四川省遂宁市射洪县2024-2025学年八年级上学期期末统测英语试题

2024年下期期末学业水平监测 八年级英语试卷 本试卷分为五个部分。总分150分，考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考号用0.5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡上。并检查条形码粘贴是否正确。 2．1-70小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡对应题目标号的位置上，非选择题用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写在答题卡对应框内，超出答题区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。 3．考试结束后，将答题卡收回。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 （共5小题，每小题l.5分，共7.5分） 听句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项并标在试卷的相应位置。 听完每个句子后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题, 每个句子读两遍。 1. A. B . C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. 5. A. B. C . 第二节 （共5小题，每小题l.5分，共7.5分） 听下面5段短对话，每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 6. What did Ben buy for his sister? A. An umbrella. B. A pair of shoes. C. A shirt. 7. How often does Tom go to the movies? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Once a month. 8. Who runs fastest? A. Lucy. B. Ann. C. Lily. 9. What does Mike think of soap operas? A. He loves them. B. He doesn’t mind. C. He can’t stand them. 10. What will the boy bring to the old people? A. Some milk. B. Some flowers. C. Some books. 第三节 （共10小题，每小题l.5分, 共15分） 听下面3段长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中,选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟；听完后,各个小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答11-12小题。 11. What problem does the boy have? A. He got into a fight with his parents. B. He lost his wallet. C. He didn’t pass the exam. 12. What will happen if the boy tells his parents the truth? A. They’ll be upset. B. They’ll be angry. C. They’ll be happy. 听下面一段对话，回答13-15小题。 13. How much butter do the speakers need to make the chicken sandwich? A. One spoon. B. Two spoons. C. Three spoons. 14. What does the boy dislike in the sandwich? A. The tomatoes. B. The lettuce. C. The onion. 15. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. At home. B. In a restaurant. C. In a hotel. 听下面一段独白，回答16-20小题。 16. When is the party? A. This Sunday morning. B. This Sunday afternoon. C. This Sunday evening. 17. Why did Maria make the invitation? A. To enjoy different kinds of snacks. B. To hold a surprise party for Mr. Black. C. To invite some friends to welcome the New Year. 18. What’s the probable relationship between Mr. Black and Maria? A. Father and daughter. B. Teacher and student. C. Classmates. 19. How far is it from the bus stop on New Street to Maria’ s home? A. Ten minutes’ walk. B. Twenty minutes’ walk. C. Two minutes’ walk. 20. How will Maria and her friends probably feel after the party? A. Enjoyable. B. Worried. C. Surprised. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在 答题卡上将该选项涂黑。 21. Sun Yingsha loves ping-pong, and she practices it for over 8 hours every day. A. never B. hardly C. sometimes D. always 22. We for a class meeting last week. We it the day after tomorrow. A. prepare, will have B. prepared, will have C. will prepare, have D. prepared, had 23. — we are busy, we can’ t forget to show love to our parents. —That’ s right. Parents are the most important people in our life. A. Although, but B. Because, although C. So, although D. Although, / 24. —Remember to put on warm clothes. It’ s getting these days. —I wish the weather in winter could be as as that in spring. A. hotter, warm B. colder, warmer C. hotter, warmer D. colder, warm 25. Our school invited five guests to the opening of the new teaching building. A. hundreds B. hundreds of C. hundred D. hundred of 26. If there are people driving, there will be air pollution. A. less, less B. more, less C. more, fewer D. fewer, less 27. —Oh, I can’ t see anything. Could you please the lights? —No problem! A. turn on B. turn up C．turn off D．turn down 28. —Do you mind when you are 63? —I think it’ s OK, but many people decide working at that age. A. to work, to stop B. working, to stop C. working, stopping D. to work, stopping 29. There an English corner with some American friends tomorrow evening. A. is going to have B. is going to be C. are going to be D. are going to have 30. —Linda, can you come to my birthday party? — I have to look after my grandma at home. A. I’ m afraid not. B. Sounds great. C. Yes, no problem. D. You’ re welcome. 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A We teenagers have lots of worries, such as fighting with our good friends or getting along badly with our teachers. Or sometimes we can’ t even accept one of the new school rules. What do you do with them? Do you keep them to 31 ? If so, you may feel 32 . Here’ s a piece of 33 for you. The first step is to find 34 you trust to talk to. Remember 35 a problem is like cutting it in half. Your parents may be your best choice. They're always there to help you. And they have more experience. So why not try it? 31. A. yourself B. ourselves C. themselves D. myself 32. A. happier B. better C. worse D. more 33. A. paper B. advice C. message D. cake 34. A. everybody B. anybody C. nobody D. somebody 35. A. solving B. thinking C. sharing D. working B I liked watching TV when I was about ten years old. I remember that I would 36 early every Sunday morning just to watch TV. I enjoyed a lot of different 37 , but there was one I could not miss. The 38 of the cartoon is Doraemon. The main 39 of the cartoon is a blue and white robot cat. It always travels back in time to help a boy Nobita Nobi. One 40 thing about Doraemon is that he has a pocket (口袋). He 41 his useful things in the pocket. For example, he has a “bamboo-copter（竹蜻蜓）”. He can use it to fly. What’s more, he has an“anywhere door”. It can help him go anywhere he wants to go. I thought everything was interesting! I watched it 42 and didn’t want to miss every minute of it. I still like the show today. Why do I enjoy watching it even though I am 43 ? I think its stories make me 44 and help me relax from busy schoolwork. Also, it is 45 . I can learn a lot from the friendship between Doraemon and Nobita Nobi. 36. A. stay up B. put up C. get up D. make up 37. A. programs B. movies C. operas D. news 38. A. idea B. name C. culture D. difference 39. A. performer B. winner C. character D. writer 40. A. serious B. similar C. common D. special 41. A. keeps B. forgets C. touches D. brings 42. A. cheaply B. carefully C. loudly D. easily 43. A. shorter B. stronger C. younger D. older 44. A. think B. laugh C. talk D. work 45. A.educational B. famous C. successful D. creative 第三部分 阅读理解（共25小题；每小题2分，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分, 满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳 选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Traditional Chinese culture courses Traditional Chinese art ●learn about paper-cutting ●learn to make a clay pot (陶罐) Time: 8:00 a.m.—9:30 a.m. Saturday Place: Art Room Teacher: Ms Wang Traditional Chinese music ●learn to play the erhu, the dizi and the pipa ●enjoy traditional Chinese music Time: 10:00 a.m.—11:30 a.m. Saturday Place: Music Room Teacher: Mrs Li Traditional Chinese books ●learn about Journey to the West and A Dream of Red Mansions ●act out the stories in groups Time: 3:30 p.m.—5:00 p.m. Wednesday Place: School Library Teacher: Mr Cheng Traditional Chinese food ●taste traditional Chinese food ●learn to make jiaozi and zongzi Time: 8:00 a.m.— 10:00a.m. Saturday Place: School Hall Teacher: Mr Lu 46. Who teaches paper-cutting? A. Ms Wang. B. Mrs Li. C. Mr Cheng. D. Mr Lu. 47. Which of the courses is in the afternoon? A. Traditional Chinese art. B. Traditional Chinese music. C. Traditional Chinese books. D. Traditional Chinese food. 48. Where do students make zongzi? A. In the art room. B. In the music room. C. In the dinning hall. D. In the school hall. 49. What can students do in the music room? A. Learn to make a clay pot. B. Learn to play the guzheng. C. Learn to play the erhu. D. Learn to cook tangyuan. 50. What can we learn from the four courses? A. They are all 90 minutes long. B. They are all about Chinese culture. C. They are all outdoors. D. They are all at weekends. B You may ask yourself these questions many times: What should I do with my life? Should I be a teacher, a scientist or a doctor ? You may always have many ideas about that. As a middle school student, it’ s time for you to choose one. But don’ t just think about your dream job. You need to work hard for it. Getting the right job for yourself is like climbing. You do it step by step before you reach the top. You need to take the necessary lessons. Maybe you want to be a reporter. You might start by working for a newspaper. In college，you might choose a journalism major（新闻学专业）and work for a newspaper when you are free.You might work as an intern（实习生）after finishing college. As long as you work hard for your dream, you will become a great reporter one day. Then you will have more useful lessons to take and more tiring work to do. We never stop learning. This does not just mean school education. In fact, our learning started long ago. Many things we did in the middle school gave us much we will use later in our job. Joining a club, having a summer job,volunteering（志愿活动）and reading—all of these are useful in the long term. Just remember: The decisions you make now are important! 51. Who is the text written for? A. Parents. B. Teachers. C. Students. D. Experts. 52. Why is getting the right job like climbing? A. Because it’ s too hard to make it. B. Because you should do it step by step. C. Because you need to take something necessary. D. Because you must be in good health. 53. How does the writer organize Paragraph 3? A. By giving an example. B. By telling a story. C. By asking a question. D. By giving reasons. 54. What does the underlined word “This ” refer to（指的是）? A. The dream job. B. Learning. C. Being a reporter. D. Tiring work. 55. What’ s the best title for the text? A. Enjoy Your Life B. Your Dream Job C. Find Your Job D. Steps to a Future Dream Job C World Water Day is on March 22nd each year. It started in 1993 after a UN meeting about the environment. The UN shares reports about water around this day and has different themes every year to help people know and find ways to solve water problems. Clean water is quite important for drinking, staying clean, and being in good health. Sadly, many kids die every day because they don’ t have safe (安全的) water. The UN says lots of people still don’ t have it at home, especially in the countryside and places with wars or changing weather. Many people, often women and kids, have to spend lots of time walking far to get water if there is no clean water around. This takes time away from their work, school, and home tasks. Water is getting less and less, and by 2030, many people might have to move because there’ s not enough water. Some groups are helping bring clean water worldwide. We can also help by playing a part in saving the water resource(资源), and being serious of our water use. And we need to use water smarter, especially in our daily lives. Recycling wastewater, catching rain and planting trees can help save water. Sharing World Water Day on the Internet to ask for more understanding is helpful, too. 56. When did the World Water Day start? A. In 1993. B. In 2003. C. In 1930. D. In 2030. 57. What do people have to do if there is no clean water nearby? A. They have to wait to die. B. They have to stay at home all day. C. They have to stop working. D. They have to walk far to get water. 58. What does the writer want to tell us in Paragraph 4? A. Things we can do to help. B. Results of water pollution. C. Reasons for saving water. D. Problems of less and less water. 59. What might happen by 2030 if water continues to decrease (减少)? A. People might be able to get more water. B. More people might move because of no enough water. C. People will find ways to create water. D. People will drink less water. 60. In which part of a magazine can you probably read this passage? A. Sports. B. History. C. Nature. D. Art. D There is a special“vegetable basket bus line” in Wuhan，Hubei Province. It helps farmers travel between villages and city areas. At 5:30 am, there are many passengers around Tuditang Street South Station along the J202 bus line. They carry all kinds of fresh fruits and vegetables. After the bus arrives, the driver helps the farmers put their fruits and vegetables on the bus. Half an hour later, they reach a station close to the largest farmers’ market. Their fresh vegetables can fetch a good price at the morning market. The bus line passes the most remote counties（偏远的县）in southern Wuhan. The old people along the way grow vegetables at home, and often bring them to the market to sell. But vegetable baskets take up a lot of space(空间), and other passengers have no room to stand. So there are often fights between them. In May last year, the bus changed its first departure time（始发时间）from 6 am to 5:10 am. This solved the problem. The line runs from May 1st to September 30th every year. Since its opening in 2020, it has become the most convenient means of travel for people living in about 30 nearby villages. It covers 42 kilometers with 60 stations. More than 100 farmers take the “vegetable basket bus line” every day. People aged 65 or older can take buses for free. Younger passengers may pay as much as 5 yuan to ride, and it depends on how far they are travelling. 61. The“vegetable basket bus line” is opened for . A. workers B. farmers C. the old D. children 62. Why did the bus change its first departure time from 6 am to 5:10 am? A. To cover more kilometers. B. To attract more passengers. C. To solve fights over space. D. To run longer hours each day. 63. The “vegetable basket bus line” covers ______ kilometers. A.30 B.42 C. 60 D.202 64. What can we know about the passengers aged 65 or older? A. They pay 5 yuan for each ride. B. They can take the bus for free. C. They sell vegetables at the market. D. They travel to remote counties. 65. What’s the passage mainly about? A. A special bus line for farmers. B. Farmers in Wuhan. C. The largest market in Wuhan. D. A free bus line for the old. 第四部分 口语交际（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据对话内容，从对话后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 项多余。 A: Hello, Holly. You didn’t come to my birthday party yesterday. Why? B: 66 A: Your cousin Peter? Do you look the same? B: 67 But Peter is a little taller and stronger than me. He always beats me at basketball. A: 68 B: Yes, we both like reading books and playing computer games. A: That sounds great. What is he like? 69 B: Yes, he’s more outgoing than me. 70 A: Can you introduce (介绍) him to me? ( A . Is he outgoing? B . Yes, we do. C . He likes making friends. D . I went to visit my cousin Peter . E . So, you have the same interest? )B: Sure. 第五部分 写作（共三节，满分45分） 第一节 词汇运用 根据汉语提示写出空白处所缺单词。(共 5 小题，每小题1分，共5分) 71. You ▲ (似乎)to be tired after two hours’ study. Stop to have a rest, please. 72. The problem is too difficult to solve. Let’ s ▲ (讨论) it with my classmates. 73. What’ s the Chinese m ▲ of this word“peace”? 74. This girl could sing well when she was three. She is very t ▲ in music. 75. Nick has to wear glasses to help him see c ▲ . 第二节 语法填空 (共 10小题，每小题1分，共10分) 阅读下面短文，根据上下文填入适当的词语，或使用括号中的词语的适当形式填空，并将答案填写在答题卡上。 How much exercise do kids need to stay 76 (health)? Every parent wants to know the answer. A new study 77 (show) that kids should do 78 (activity) like climbing, jumping, and running at least twice a week. These kinds of exercise are good 79 them. Children should also do aerobic exercise (有氧运动) for more than 60 minutes every day. They can walk 80 (quick) or go running. 81 , many kids don’t like doing exercise now. How can we make exercise interesting for them? It’s 82 good idea to take kids outside and let them play with their friends. If they often play together, they 83 (have)fun and make it part of their life. As a result, they will love exercise. Doctor Judy often finds parents ask their kids 84 (take) long walks as a kind of exercise. “ Though walking is a great activity, it’s really 85 ( bore) for kids. So if you’re going to go on a walk with your kids, think of some fun things to do along the way,” she says. 第三节 信息摘录 (共 5 小题，每小题2分，共10分) 阅读下面短文，然后在文后的表格内完成内容摘要，每空一词。 NAO is a robot. He is 58 cm tall. He is small, cute and round. You can’ t help but love him! NAO is created to be a friendly partner around the house. He moves, recognizes (识别) you, bears you and even talks to you. Since his birth in 2008, he has been better and better at pleasing, understanding and loving you. Maybe one day he will become your friend. His cute look and wonderful communication skills make him really lovely and popular. He can be a good helper. Ask him to do something and he does. For example, ask NAO to wake you up in the morning, to watch your home during the day or to teach you new things whenever you want. You no longer need a keyboard, a computer or a mouse to communicate with technology. All you have to do is to talk to him. He can be a sweet family member. He can learn to read your moods. He always knows the right thing to say. He can recognize your family members and call them by their first names. You can teach him how to choose the music, food and film you like best. Information card Appearance 86 : 58 cm tall Look: small, cute and round Age: 87 years old Abilities He is good at pleasing, understanding and 88 you . He has wonderful communication skills. A pleasant partner A good 89 : 1. He can wake you up and watch your home during the day. 2. No matter when you want him to teach you new things, all you have to do is to talk to him. A sweet family member : 1. He can always say something right and recognize your family members . 2. You can teach him how to choose your 90 music, food and film . 第四节 书面表达 (20分) 寒假将至，你校英语角正在举办题为“My Winter Holiday Plans”的征文活动，你有意参加。请你依据所给思维导图信息，用英语写一篇短文，介绍你的寒假计划。 参考词汇：take up a hobby, spend more time with family, be a volunteer (志愿者) 要求：1. 短文应包括以上提示内容，可适当发挥; 2. 词数在80词左右，短文的开头已给出，不计入总词数; 3. 文中不得出现自己的真实姓名和学校名称; 4．不得抄袭试卷原文。 My Winter Holiday Plans The winter holiday is coming. Let me tell you something about my plans for the winter holiday. ▲ 八年级英语试题第8页（共12页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 2024年下期期末学业水平监测 八年级英语参考答案及评分标准 第I卷 (共105分) 第一部分 听力理解（每小题1.5分，满分30分） 一、听力部分（共20小题，每小题1.5分，共30分） 1-5 BCACC 6-10 AABCB 11-15 CBACA 16-20 BCBCA 二、单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 21-25 DBDDC 26-30 DABBA 三、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 31-35 ACBDC 36-40 CABCD 41-45 ABDBA 四、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，共40分） 46-50 ACDCB 51-55CBABD 56-60 ADABC 61-65 BCBBA 五、补全对话（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 66-70 DBEAC 第II卷（非选择题，共45分） 六、词汇（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 71. seem 72. discuss 73. meaning 74. talented 75. clearly 七、语法填空（每小题1分，共10分） 76. healthy 77. shows 78. activities 79. for 80. quickly 81. However 82. a 83. will have 84. to take 85. boring 八、信息摘录（共 5 小题，每小题2分，共10分） 86. Height 87. 17/seventeen 88. loving 89. helper 90. favorite/favourite 九、书面表达（共20分） 参考范文： The winter holiday is coming. Let me tell you something about my plans for the winter holiday. Firstly, I will go to bed early and get up on time every day. I think it’s important to get enough sleep for us. I also plan to get lots of exercise to stay healthy, such as running and playing ping-pong. I’ll eat healthier food instead of junk food, so I will try to have more fruit and vegetables. Secondly, I want to make myself a better person. I will take my homework seriously and spend much time reading books to learn new things. In addition, I’ll take up a new hobby——painting. Finally, I will spend more time with my family and help them with housework. Also, I’d like to be a volunteer to help others in need. I believe this will be a meaningful and enjoyable winter holiday! 书面表达评分标准 一、评分原则 1.本题总分20分，按五个档次进行评分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，结合内容和语言表达，综合给定分数。 3.考生可以根据要点适当发挥，加入自己的观点。 4.词数少于80的，从总分中减去1分。 5.拼写错误多，书写较差以致影响表达，在所确定档次的分数范围内，减去1分。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 档次 分数 范围 总体描述 第五档 17-20分 完全达到了预期的写作目的 涵盖所有内容要点；语法结构和词汇有个别小错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致，具备较强的语言运用能力；有效地使用了衔接手段，全文结构紧凑，内容连贯 第四档 13-16分 较好地达到了预期的写作目的 虽漏掉一、两个次要点，但覆盖所有主要内容；应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，少许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致；应用简单的衔接手段，全文结构紧凑，内容较连贯 第三档 9-12分 基本达到了预期的写作目的 虽漏掉一些内容，但基本覆盖主要内容；应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；应用简单的衔接手段，内容基本连贯 第二档 5-8分 未恰当完成试题规定的任务 漏掉或未清楚描述某些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；语法结构单一，所用词汇有限；有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对所写内容的理解；较少使用衔接手段，内容缺少连贯性；信息未能清楚地传达给读者；未完成试题规定的任务 第一档 1-4分 未完成试题规定的任务 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容；语法结构单一，所用词汇不当；有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响内容理解；缺乏语句间的衔接手段，内容不连贯；信息未能传达给读者 0 分 0 分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 三、 评分要点 1.阳光作息：6分 （睡眠、锻炼、饮食各2分） 2.自我提升：6分 （作业、阅读、兴趣各2分） 3.责任担当：6分 （陪伴家人、分担家务、争做志愿者各2分） 4.文章结构：2分（段落衔接、结尾、标点符号） 四、注意事项 1.评分时，应注意内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量、准确性及上下文的连贯性。 2.考生必须用完整的句子表达要点，如只有关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为要点写出。 八年级英语试题参考答案第1页（共3页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$