安徽省六安市第九中学2024-2025学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试卷

六安九中2024一2025学年秋学期七年级期术试卷 注意事项： 英语 1.本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2.全卷包括“试题卷”(6页)和“答题卷”或“答题卡”(2页)两部分。 3.请务必在“答题卷”或“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。 4.考试结束后，请将“试题卷和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。 第一部分听力（共四大题，满分20分) I,短对话理解（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项 中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 What's the poy's favourite sport? A. B 2. What instrument can Linda play? A B. C 3.When does Danny have IT class? A.On Saturday. B.On Friday. C.On Thursday. 4.Where is Maryifrom? A.America. B.China. C.Canada. 5.What does the girl want to be in the future? A.A singer. B.A writer. C.A scientist. Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选！ 中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。 6.What is the girl's favouritelsubject? A.Art. B.Music. C.Maths. 7.Where is the art building? A.It's behind the music hall. B.It's next to the music hall. C.It's across from the music hall. 听下面·段对话，回答第8至10小题。 8.What colour is the pet dog? A.Brown. B.White. C.Black. 9.Whose mhoto is that? A.John's. B.Mike's. C.Lisa's. 10.What does Lisa's aunt like? A.Ping-pong balls. B.Books. C.Plants and flowers. Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 Il.What subjeet does Alice teach(教)？ A.Maths. B.English. C.Chinese 六安九中2024一2025学年秋学旧L年m阳+“ x·云什人而 12.What time does Alice get up? A.At6000.l. B.At 5:00 a.m. C.Λ16：00pm. 13.Where does Alice have lunch? A.At school. B.At home. C.In the restaurant. 14.Who does.Alicehave dinner with? A.Her students. B.Other teachers. C.Her parents. 15.How does Alico feel every day? A.Bored. B.Special. C.Happy. V.信息转换（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。 短文读两遍。 Daniel's new school 1t'ss016 Playground He often plays witrr his friends on it. Classrooms They'reI7_and bright(明亮的). His classroom is on the 18 floor() Library It's new and 19 They often go there in the 20 第二部分 英语知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） 单项填空（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21.以下单词中划线部分发音与其他不同的一项是 A.age B.grade C.name D.bag 22.-Lingling,what are your grandmother's -Reading and taking photos. A.mistakes B.stories C.examples D.hobbies 23.English is very useful,so it is to learn it well. A.interesting B.happy C.important D.fun 24.-Sally,how do you your birthday? -I often go to the restaurant to have dinner with my parents A.discover B.break C.celebrate D.count 25.Jim is the first one to arrive at school.He is late for class.Teachers like him. A.always;usually B.usually;never C.always;often D.usually;sometimes 26. -Is this _computer? —No,it's A.you;Lily and Lucy B.they;Lily and Lucy C.your;Lily's and Lucy's D.your;Lily and Lucy's 27.Cindy wants to go to Anhui for a trip she likes Anhui Cuisine(微菜)very much. A.so B.because C.but D.or 28.-Why would you like to be an English teacher? -Because I'm good kids.Also,I'm really good English. A.for;at B.at;with C.with;at D.at;for 29.Davis can't this maths problem because it's too hard for him. A.put up B.work out C.think of D.act out 30. -How about playing basketball? A.You are good B.I'm fine,thanks C.That sounds good D.I need a T-shirt 六安九中2024一2025学年秋学期七年级期末试卷·英语第2页共6页 VI. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最作选项。 It is Monday,6th November.I 31 have a busy day.At 8:10,I have science.I like science because it is interesting.Then at 9:00,I have32.I don't like maths.II's 33. and boring.Next,at 10:00,I have history.It's very difficult,34.At 11:00,I have msie. That's my favourite 35 Music is interesting.I36my music teacher.Mr Smith.Ile is great fun.I have lunch at 12:00.37 lunch,I have P.E.at 13:30.I like P.E.because it is exciting.But our teacher is very strict(and I'm usually very tired after cluss.My 38 class is at 16:00.After class,I play basketball for a 39.I have dinner at nboul 18:30.Al about 20:00,I begin to do my homework,and then I 40 What a busy day I have! 31. A.only B.really C.very D.even 32.A.maths B.IT C.music D.biology 33.A.interesting B.fun C.meaningful D.difficult 34.A.else B.also C.too D.no 35.A.teacher B.game C.colour D.subjeet 36.A.like B.think C.take D.have 37.A.Before B.At C.In D.After 38.A.first B.last C.middle D.similar 39.A.day B.weekend C while D.time 40.4.go to bed B.go to school C.have lunch D.have dinner B Hi!I am Li Xing.Li is my 41 and I am thirteen years old.My best 4 _Jeremy is from the UK.Jeremy and I are at the 43 age.And we go to the same middle school. Jeremy 44 in a big house near a hill().He often 45 in the afternoon.He thinks swimming is good for him.He also wants to be a football star in the future.He is a 460f the school football team and he practices hard every day with his teammates(). Jeremy's family all like 47 food.His father likes Sichuan food best and his mother's favourite food is hot pot.How about bis brother?He likes 48 best.They all have good eating habits().Jeremy always 49 early because he doesn't want to be late for school.The teachers in our school are all kind.They often30 him.Now he feels happy to live in China. 41.A last name B.middle name C.first name D.full name 42.A.teacher B.friend C.husband D.brother 43.A.same B.national C.own D.past 14. A.changes B.lives C.marks D.finishes 15. A.grows climbs C.laughs D swims 46. A.singer B.classmate C member D.shower 7. A.Japanese B.Chinese C.American D.English 18.A.tofu B.guitar C.bat D.bottle 49. A.acts out B.looks at C.gets up D.puts up 50.A.count B.choose C.stay D.help Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余 选项 A: Good morning!51 B:I'm fine,thanks.52 A: Sure,my name is Helen Green.And you? B:I'm Peter Brown.53. A:H-E-L-E-N,Helen.G-R-E-E-N,Green.You can call me Helen. B:Nice to meet you,Helen. A: 54 B:Oh,that's the bell.55 Goodbye! A:See you! 六安九中2024一2025学年秋学期七年级期末试卷·英语第3页共6页 A.How are you? How do you spell your name? C.Nice to meet you too,Peter. D.May I have your name? E.I'm great,thanks. F It's time for class. G.Let's go to school 第三部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）》 Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项 A Dear Ben. Come to my birthday party on Sunday.Please ask your sister to come,too.Can you also bring your football?I can't tind mine.The birthday party is in my garden.It begins at 3:00p.m. Tim Dear Oliver. Please come to my birthday party on Saturday.Can you bring your cunning shoes?We have a race().Mum doesn't like dogs,so don't bring your dog.Sorry!The party pegins at 3:00 p.m.See you on Saturday. Tara Dear Linda, Please come to my birthday party on Saturday.Can you please bring your Purple Pumpkins CD and your High Five CD?Please ask your brother to come,too.Jamie wants to play basketball with him.The party is at my grandma's house-16 Station Road.It begins at 400p.m. Emma 56.When does Tim's birthday party start? A.At 3:00 p.m.on Saturday. B.At 4:00 p.m.on Saturday. C.At 3:00 p.m.on Sunday. D.At 4:00 p.m.on Sunday. 57.What does arawant Oliyer to bring? A.His running shoes. B.His football. C.His basketball. D.His High Five CD. 58.Who wants to play basketball with Linda's brother? A.Ben. B.Jamie. C.Emma. D.Linda. B We know some family names-Green,White,Black and Brown.They're from colors in English.Mr.Hu has some foreign friends.They're Mr.Green,Mr.White and Mr.Black.Mr.Hu and they are all in Beijing now. Mr.Green's name is Jeff.He's English.He's an English teacher in No.5 Middle School. His wife()is Helen Green.Jim and Kelly are their children.Jim likes to play basketball. Tony is Mr.White's name.He's from the USA,and his wife is Joan.He's a policeman. They have three children-Jane,Emma and Bob.Jane and Emma are tall,but Bob is short. Mr.Black is from the USA,too.His name is Eric.He's a teacher in No.4 Middle School. His wife is Mary.They have only one son-Jame.He's the boy with short black hair. 59.What does the underlined(划线的)word“foreign”mean in Chinese? A.当地的 B.国内的 C.外国的 D.外交的 60. What is not mentioned(提及)in the text(文章)？ A.Mr.Hu's children. B.Jeff"'s job. C.Jm's hobby. D.Jame's looks. 大安九中2024一2025学年秋学期七年级期米试卷，英语第4页共。人 61.How many children does Eric have? A.Four. B.Three. C.Two. D.One. 2. Which is TRUE according to(根据)the text? A.Mr.Hu and his friends are in China now.B Jeff and Tony are from the same country. C.Kelly and Bob are short. D.There are four people in Tony's family. C Hello,everyone!My name is Kevin.Please look at the photo.It is a photo of my bedroom().Now I want to tell you about my new bedroom. My bedroom is very big.When you come in,you can see a blue bed.Next to the bed,there is a desk and a chair.They're blue,too.It is my favorite color.My pencil box and notebooks are on the desk.And my computer is on it,toot i love it because it helps me a lot. A nice sofa is in the middle of my bedroom.Next to the sofa is a table.My CD player( is on it.What's under the table?Oh,it's a basketball.What are those on the wall?Oh,they are some photos of my family. I clean my bedroom every day,so it is very tidy.I like living in it very much. 63.What color does Kevin like best? A.Black. B.Red. C.Yellow. D.Blue. 64. What does the underlined word“it"refer to(指的是)？ A.The computer.B.The desk C.The pencil box. D.The chair. How is Kevin's bedroom? A.Big and tidy. B.Small but tidy. C.Old but big. D.Small but nice. Alice is a student.She usually gets up at 6:30 in the morning.She bas breakfast at home at 7:00.Then she reads Chinese at 7:15.She usually reads for half an hour.Alice goes to school with her cousin at 8 o'clock. They always go to school by bus and it takes them 15 minutes to get to school.Alice has an English class at 8:30 a.m.And she has four classes in the morning in total.Alice eats lunch with her classmates at school.She has PE and Chinese in the afternoon.At 5:00,she goes home with her cousin,too.She does her homework after she gets home.After that,she helps her mom cook dinner and she has dinner with her parents at 6:30 in the evening. On Sundays,Alice doesn't need to go to school.So she often gets up at 8:30 a.m.She does some shopping with her mother in the morning.In the afternoon,she may go to the zoo with her friends or she may go to the West Hill for hiking. 66.Where does Alice eat her breakfast? A.At her cousin's home. B.At school. C.At the restaurant. D.At home. 67.What time does Alice get to school? A.At8:00. B.At8:15. C.At8:30. D.At8:45 68.What's the correct order(正确的顺序)of these Alice's activities? a.She helps her mom cook dinner. b.She eats lunch. c.She reads Chinese. d.She has an English class. A.dcab B acbd C.cdba D cadb 69. What is the best title(标题)for the text? A.Alice's Daily Life B.Alice's Big Family C.Alice's Hobbies D.Alice's Favorite Subjects E My name is Bill.I have an uncle He has a big farm in the mountain.There are many animals on the farm.They are cows.chickens,ducks,pigs and four dogs.You can also see many fruit trees and flowers on the farm.The farm looks very beautiful and it is quiet. I hope to live on the farm.But I have to go to school in the city.So on the weekend I often go there to help my uncle.I often help him feed(")cows,pigs and chickens.All the animals on the farm are friendly(to me.The dogs like to run around me and I like to play with them. The ducks like to swim in the river.The pigs are cute and they often sleep on the farm. I really want to have my own farm when I grow up. 六安九中2024一2025学年秋学期七年级期末试卷·英语第5页共6页 70.Who has a farm? A.Bill. B.Bill's father. C.Bill's uncle. D.Bill's friend. /1.What kind of animal is not on the farm? A.Ducks. B.Chickens. C.Cows. D.Horses. 72.What does Bill often do on the weekend? A.Does his homework. B.Picks fruits. C.Feeds animals on the farm. D.Goes to the school library. 第二节阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题后面的词数要求）。 On weekends,schools are often quiet.But at Furong School in Hunan Province(),students have fun activities like playing soccer and singing under the care()of their teachers. Most students at the school are left-behind children(留守儿童).Their parents work far away from home and they are lonely(孤独的)on weekends.So the school sets up(设立)more than 20 clubs for left-behind children.Now there are clubs for drawing,programming(), table tennis and others.Students can learn some knowledge()in the clubs.For example, some students choose the Biology Club to know more about nature. One student,.Haohao,used to(过去常常)play computer games in his free time.Now he is in the Basketball Club.He takes basketball classes every weekend,and he doesn't have much time to play computer games.His parents are very happy about that. 73.How many weekend clubs does the school set up for left-behind children?(不超过5个词) 74.Why does some students choose the Biology Club?(不超过l5个词) 75.When does Haohao take basketball classes?(不超过10个词) 第四部分写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ.单词拼写（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 76.The price of vegetables and fruits.often r (增长)in winter. 77.Linda's favorite food is the b_ (牛肉)noodles. 78.In our class,we change our s_ (座位)every month. 79.There is a s .(智能的)whiteboard in the front of my classroom. 80.My parents m. (做记号)my height at the door every year.. X. 书面表达（共1小题：满分20分） 同学们己经成为中学生一学期了，相信大家的初中生活一定丰富多彩！假设你是李华 请根据以下内容提示，用英语写一封邮件给你在澳大利亚的笔友Toy介绍你的校园生活。 内容提示： 1.个人简介：年龄、生日、班级； 2. 校园生活：8点上课，下午5点30放学；喜爱的学科：参加的社团： .学校设施：学校很漂亮，有两栋教学楼，大操场… 要求 1.内容可以适当发挥，以保证内容的完整、丰富与流畅： 2.不可出现真实的人名、地名和校名； 3.词数40一60。作文开头及结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Tony, I'm a middle student now.Let me tell you something about my middle school life Yours. Li Hua 六安九中2024一2025学年秋学期七年级期末试卷·英语第6页共6页