黄金卷03（山西专用）-【赢在中考·黄金8卷】备战2025年中考英语模拟卷

null 【赢在中考·黄金8卷】备战2025年中考英语模拟卷（山西专用） 黄金卷03 听力部分（共20分） 一、情景反应 （每小题1分，共5分） 本题共有五个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话。请从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中，选出与你所听到的信息相关联的一项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 1． A． B． C． 2． A． B． C． 【3． A． B． C． 4． A． B． C． 5． A． B． C． 二、对话理解 （每小题1分，共5分） 本题共有五个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话和一个问题。请从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 6．A．Dumplings. B．Beef. C．Chicken. 7．A．On the first floor. B．On the second floor. C．On the third floor. 8．A．She needs the boy’s help. B．She is busy helping others. C．She has no trouble finishing her project. 9．A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week. 10．A．Mike doesn’t have a talent for playing the guitar. B．Hard work is as important as talent. C．Mike should keep playing the guitar. 三、语篇理解 （每小题1分，共5分） 本题你将听到一个语篇，请根据所听内容和所提出的五个问题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 11．What time did Roy hear the bell ring for the first time? A．At 12:05 p.m. B．At 12:00 p.m. C．At 11:55 p.m. 12．What did Roy do when he heard the bell ring again? A．He rushed to the door. B．He went on sleeping. C．He called the police. 13．How did Roy feel when he found nobody at the door for the second time? A．He felt more worried. B．He felt angrier. C．He felt more scared. 14．Where did Roy see a note? A．On the door. B．On the window. C．On the floor. 15．Who wrote the note? A．Roy’s neighbor. B．Roy’s brother. C．Roy’s friend. 四、听力填空（每小题1分，共5分） 本题你将听到一个语篇，请根据所听内容，完成下面的句子，并将获取的信息写在答题卡相应的位置上。每空一词。 Take a daytime nap (午休)Almost everyone in Shanxi takes a nap after lunch. Taking a nap is good for people’s 16 . Benefits(好处): ·After the nap, people can feel more relaxed. ·It can also help people plan things 17 in the afternoon. ·People can even 18 things better through it. ·Quite a few people believe that they can become more 19 after a nap. Advice: You’d better have a nap for about 20 minutes. 笔试部分（共100分） 五、补全对话 （每小题2分，共10分） 请根据下面的对话内容，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。                                                                                    Hello. Susan! What are you doing? Hi. John! 21 I want to give it to the teacher as breakfast. Let me help you. 22 We need bread tomatoes, turkey and an egg. Do we need butter? 23 It will add a special taste to it. She’ll love it. Sure she will! 24 One spoon is enough. OK. Here you are. It looks great! Thanks for your help. 25 六、完形填空（每小题1分，共8分） 请阅读下面语篇，理解其大意，然后从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 One day, I took my kid to the playground in my neighborhood. As soon as we got there, my daughter ran to a swing and 26 for a push. When I was helping my daughter, I saw another girl trying to make her own swing go high by 27 . Her old grandmother was sitting on the wheelchair（轮椅）nearby and smiled at me. I soon knew what I should do next. I gave my daughter one big push and then 28 towards the little girl. I asked if she wanted me to give her a 29 . She smiled and said, “Yes, thank you.” For the next one hour, I pushed the swings, and played with my kid and the little girl. When we went home, I was very 30 , but I felt happy. Two years later, I went to pick up my kid after a day’s work one day. I was a little tired. 31 I was waiting outside the school gate, a little girl came over and gave me a big hug before 32 her school bus. The door soon cloesed and the bus left. I suddenly realized that she was the girl whom I gave a push on the swing. In our life, the love we share, the kindness we give, and the happiness we create will always come back to us with a 33 surprise some day. 26．A．helped B．asked C．called 27．A．herself B．her C．themselves 28．A．talked B．walked C．looked 29．A．gift B．hug C．push 30．A．tired B．scared C．excited 31．A．Though B．While C．However 32．A．putting on B．taking on C．getting on 33．A．pleasant B．quiet C．lonely 七、阅读理解（本题共有五个语篇，每篇后有五个小题，34～57每小题2分，58题4分，共52分） （A） 根据短文内容，从短文后面选项中选出与相应段落匹配的小标题。 Research suggests that at least 64% of people now spend up to four hours daily of spare time in front of a screen. It is bad news for our health. Try to spend some time doing something meaningful. 34 . When you’re at home, make it a rule that you can’t be online if the sun is shining. Instead you have to go out for a walk, swim or get some other kind of physical activities for at least an hour before you can pull out your phone. This rule should be fit for everyone in your family. 35 . Social networks have changed computer and mobile use for people of all ages. Whether it’s Facebook, Twitter or Snapchat, limit the amount of time you spend on social media(社交). 36 . Challenge yourself to read at least 30 pages of a great book before you check your computer or mobile phone. Pick the right reading material and you’ll soon find you’ve discovered an enjoyable pastime. 37 . It' s amazing how much you can achieve when you’re not glued to (长时间盯着)a screen Do a list of one-hour evening projects. Some suggestions are organizing kitchen cupboards and cleaning your bedroom Then try to do one each evening. 38 . When you leave away the screen, go out of the house, get together and talk with your relatives and friends. You will be surprised to find that your worries and bad mood are far away from you, and you have got friendship, family affection(亲情)and real happiness. A．Limit social media(社交) use. B．Choose outdoor activities over technology, C．Communicate with people face to face. D．Create projects for yourself. E．Save time for reading. (B) 请阅读下面语篇，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 In August, 2021, some new rules came out to restrict (限制) young people’s online game time. People under the age of 18 can only play online games three hours a week. Online games providers (提供者) can offer only one-hour service to young people from 8 p.m. to 9 p.m. on Fridays, Saturdays, Sundays and public holidays. They are very popular with teachers and parents. Zhang Zhe, a high school teacher in Nanjing, thinks online games influence students’ studies a lot. At home, parents often find it hard to stop their children from playing them. What’s worse, students might have no interest in developing friendship. “Students who become seriously addicted (上瘾的) to online games often find all kinds of excuses (借口) to play them. They also spend little on food or clothes to save their money for online games. So I think it is really necessary for the government (政府) to take action,” said Wu Li, a teacher in Wuhan. Mrs Wang, a mother of a high school student in Shanghai, had difficulty keeping her son away from online games, so she felt really glad when the new rules came out. “Whenever I tried to stop him, he got really angry. For several months, he even refused to talk to me,” said Mrs. Wang. Thanks to the rules, students can have more time to take up new hobbies. To make sure that students develop a healthier lifestyle (生活方式), schools, teachers and parents need to work closely to help young students find proper hobbies, and hold different after-school activities for them. 39．In August, 2021, what did the new rules restrict (限制)? A．Young people’s time. B．Young people’s online games. C．Young people’s online game time. 40．According to the first paragraph, which one is TRUE? A．A pupil can play online games 2 hours every day. B．A 16-year-old boy can play online games three hours a week. C．A student of 17 can play online games from 8 p.m. to 10 p.m. on Sunday. 41．Which of the following may happen to the students who are addicted to online games? A．They spend more on food and clothes. B．They have interest in making friends. C．Their studies are influenced a lot. 42．What should schools, teachers and parents do according to the last paragraph? A．They should take up hobbies and encourage the students to study hard. B．They should work together to help young students and hold different after-school activities for them. C．They should develop healthier lifestyles. 43．The passage mainly tells us ________. A．some online games are harmful to parents B．some parents and teachers welcome the new rules C．some parents and teachers are against the new rules （C) 请阅读下面语篇，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 It was Saturday evening. Rita’s parents went out, leaving Rita and her three-year-old sister Molly at home. Rita had to look after Molly. It was simply a headache for Rita! Molly refused to wash her face before bed, but Mum had said it was a must. What could Rita do? Surely she shouldn’t just let the child go to bed without having a wash. Maybe she could force (强迫) her. After all, she was much stronger than Molly. “It is the last thing I’d like to do. There must be a better way to do my job,” thought Rita. Finally, an idea came to her. Rita went into the kitchen to get what she needed. Then she ran after Molly around the living room and caught her. Rita carried Molly into the bathroom. “Would you like to practise magic?” Rita asked. She put blue and red food colouring into the sink (洗脸盆) full of water. “If you put your hands in the sink, you will turn the water purple.” Molly looked at the swirls (旋涡) of colour and got excited. Then she put her hands into the swirls of colour. Of course, the water turned purple. “Can I wash my face?” “Sure.” Ten minutes later, a tired but clean little girl was sound asleep in her bedroom while a tired babysitter was resting on the sofa. 44．What did Rita think of looking after her sister at first? A．Difficult. B．Boring. C．Tiring. 45．What does the underlined word “It” in Paragraph 2 refer to? A．Looking after Molly. B．Forcing Molly to wash her face. C．Letting Molly go to bed without having a wash. 46．Where did Rita catch her sister? A．In the kitchen. B．In the bathroom. C．In the living room. 47．Why did Molly finally want to wash her face? A．She was too tired to play. B．She wanted to please her sister. C．She found it fun to play with the water. 48．What would Rita’s parents say to Rita after arriving home? A．“Be more careful next time!” B．“Oh, dear, you did an amazing job!” C．“What a lovely sister you have!” (D) 请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使其意思通顺，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余项。 Seeing blood in a horror movie might make you cover your eyes, but real blood isn’t scary at all. 49 That’s why blood donors are considered lifesavers. Blood donors are those giving blood—usually about 200 ml at a time—to blood banks or blood donation (捐赠) centers. 50 For example, someone may have lost blood in accidents, or have a serious illness that requires his blood to be replaced. Hospitals and blood banks store the blood and try to keep enough on hand. 51 Medical workers ask donors several questions to make sure the blood is safe to use. Then the donors relax, often reading a magazine or talking as their blood is drawn. Afterward, the donors may receive some juice or water and maybe fruit to give them energy. The process is simple, not scary. 52 To give blood, a person must be at least 18 years old and must meet certain other requirements. Students of all ages, though, can learn more about the donation process by visiting a local blood donation center. 53 It is also an easy way to help a community. A．Donating blood is not difficult. B．Then the blood can be used for people in need. C．In fact, blood is the gift of life and keeps us alive. D．Donating blood is not only one of the easiest ways to save lives. E．Most people are able to donate blood again in several months if they wish. F．Most blood donation centers usually have staff trained to solve such situations quickly. （E） 请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容回答问题，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。 It’s Friday evening. My daughters sighed when I gently took the iPads away from their laps. One by one, our screens were turned off. We lit the candles and sat down to have a big meal. We call it our “Tech-Free Day” which lasts from sunset on Friday to sunset on Saturday. Now most friends know they will not be able to contact us by using computers or mobile phones for 24 hours. I first understood the importance of “Tech-Free Day” in 2008, when my father had got brain cancer. Some days he would have only one good hour, and the only thing I wanted to do was to be with him. When I looked after my father, I turned off my mobile phone. Soon after that, my husband and I decided to turn off all the electronic things for one full day every week. During our “Tech-Free Day”, time slows down. Our Saturdays now feel like mini-vacations. We drive cars or ride bikes. We work in the garden, play board games and cook meals with our kids. I feel like a better mother, wife and person. Keeping a balance between the good and the bad of technology is important for my family. The technology helps us share knowledge and funny ideas all over the world. But the technology also takes something away from us. When we stay up late at night linking from website to website or sending messages, we click again and again until we have been overloaded. Now we’re rushing into the time full of high technology. We should pay attention to what we are doing online and when we should go offline. I will always remember the most important thing in my family: Tech-Free Day. 54．When is “Tech-Free Day” in the writer’s family? 55．What did the writer and her husband decide to do after her father got cancer? 56．What change does “Tech-Free Day” bring to the writer in Paragraph 5? 57．What’s the good of technology according to the passage? 58．What other things will you do during “Tech-Free Day”? 八、词语运用（本题共有两个语篇，A篇有五个小题，B篇有十个小题，每小题1分，共15分） （A） 请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，在空白处填入适当的单词，使其通顺、连贯，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。每空一词。 You may know the song Happy Birthday very well. But do you know about its writer? It was written by an American girl. And she 59 (become) very rich after that. When she was a child, she was invited to her friend’s birthday party. She was glad but also sad because she didn’t have enough money 60 (buy) a gift for her friend. “The party is coming soon, but now I have little money.” Hearing the girl’s story, her grandma said,“How about 61 a song together? Happy birthday to...” It was a dream. She decided to write it down at once and sing it to her friend at the party. When she sang the song at the party 62 next day, her friend was very happy. “ 63 wonderfully you sing! Thank you for giving me the special gift.” said her friend. And they learnt to sing it together. （B） 请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，用方框中所给词的正确形式填空，使其通顺、连贯，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。方框中有两个词为多余项。 although   like   how   careful   life   become    afraid   what   mistakes   but   was   harder People sure change. Different people have different changes during their 64 . Let me show you my changes. I used to be 65 of speaking English in front of others. What was worse, I was so shy that I never asked for help. Every class was 66 a bad dream. I didn’t know 67 to improve my pronunciation and study well. In order to deal with my problem, I asked my teacher for help. She was so kind that she gave me a lot of advice, such as taking notes 68 , listening to tapes seriously and so on. With her help, I 69 more and more hard-working. What’s more, I practiced speaking aloud every morning and asked my classmates to correct my   70 . Finally, I improved a lot and got good grades. I 71 so proud of myself. No pains, no gains. I’m grateful for all these changes. I believe that the 72 I study, the better future I will have. 73 I know I still have a lot of problems, I believe in myself. From now on, I will try my best to study hard and make myself a better person. 九、书面表达（共15分）(请将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。) 74．学校英语校刊 Kids Post正在举办以“My favourite art club”为主题的征文活动。请按照活动要求用英文撰写一篇征文稿。 My favourite art clubWhere art meets beauty, life shines. There are three popular art clubs in our school. Which club are you in and why do you choose it? What activity impressed you most? Share your advice with new members (at least TWO tips).The closing date: 10 February, 2025 Your article should be sent to kidspost@qq.com. Music ClubSinging competition ... Painting ClubOutdoor drawing ... Drama ClubSchool play ... 注意：   1. 内容涵盖所给要点，可适当发挥； 2. 词数80左右，已给出的文章开头不计入总词数； 3. 文中不得提及有关考生个人身份的任何信息，如校名、人名等。 My favourite art club _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2 / 21 1 / 21 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 【赢在中考·黄金8卷】备战2025年中考英语模拟卷（山西专用） 黄金卷03 听力部分（共20分） 一、情景反应 （每小题1分，共5分） 1．B 2．B 3．A 4．A 5．A 二、对话理解 （每小题1分，共5分） 6．A 7．C 8．A 9．B 10．C 三、语篇理解 （每小题1分，共5分） 11．C 12．A 13．B 14．C 15．A 四、听力填空（每小题1分，共5分） 16．health 17．clearly 18．remember 19．creative 20．thirty/30 笔试部分（共100分） 五、补全对话 （每小题2分，共10分） 21．I’m making a sandwich. 22．What do we need? 23．Yes, we do. 24．How much butter do we need? 25．You’re welcome. 六、完形填空（每小题1分，共8分） 26．B 27．A 28．B 29．C 30．A 31．B 32．C 33．A 七、阅读理解（本题共有五个语篇，每篇后有五个小题，34～57每小题2分，58题4分，共52分） 34．B 35．A 36．E 37．D 38．C 39．C 40．B 41．C 42．B 43．B 44．A 45．B 46．C 47．C 48．B 49．C 50．B 51．A 52．E 53．D 54．It is/lasts from sunset on Friday to sunset on Saturday./From sunset on Friday to sunset on Saturday. 55．They decided to turn off all the electronic things for one full day every week./They decided to have their “Tech-Free Day” every week. 56．She feels like a better mother, wife and person. 57．The technology/It helps us share knowledge and funny ideas all over the world. 58．开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为：During Tech-Free Day, I will get close to nature. 八、词语运用（本题共有两个语篇，A篇有五个小题，B篇有十个小题，每小题1分，共15分） （A） 59．became 60．to buy 61．singing 62．the 63．How （B） 64．lives 65．afraid 66．like 67．how 68．carefully 69．became 70．mistakes 71．was 72．harder 73．Although 九、书面表达（共15分）(请将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。) 【参考范文】 My favourite art club I’m in the Painting Club. I choose it because I love painting and it gives me a chance to show my creativity. The activity that impressed me most was the landscape painting competition. We painted the beautiful scenery around our school. For new members, I have some advice. First, don’t be afraid to try different painting styles. It can help you find your own way. Second, observe the details of things carefully. It will make your paintings more vivid. In the Painting Club, I enjoy every moment of creating art. It enriches my school life. 2 / 21 1 / 21 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 【赢在中考·黄金8卷】备战2025年中考英语模拟卷（山西专用） 黄金卷03 听力部分（共20分） 一、情景反应 （每小题1分，共5分） 本题共有五个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话。请从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中，选出与你所听到的信息相关联的一项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 1． A． B． C． 【答案】B 【原文】A: Hi, Jack. The Dragon Boat Festival is coming. How do you often celebrate it? B: I love to watch the dragon boat race. It is fun. 2． A． B． C． 【答案】B 【原文】A: John, how often do you go to the theatre? B: At least three times a month. 3． A． B． C． 【答案】A 【原文】A: Mary, are you going to learn to play the piano or study English next year? B: Oh, those are not for me. I’m going to do sports. 4． A． B． C． 【答案】A 【原文】W: John won this year’s invention competition for his robot dog. M: Yes, I heard about that. And he got a washing machine as the prize. 5． A． B． C． 【答案】A 【原文】W: Would you like to go to the library with me tomorrow, Peter? M: Sorry, I promised to go to the movies with my sister. 二、对话理解 （每小题1分，共5分） 本题共有五个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话和一个问题。请从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 6．A．Dumplings. B．Beef. C．Chicken. 【答案】A 【原文】M: Would you like to have beef for lunch today? W: No, I ate beef yesterday. Let’s have some dumplings. Q: What does the woman want to have for lunch? 7．A．On the first floor. B．On the second floor. C．On the third floor. 【答案】C 【原文】A: Excuse me, can you tell me where the director’s office is? B: Sorry, I’m new here too, but I was told it’s on the third floor. Question: Where’s the director’s office? 8．A．She needs the boy’s help. B．She is busy helping others. C．She has no trouble finishing her project. 【答案】A 【原文】M: Jane, you look quite busy. Do you need my help? W: Yes, I know how to finish the project but I’m running out of time. Question: What does Jane mean? 9．A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week. 【答案】B 【原文】A: Sam, would you like to go shopping with me next week? B: Sorry, I’m kind of busy. I need to go to the Writing Club every Monday and take computer lessons every Wednesday and Friday. Question: How often does Sam take computer lessons? 10．A．Mike doesn’t have a talent for playing the guitar. B．Hard work is as important as talent. C．Mike should keep playing the guitar. 【答案】C 【原文】A: Wow, Molly, you have a special talent for playing the guitar. B: Thanks, Mike. You can also perform well if you keep practicing. Question: What does Molly probably mean? 三、语篇理解 （每小题1分，共5分） 本题你将听到一个语篇，请根据所听内容和所提出的五个问题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 11．What time did Roy hear the bell ring for the first time? A．At 12:05 p.m. B．At 12:00 p.m. C．At 11:55 p.m. 12．What did Roy do when he heard the bell ring again? A．He rushed to the door. B．He went on sleeping. C．He called the police. 13．How did Roy feel when he found nobody at the door for the second time? A．He felt more worried. B．He felt angrier. C．He felt more scared. 14．Where did Roy see a note? A．On the door. B．On the window. C．On the floor. 15．Who wrote the note? A．Roy’s neighbor. B．Roy’s brother. C．Roy’s friend. 【答案】11．C 12．A 13．B 14．C 15．A 【原文】 Roy was sleeping in bed when he heard the bell ring. It was 11:55 p.m. Who could it be at this time of night? He decided to go and see. When he opened the door, nobody was there. “That is very strange,” he thought. Then he went back to sleep. A few minutes later, he heard the bell ring again. Roy rushed to the door, but again he found no one there. He felt even angrier. Then he saw a note on the floor. He picked it up. There were some words on it, “It is now after midnight, so it is April Fool’s Day. You are an April fool.” It was the neighbor who wrote this note. Roy shouted, “This is not funny at all.” He went back to bed and fell asleep. The bell did not ring again. 四、听力填空（每小题1分，共5分） 本题你将听到一个语篇，请根据所听内容，完成下面的句子，并将获取的信息写在答题卡相应的位置上。每空一词。 Take a daytime nap (午休)Almost everyone in Shanxi takes a nap after lunch. Taking a nap is good for people’s 16 . Benefits(好处): ·After the nap, people can feel more relaxed. ·It can also help people plan things 17 in the afternoon. ·People can even 18 things better through it. ·Quite a few people believe that they can become more 19 after a nap. Advice: You’d better have a nap for about 20 minutes. 【答案】16．health 17．clearly 18．remember 19．creative 20．thirty/30 【原文】 Do you like taking a daytime nap? Many people in other places are surprised that almost everyone in Shanxi takes a nap after lunch. Some people think taking a nap is meaningless. In fact, it’s good for people’s health. First of all, taking a nap can make people feel more relaxed. It can also help them plan things clearly in the afternoon. What’s more, people can even remember things better through it. At the same time, quite a few people believe that they can become more creative after a nap. But it is not necessary to sleep for a long time. You’d better have a nap for about thirty minutes. 笔试部分（共100分） 五、补全对话 （每小题2分，共10分） 请根据下面的对话内容，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。                                                                                    Hello. Susan! What are you doing? Hi. John! 21 I want to give it to the teacher as breakfast. Let me help you. 22 We need bread tomatoes, turkey and an egg. Do we need butter? 23 It will add a special taste to it. She’ll love it. Sure she will! 24 One spoon is enough. OK. Here you are. It looks great! Thanks for your help. 25 【答案】21．I’m making a sandwich. 22．What do we need? 23．Yes, we do. 24．How much butter do we need? 25．You’re welcome. 【解析】本文主要为Susan和John的对话。对话主要为Susan正在做三明治准备送给老师当早餐，John帮忙一起做，二人围绕制作三明治所需食材及用量进行了交流。 21．根据“What are you doing?”、“I want to give it to the teacher as breakfast.”和“We need bread tomatoes. turkey and an egg”可知，此处Susan应介绍自己在做一个三明治。故填I’m making a sandwich. 22．根据“We need bread tomatoes, turkey and an egg.”可知，此处应询问需要什么。故填What do we need? 23．根据“Do we need butter?”和“It will add a special taste to it. She’ll love it.”可知，此处应作肯定回复。故填Yes, we do. 24．根据“Do we need butter?”和“One spoon is enough.”可知，此处应询问需要多少黄油。故填How much butter do we need? 25．根据“Thanks for your help.”可知，此处应回复不客气。故填You’re welcome. 六、完形填空（每小题1分，共8分） 请阅读下面语篇，理解其大意，然后从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 One day, I took my kid to the playground in my neighborhood. As soon as we got there, my daughter ran to a swing and 26 for a push. When I was helping my daughter, I saw another girl trying to make her own swing go high by 27 . Her old grandmother was sitting on the wheelchair（轮椅）nearby and smiled at me. I soon knew what I should do next. I gave my daughter one big push and then 28 towards the little girl. I asked if she wanted me to give her a 29 . She smiled and said, “Yes, thank you.” For the next one hour, I pushed the swings, and played with my kid and the little girl. When we went home, I was very 30 , but I felt happy. Two years later, I went to pick up my kid after a day’s work one day. I was a little tired. 31 I was waiting outside the school gate, a little girl came over and gave me a big hug before 32 her school bus. The door soon cloesed and the bus left. I suddenly realized that she was the girl whom I gave a push on the swing. In our life, the love we share, the kindness we give, and the happiness we create will always come back to us with a 33 surprise some day. 26．A．helped B．asked C．called 27．A．herself B．her C．themselves 28．A．talked B．walked C．looked 29．A．gift B．hug C．push 30．A．tired B．scared C．excited 31．A．Though B．While C．However 32．A．putting on B．taking on C．getting on 33．A．pleasant B．quiet C．lonely 【答案】26．B 27．A 28．B 29．C 30．A 31．B 32．C 33．A 【解析】本文讲述作者带自己的两个孩子去当地的操场荡秋千，帮助了另外一个小女孩，并和她一起玩。两年后，作者在学校大门口接自己孩子的时候，曾经帮助过的那个小女孩过来拥抱了作者一下，这使作者工作一天的疲惫立刻消散而去。作者认为，生活中你给予别人的爱，一定会根植于别人的心中，在你不经意的时候，它会回来回报你。 26．句意：我们一到那里，我女儿就跑到秋千前，要求我推她一把。 helped帮助；asked要求；called打电话。根据“my daughter ran to a swing and … for a push”可知，女儿要求作者推她一把，故选B。 27．句意：当我在帮助我的女儿时，我看到另一个女孩试图让她自己的秋千飞得更高。 herself她自己；her她；themselves他们自己。by oneself“独自”，根据another girl可知，此空应填反身代词herself，故选A。 28．句意：我使劲推了女儿一把，然后走向小女孩。 talked谈论；walked走路；looked看。根据“I asked if she wanted me to give her a”可知，作者走向这个女孩，询问这个女孩是否需要作者推她一把，故选B。 29．句意：我问她要不要我推她一把。 gift礼物；hug拥抱；push推。根据“I pushed the swings”可知，询问是否要推她一把，故选C。 30．句意：当我们回家时，我很累，但我感到高兴。 tired疲惫的；scared害怕的；excited兴奋的。根据“but I felt happy”可知，前半句应是表示与happy相反的词义，tired符合语境，故选A。 31．句意：当我在校门外等着的时候，一个小女孩走了过来，在上她的校车之前给了我一个大大的拥抱。 Though尽管；While当……时；However然而。根据“I was waiting outside the school gate, a little girl came over and gave me a big hug”可知，此空缺少时间状语连词引导两个句子，故选B。 32．句意：当我在校门外等着的时候，一个小女孩走了过来，在上她的校车之前给了我一个大大的拥抱。 putting on穿上；taking on承担；getting on上车。根据“before…her school bus”及“The door soon cloesed and the bus left.”可知，此处指在上校车前，故选C。 33．句意：在我们的生活中，我们分享的爱，我们给予的善意，我们创造的幸福，总有一天都会以一个令人愉悦的惊喜返还给我们。 pleasant愉快的；quiet安静的；lonely孤单的。根据前一段的描述，作者曾经帮助的女孩，在作者结束了一天疲惫的工作时，给了她温暖的拥抱，这对于作者来说是一个愉快的惊喜，故选A。 七、阅读理解（本题共有五个语篇，每篇后有五个小题，34～57每小题2分，58题4分，共52分） （A） 根据短文内容，从短文后面选项中选出与相应段落匹配的小标题。 Research suggests that at least 64% of people now spend up to four hours daily of spare time in front of a screen. It is bad news for our health. Try to spend some time doing something meaningful. 34 . When you’re at home, make it a rule that you can’t be online if the sun is shining. Instead you have to go out for a walk, swim or get some other kind of physical activities for at least an hour before you can pull out your phone. This rule should be fit for everyone in your family. 35 . Social networks have changed computer and mobile use for people of all ages. Whether it’s Facebook, Twitter or Snapchat, limit the amount of time you spend on social media(社交). 36 . Challenge yourself to read at least 30 pages of a great book before you check your computer or mobile phone. Pick the right reading material and you’ll soon find you’ve discovered an enjoyable pastime. 37 . It' s amazing how much you can achieve when you’re not glued to (长时间盯着)a screen Do a list of one-hour evening projects. Some suggestions are organizing kitchen cupboards and cleaning your bedroom Then try to do one each evening. 38 . When you leave away the screen, go out of the house, get together and talk with your relatives and friends. You will be surprised to find that your worries and bad mood are far away from you, and you have got friendship, family affection(亲情)and real happiness. A．Limit social media(社交) use. B．Choose outdoor activities over technology, C．Communicate with people face to face. D．Create projects for yourself. E．Save time for reading. 【答案】34．B 35．A 36．E 37．D 38．C 【分析】短文主要介绍了利用花在屏幕前的空闲时间去试着做一些有意义的事情。 34．根据“ Instead you have to go out for a walk, swim or get some other kind of physical activities for at least b hour before you can pull out your phone. ”当在家时，在拿出手机之前，出去散步、游泳或进行一些其他的体育活动。可推知是做户外运动而不是耍手机。选项B“选择户外活动而不是科技”符合语境，故选B。 35．根据“Whether it’s Facebook, Twitter or Snapchat, limit the amount of time you spend on social media”不管是Facebook、Twitter还是Snapchat，限制你在社交媒体上的时间。可知是讲限制社交媒体的使用，选项A“限制社交媒体的使用”符合语境，故选A。 36．根据“Challenge yourself to read at least 30 pages of a great book before you check you computer or mobile phone. Pick the right reading material and you’ll soon find you’ve discovered an enjoyable pastime.”阅读是一种令人愉快的消遣方式。可知是在讲阅读，选项E “为阅读节省时间”符合语境，故选E。 37． 根据“Some suggestions are organizing kitchen cupboards and cleaning your bedroopr Then try to do one each evening.”可知是建议做一些其他的事，选项D“为自己创建项目”符合语境，故选D。 38．根据“When you leave away the screen, go out of the house, get together and talk with your relatives and friends. ”，可知是建议多与家人朋友面对面聊天。选项C“面对面地与人交流”符合语境，故选C。 (B) 请阅读下面语篇，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 In August, 2021, some new rules came out to restrict (限制) young people’s online game time. People under the age of 18 can only play online games three hours a week. Online games providers (提供者) can offer only one-hour service to young people from 8 p.m. to 9 p.m. on Fridays, Saturdays, Sundays and public holidays. They are very popular with teachers and parents. Zhang Zhe, a high school teacher in Nanjing, thinks online games influence students’ studies a lot. At home, parents often find it hard to stop their children from playing them. What’s worse, students might have no interest in developing friendship. “Students who become seriously addicted (上瘾的) to online games often find all kinds of excuses (借口) to play them. They also spend little on food or clothes to save their money for online games. So I think it is really necessary for the government (政府) to take action,” said Wu Li, a teacher in Wuhan. Mrs Wang, a mother of a high school student in Shanghai, had difficulty keeping her son away from online games, so she felt really glad when the new rules came out. “Whenever I tried to stop him, he got really angry. For several months, he even refused to talk to me,” said Mrs. Wang. Thanks to the rules, students can have more time to take up new hobbies. To make sure that students develop a healthier lifestyle (生活方式), schools, teachers and parents need to work closely to help young students find proper hobbies, and hold different after-school activities for them. 39．In August, 2021, what did the new rules restrict (限制)? A．Young people’s time. B．Young people’s online games. C．Young people’s online game time. 40．According to the first paragraph, which one is TRUE? A．A pupil can play online games 2 hours every day. B．A 16-year-old boy can play online games three hours a week. C．A student of 17 can play online games from 8 p.m. to 10 p.m. on Sunday. 41．Which of the following may happen to the students who are addicted to online games? A．They spend more on food and clothes. B．They have interest in making friends. C．Their studies are influenced a lot. 42．What should schools, teachers and parents do according to the last paragraph? A．They should take up hobbies and encourage the students to study hard. B．They should work together to help young students and hold different after-school activities for them. C．They should develop healthier lifestyles. 43．The passage mainly tells us ________. A．some online games are harmful to parents B．some parents and teachers welcome the new rules C．some parents and teachers are against the new rules 【答案】39．C 40．B 41．C 42．B 43．B 【解析】本文主要介绍了网游防沉迷新规的出台以及一些教师和家长对此的支持态度。 39．细节理解题。根据“In August, 2021, some new rules came out to restrict (限制) young people’s online game time.”可知，出台了一些新规定来限制年轻人上网游戏的时间。故选C。 40．推理判断题。根据“People under the age of 18 can only play online games three hours a week.”可知，18岁以下的青少年每周只能玩三个小时的线上游戏。故选B。 41．细节理解题。根据“Zhang Zhe, a high school teacher in Nanjing, thinks online games influence students’ studies a lot.”可知，南京的一位高中老师认为线上游戏严重影响了学生的学习。故选C。 42．细节理解题。根据最后一段“schools, teachers and parents need to work closely to help young students find proper hobbies, and hold different after-school activities for them.”可知，学校、老师和家长们需要紧密配合帮助学生们发现适合的爱好，为他们开设各式各样的课后活动。故选B。 43．主旨大意题。根据全文及“They are very popular with teachers and parents.”可知，老师和家长们非常支持这一新规。故选B。 （C) 请阅读下面语篇，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 It was Saturday evening. Rita’s parents went out, leaving Rita and her three-year-old sister Molly at home. Rita had to look after Molly. It was simply a headache for Rita! Molly refused to wash her face before bed, but Mum had said it was a must. What could Rita do? Surely she shouldn’t just let the child go to bed without having a wash. Maybe she could force (强迫) her. After all, she was much stronger than Molly. “It is the last thing I’d like to do. There must be a better way to do my job,” thought Rita. Finally, an idea came to her. Rita went into the kitchen to get what she needed. Then she ran after Molly around the living room and caught her. Rita carried Molly into the bathroom. “Would you like to practise magic?” Rita asked. She put blue and red food colouring into the sink (洗脸盆) full of water. “If you put your hands in the sink, you will turn the water purple.” Molly looked at the swirls (旋涡) of colour and got excited. Then she put her hands into the swirls of colour. Of course, the water turned purple. “Can I wash my face?” “Sure.” Ten minutes later, a tired but clean little girl was sound asleep in her bedroom while a tired babysitter was resting on the sofa. 44．What did Rita think of looking after her sister at first? A．Difficult. B．Boring. C．Tiring. 45．What does the underlined word “It” in Paragraph 2 refer to? A．Looking after Molly. B．Forcing Molly to wash her face. C．Letting Molly go to bed without having a wash. 46．Where did Rita catch her sister? A．In the kitchen. B．In the bathroom. C．In the living room. 47．Why did Molly finally want to wash her face? A．She was too tired to play. B．She wanted to please her sister. C．She found it fun to play with the water. 48．What would Rita’s parents say to Rita after arriving home? A．“Be more careful next time!” B．“Oh, dear, you did an amazing job!” C．“What a lovely sister you have!” 【答案】44．A 45．B 46．C 47．C 48．B 【解析】本文讲述了Rita在她父母外出时，运用聪明的方法引导其妹妹Molly洗脸的故事。 44．细节理解题。根据“It was simply a headache for Rita!”可知，Rita一开始认为照顾妹妹是困难的。故选A。 45．词义猜测题。根据“Maybe she could force (强迫) her. After all, she was much stronger than Molly.”可知，划线词“It”指代的是“强迫妹妹洗脸”。故选B。 46．细节理解题。根据“Then she ran after Molly around the living room and caught her.”可知，Rita是在客厅里抓住了妹妹。故选C。 47．推理判断题。根据“Molly looked at the swirls (旋涡) of colour and got excited. Then she put her hands into the swirls of colour. Of course, the water turned purple.”可知，Molly觉得玩水很有趣，因此愿意洗脸。故选C。 48．推理判断题。根据Rita成功地让Molly洗脸并顺利入睡的情节可知，父母回来后可能会称赞Rita的表现。所以Rita的父母会说“哦，亲爱的，你做得太棒了！”。故选B。 (D) 请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使其意思通顺，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余项。 Seeing blood in a horror movie might make you cover your eyes, but real blood isn’t scary at all. 49 That’s why blood donors are considered lifesavers. Blood donors are those giving blood—usually about 200 ml at a time—to blood banks or blood donation (捐赠) centers. 50 For example, someone may have lost blood in accidents, or have a serious illness that requires his blood to be replaced. Hospitals and blood banks store the blood and try to keep enough on hand. 51 Medical workers ask donors several questions to make sure the blood is safe to use. Then the donors relax, often reading a magazine or talking as their blood is drawn. Afterward, the donors may receive some juice or water and maybe fruit to give them energy. The process is simple, not scary. 52 To give blood, a person must be at least 18 years old and must meet certain other requirements. Students of all ages, though, can learn more about the donation process by visiting a local blood donation center. 53 It is also an easy way to help a community. A．Donating blood is not difficult. B．Then the blood can be used for people in need. C．In fact, blood is the gift of life and keeps us alive. D．Donating blood is not only one of the easiest ways to save lives. E．Most people are able to donate blood again in several months if they wish. F．Most blood donation centers usually have staff trained to solve such situations quickly. 【答案】49．C 50．B 51．A 52．E 53．D 【解析】本文是一篇说明文，主要讲述了血液捐赠的重要性。 49．根据前文“Seeing blood in a horror movie might make you cover your eyes, but real blood isn’t scary at all.”强调真实的血并不可怕，设空处应进一步说明血的重要性。选项C“事实上，血液是生命的礼物，维持着我们的生命。”符合语境，故选C。 50．根据前文“Blood donors are those giving blood—usually about 200 ml at a time—to blood banks or blood donation (捐赠) centers.”介绍了献血者向血库或献血中心献血，设空处应说明这些血液的用途。选项B“然后这些血液可以用于有需要的人。”符合语境，故选B。 51．根据后文“Medical workers ask donors several questions to make sure the blood is safe to use. Then the donors relax, often reading a magazine or talking as their blood is drawn.”描述了献血的过程，设空处应与献血过程有关。选项A“献血并不困难。”符合语境，故选A。 52．根据前文“The process is simple, not scary.”说明献血过程简单，设空处应是关于献血后的相关情况。选项E“大多数人如果愿意，几个月后就可以再次献血。”符合语境，故选E。 53．根据后文“It is also an easy way to help a community.”表示这也是帮助社区的一种简单方式，设空处应是说献血的益处。选项D“献血不仅是挽救生命的最简单方式之一。”符合语境，故选D。 （E） 请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容回答问题，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。 It’s Friday evening. My daughters sighed when I gently took the iPads away from their laps. One by one, our screens were turned off. We lit the candles and sat down to have a big meal. We call it our “Tech-Free Day” which lasts from sunset on Friday to sunset on Saturday. Now most friends know they will not be able to contact us by using computers or mobile phones for 24 hours. I first understood the importance of “Tech-Free Day” in 2008, when my father had got brain cancer. Some days he would have only one good hour, and the only thing I wanted to do was to be with him. When I looked after my father, I turned off my mobile phone. Soon after that, my husband and I decided to turn off all the electronic things for one full day every week. During our “Tech-Free Day”, time slows down. Our Saturdays now feel like mini-vacations. We drive cars or ride bikes. We work in the garden, play board games and cook meals with our kids. I feel like a better mother, wife and person. Keeping a balance between the good and the bad of technology is important for my family. The technology helps us share knowledge and funny ideas all over the world. But the technology also takes something away from us. When we stay up late at night linking from website to website or sending messages, we click again and again until we have been overloaded. Now we’re rushing into the time full of high technology. We should pay attention to what we are doing online and when we should go offline. I will always remember the most important thing in my family: Tech-Free Day. 54．When is “Tech-Free Day” in the writer’s family? 55．What did the writer and her husband decide to do after her father got cancer? 56．What change does “Tech-Free Day” bring to the writer in Paragraph 5? 57．What’s the good of technology according to the passage? 58．What other things will you do during “Tech-Free Day”? 【答案】54．It is/lasts from sunset on Friday to sunset on Saturday./From sunset on Friday to sunset on Saturday. 55．They decided to turn off all the electronic things for one full day every week./They decided to have their “Tech-Free Day” every week. 56．She feels like a better mother, wife and person. 57．The technology/It helps us share knowledge and funny ideas all over the world. 58．开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为：During Tech-Free Day, I will get close to nature. 【解析】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者家庭中的一个特定日子——“无科技日”的由来、实践以及这一活动对家庭生活的积极影响。 54．根据第二段“We call it our ‘Tech-Free Day’ which lasts from sunset on Friday to sunset on Saturday.”可知，作者家里的“无科技日”从周五日落开始到周六日落结束。故填It is/lasts from sunset on Friday to sunset on Saturday./From sunset on Friday to sunset on Saturday. 55．根据第三段“I first understood the importance of ‘Tech-Free Day’ in 2008, when my father had got brain cancer.”和第四段“Soon after that, my husband and I decided to turn off all the electronic things for one full day every week.”可知，作者在父亲患癌后不久，与她丈夫决定每周关闭所有电子设备一整天。故填They decided to turn off all the electronic things for one full day every week./They decided to have their “Tech-Free Day” every week. 56．根据第五段“I feel like a better mother, wife, and person.”可知，“无科技日”使作者感觉自己成为了一个更好的母亲、妻子和人。故填She feels like a better mother, wife and person. 57．根据第六段“The technology helps us share knowledge and funny ideas all over the world.”可知，科技帮助我们在全球范围内分享知识和有趣的想法。故填The technology/It helps us share knowledge and funny ideas all over the world. 58．开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为：During Tech-Free Day, I will get close to nature. 八、词语运用（本题共有两个语篇，A篇有五个小题，B篇有十个小题，每小题1分，共15分） （A） 请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，在空白处填入适当的单词，使其通顺、连贯，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。每空一词。 You may know the song Happy Birthday very well. But do you know about its writer? It was written by an American girl. And she 59 (become) very rich after that. When she was a child, she was invited to her friend’s birthday party. She was glad but also sad because she didn’t have enough money 60 (buy) a gift for her friend. “The party is coming soon, but now I have little money.” Hearing the girl’s story, her grandma said,“How about 61 a song together? Happy birthday to...” It was a dream. She decided to write it down at once and sing it to her friend at the party. When she sang the song at the party 62 next day, her friend was very happy. “ 63 wonderfully you sing! Thank you for giving me the special gift.” said her friend. And they learnt to sing it together. 【答案】59．became 60．to buy 61．singing 62．the 63．How 【解析】本文主要介绍了生日快乐这首歌的来历。 59．句意：从那以后她变得非常富有。become“变为”，根据was可知，时态为一般过去时，谓语动词用过去式。故填became。 60．句意：她既高兴又难过因为她没有足够的钱给朋友买礼物。buy“买”，根据“she didn’t have enough money...(buy) a gift for her friend.”可知，此处表达没有足够的钱买礼物，空处应用不定式形式。故填to buy。 61．句意：听到女孩的故事，她的奶奶说：“一起唱首歌怎么样？”根据“a song together”可知，应表达一起唱歌，sing“唱歌”，how about doing sth“做某事怎么样”，固定搭配，空处用动名词形式。故填singing。 62．句意：当她第二天在聚会上唱这首歌时，她的朋友非常高兴。根据“next day”可知，此处特指第二天，用定冠词the修饰。故填the。 63．句意：你唱得多么美妙啊！根据“...wonderfully you sing!”可知，此处为感叹句，修饰副词wonderfully用how引导，句首字母大写。故填How。 （B） 请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，用方框中所给词的正确形式填空，使其通顺、连贯，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。方框中有两个词为多余项。 although   like   how   careful   life   become    afraid   what   mistakes   but   was   harder People sure change. Different people have different changes during their 64 . Let me show you my changes. I used to be 65 of speaking English in front of others. What was worse, I was so shy that I never asked for help. Every class was 66 a bad dream. I didn’t know 67 to improve my pronunciation and study well. In order to deal with my problem, I asked my teacher for help. She was so kind that she gave me a lot of advice, such as taking notes 68 , listening to tapes seriously and so on. With her help, I 69 more and more hard-working. What’s more, I practiced speaking aloud every morning and asked my classmates to correct my   70 . Finally, I improved a lot and got good grades. I 71 so proud of myself. No pains, no gains. I’m grateful for all these changes. I believe that the 72 I study, the better future I will have. 73 I know I still have a lot of problems, I believe in myself. From now on, I will try my best to study hard and make myself a better person. 【答案】 64．lives 65．afraid 66．like 67．how 68．carefully 69．became 70．mistakes 71．was 72．harder 73．Although 【解析】本文是一篇记叙文，主要讲述了作者自身在学习英语过程中的变化与成长。从最初的害怕、害羞，到通过努力寻求帮助、积极实践，最终取得了显著的进步，并意识到努力与自信的重要性。 64．句意：不同的人在他们的生活中有不同的变化。考查名词。根据“Let me show you my changes. ”可知，此处指他们生活中的变化，因此选life，此处指不同的生活，因此用复数形式。故填lives。 65．句意：我过去害怕在别人面前说英语。根据“I was so shy that I never asked for help. ”可知，我过去害怕在别人面前说英语，因此选afraid，be afraid of为固定搭配，意为“害怕”。故填afraid。 66．句意：每节课都像一场噩梦。根据“a bad dream”可知，每节课都像一场噩梦，因此选介词like“像”。故填like。 67． 句意：我不知道如何提高我的发音和学习。根据“to improve my pronunciation and study well”可知，应该是我不知道如何提高我的发音和学习，表示方式，因此选how符合题意。故填how。 68．句意：她很善良，给了我很多建议，比如认真记笔记，认真听磁带等等。根据“taking notes ”可知，此处指认真做笔记，因此选careful，修饰动词应该用副词形式。故填carefully。 69． 句意：在她的帮助下，我变得越来越努力。根据“With her help”可知，我变得越来越努力，因此选become，句子以一般过去时叙事，因此填动词过去式。故填became。 70． 句意：更重要的是，我每天早上练习大声说话，并要求我的同学纠正我的错误。根据“correct”可知，应该指纠正我的错误，因此选mistakes，表示泛指用复数形式。故填mistakes。 71． 句意：我为自己感到骄傲。be proud of为固定搭配，意为“为……感到骄傲”，句子以一般过去时叙事，主语为单数I，因此填was符合题意。故填was。 72． 句意：我相信我学习越努力，我的未来就会越好。结合句意可知，应该是我学习越努力，因此选harder，根据“the better future I will have”可知，本句为“the +比较级…the +比较级…”，意为“越……越……”。故填harder。 73． 句意：虽然我知道我还有很多问题，但我相信我自己。根据句意可知，虽然我知道我还有很多问题，但我相信我自己，因此用although引导让步状语从句，位于句首首字母大写。故填Although。 九、书面表达（共15分）(请将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。) 74．学校英语校刊 Kids Post正在举办以“My favourite art club”为主题的征文活动。请按照活动要求用英文撰写一篇征文稿。 My favourite art clubWhere art meets beauty, life shines. There are three popular art clubs in our school. Which club are you in and why do you choose it? What activity impressed you most? Share your advice with new members (at least TWO tips).The closing date: 10 February, 2025 Your article should be sent to kidspost@qq.com. Music ClubSinging competition ... Painting ClubOutdoor drawing ... Drama ClubSchool play ... 注意：   1. 内容涵盖所给要点，可适当发挥； 2. 词数80左右，已给出的文章开头不计入总词数； 3. 文中不得提及有关考生个人身份的任何信息，如校名、人名等。 My favourite art club _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【参考范文】 My favourite art club I’m in the Painting Club. I choose it because I love painting and it gives me a chance to show my creativity. The activity that impressed me most was the landscape painting competition. We painted the beautiful scenery around our school. For new members, I have some advice. First, don’t be afraid to try different painting styles. It can help you find your own way. Second, observe the details of things carefully. It will make your paintings more vivid. In the Painting Club, I enjoy every moment of creating art. It enriches my school life. 【写作详解】 [总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：时态以“一般现在时”和“一般过去时”为主； ③提示：写作要点已给出，考生应注意不要遗漏提示，并适当添加细节，注意字母大小写以及标点符号。 [写作步骤] 第一步、介绍自己参加的俱乐部及选择它的原因； 第二步、介绍给自己印象最深的活动； 第三步、和新成员分享自己的建议并书写结语。 [亮点词汇] ①give sb. a chance to do sth.给某人做某事的一个机会 ②show my creativity展示我的创造力 ③be afraid to害怕 ④enrich my school life丰富了我的学校生活 [高分句型] ①The activity that impressed me most was the landscape painting competition.(that引导定语从句) 2 / 21 1 / 21 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$