary. 51. Who had a human head and the body of a snake? A. Voldemort. B. Harry Potter. C. The farmer. D. Nüwa. 52. In which part of a magazine can we see the text? A. Culture. B. Education. C. Nature. D. Travel. F 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。 Mr. White was in bed and was trying to go to sleep when he heard the bell ring. He turned on the light and looked at his clock. It was twelve o’clock. “Who can it be at this time of a night?” He thought. He decided to go and find out. So he got off bed, put on his dressing gown (晨衣) and went to the door. When he opened the door, there was nobody there. “That’s very strange.” he thought. Then he went back to his bedroom, took off his dressing gown, got back into bed, turned off the light and tried to go to sleep. A few minutes later he heard the bell ring again. Mr. White jumped out of bed very quickly and rushed to the door. He opened it, but again he found no one there. He closed the door and felt angry. Then he saw a piece of paper on the floor. He picked it up. There were some words on it, “It is now after midnight, so it is April Fool’s Day. April fool to you!” “Oh, it was the English boy next door!” Mr. White exclaimed (惊叹) and almost smiled. He went back to bed and fell asleep at once. The bell did not ring again. 53. What was Mr. White doing when the bell rang? (不超过 10个词) _____________________________________________________________________ 54. How did Mr. White feel when he heard the bell ring the second time? (不超过5个词) _____________________________________________________________________ 55. What can we do on April Fool’s Day according to the text? (不超过 15个词) _____________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） IX.单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 56. The little boy tried to p________ (拖) the big toy car into his bedroom. 57. Knowledge is a kind of w________ (财富) that can never be taken away from us. 58. The Shenzhou-18 l________ (着陆) safely on Earth last year. 59. The two little w________ (狼) got separated from their parents unluckily. 60. My parents encourage me to be a________ (活跃的) in social activities and make more friends. X.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 61. 初三上学期的生活即将结束，寒假即将到来。假设你是李华，请你根据以下提示，用英语写一封电子邮件给爸爸妈妈，总结本学期的收获，并制定出寒假计划。 本学期的收获 养成了良好的学习习惯，提高了英语成绩； 在学习上帮助同学，收获了友谊。 寒假计划 旅游：享受美食，放松心情； 阅读：了解中外文化； 运动：练习跑步，为体测（physical education test）做准备； …… 要求： 1. 内容可以适当发挥，以保证内容的完整、丰富与流畅； 2. 不可出现真实的人名、地名和校名； 3. 词数80—100。作文开头及结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear mum and dad, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 2024—2025学年度第一学期九年级期末素质评估英语试题 注意事项： 1.本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2.全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卷”或“答题卡”（2页）两部分。 3.请务必在“答题卷”或“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。 4.考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。 第一部分 听力 （共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What did Mary use to be afraid of? A. B. C. 2. How is Jane feeling? A B. C. 3. What is the girl supposed to do when she meets her pen friend? A. To shake hands. B. To kiss her face. C. To bow. 4 What invention are the speakers talking about? A. The computer. B. The TV. C. The mobile phone. 5. How does Peter learn English? A. By watching English movies. B. By listening to tapes. C. By reading English novels. Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听对话，回答以下各小题。 6. Whose toy truck is this? A. Maria’s. B. Maria’s brother’s. C. Deng Tao’s. 7. What does Deng Tao want to be in the future? A. A reporter. B. An actor. C. A scientist. 听对话，回答以下各小题。 8. Where does Alice have to do her homework? A At home. B. At school. C. At her friend’s home. 9. How long can the boy play the computer games on school days? A. For half an hour. B. For one hour. C. For two hours. 10. When is Alice allowed to go to the movies? A. On school days. B. On Sunday evening. C. On Saturday evening. Ⅲ.短文理解（共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 听短文，回答以下各小题。 11. Who gave the speaker a shirt? A. Andy. B. David. C. Eric. 12. What was in the red gift box? A. A gift card. B. A birthday card. C. A scarf. 13. Where can the gift card be used? A. In the shopping mall. B. In the restaurant. C. In the bookstore. 14. What was the gift basket filled with? A. Postcards. B. Snacks. C. CDs. 15. What kind of CD did Joe give to the speaker? A. Rock. B. Country. C. Pop. Ⅳ.信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 An introduction of ChatGPT Characteristics（特点） ●a（n） 16 AI chatting（聊天） robot ●to tell why the picture looks 17 ●to write stories and emails, 18 menus, translate languages, and answer all kinds of questions Worries ●making it easier for students to 19 ●spreading wrong information Action ●not allowed in some schools in the US, 20 and Australia 第二部分 英语知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】D 【2题答案】 【答案】D 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】D 【5题答案】 【答案】C 【6题答案】 【答案】A 【7题答案】 【答案】A 【8题答案】 【答案】D 【9题答案】 【答案】A 【10题答案】 【答案】B Ⅵ.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. C 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. D B 【21~30题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. C Ⅶ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. E 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. F 第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A 【36~38题答案】 【答案】36. B 37. C 38. A B 【39~42题答案】 【答案】39. C 40. A 41. D 42. B C 【43~45题答案】 【答案】43. A 44. C 45. D D 【46~49题答案】 【答案】46. B 47. A 48. C 49. C E 【50~52题答案】 【答案】50. C 51. D 52. A F 【53~55题答案】 【答案】53. He was trying to go to sleep. 54. He felt very angry. 55. We can play jokes on each other on that day. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） IX.单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 【56题答案】 【答案】(p)ull 【57题答案】 【答案】(w)ealth 【58题答案】 【答案】(l)anded 【59题答案】 【答案】(w)olves 【60题答案】 【答案】(a)ctive X.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 【61题答案】 【答案】例文 Dear mum and dad, This term is going to end soon. I’m excited to share with you the progress I’ve made this term and my plans for the upcoming winter vacation. This term has been quite productive. I’ve developed good study habits and my English grades have improved. I also helped my classmates with their studies, which allowed me to forge some great friendships. For the winter holiday, I have a few plans. I’m looking forward to traveling to new places, enjoying local cuisines and relaxing. I plan to read extensively to learn about different cultures both from China and abroad. What’s more, I will practice running to prepare for my physical education test. Lastly, I will spend quality time with family. Yours, Li Hua 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$