内容正文:
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2024—2025学年度第一学期
海口市七年级英语科期末检测题
(温馨提示:本卷满分120分,考试时间90分钟。请将答案写在答题卡上)
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分20分)
第一节 (共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
1. 听句子录音,根据所听内容选择与句子意思一致的图画。句子读一遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C. D. E.
1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______
【答案】 ①. B ②. E ③. A ④. C ⑤. D
【解析】
【原文】1. Linda enjoys singing. Look! She is singing with her friends.
2. Chinese people usually eat mooncakes on Mid-autumn Festival.
3. My favorite subject is maths. I think it’s interesting.
4. Elephants are clever. They can do many things like people.
5. It’s important for us to plant more trees year by year.
第二节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听句子录音,根据所听内容选出能正确回答句子的答语。句子读两遍。
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. They are kind. B. We love them. C. About 100.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】How many teachers are there in your school?
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Yes, of course. B. They are beautiful. C. I have no idea.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】Could I have a look at the flowers in your garden?
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. By bike. B. On Sunday. C. With our teachers.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】When will you have your school trip?
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. I like books. B. Good idea. C. Keep quiet!
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】Let’s go to the library to do some reading.
6. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. They eat bamboo. B. They’re very cute. C. They live in Sichuan.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】What do the pandas eat every day?
第三节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听对话录音,根据所听内容选出能回答所提问题的正确选项。对话读两遍。
听对话,回答小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
7. What is Anna’s gift for her teacher?
A. A thank-you card. B. A color pen. C. A good book.
8. Where will Anne and her father go now?
A. To the library. B. To the store. C. To the school.
【答案】7. A 8. B
【解析】
【原文】M: Next week is Teachers’ Day, Anna.
W: Yes, Dad. Well, how about a thank-you card for my teacher?
M: Um, great. What do you need for it?
W: Only colour pens and a card.
M: So easy! Let’s go to the store and buy them.
W: OK, let’s go!
听对话,回答小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
9. Who is Peter planning to have a picnic with on Saturday?
A. His friends. B. His cousins. C. His parents.
10. What does the girl plan to do in the park on Sunday?
A. Take a walk. B. Fly a kite. C. Plant trees.
11. When is the girl going to meet Peter?
A. At 8:30 am. B. At 9:00 am. C. At 9:30 am.
【答案】9. B 10. C 11. A
【解析】
【原文】W: Peter, what are you going to do this weekend?
M: Well, I’m planning to have a picnic with my cousins on Saturday.
W: Good And what are your plans for Sunday?
M: Nothing. I don’t have any plans.
W: I plan to plant trees in the city park. Would you like to join me?
M: Yeah. What time shall we meet there? The activity will start at nine o’clock in the morning.
W: Let’s meet half an hour earlier.M: OK! See you then.
第四节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听短文录音,根据所听内容选择能填入空白处或回答问题的最佳选项。短文读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
12. What does Susan’s mother do?
A. A driver. B. A teacher. C. A doctor.
13. How was the weather when Susan got up yesterday?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.
14. Who did Susan go to the Pearl River with?
A. Her friends. B. Her parents. C. Her cousins.
15. When did the dragon boat race finish?
A. At 9:20 am. B. At 10:20 am. C. At 10:30 am.
16. Which team won first place in the dragon boat race?
A. Zhuhai. B. Guangzhou. C. Shenzhen.
【答案】12. C 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. A
【解析】
【原文】Susan is an English girl. She is fourteen years old. She came to China with her parents two years ago. Her father is a teacher and her mother is a doctor. Now they both work in Guangzhou.
It was the Dragon Boat Festival yesterday. When Susan got up in the morning, it was raining. After she had some zongzi for breakfast, the rain stopped. She walked towards the Pearl River with her parents and they arrived there twenty minutes later. At half past nine, the sun came out and the dragon boat race started. It was really exciting and it finished at half past ten. In the end, the team from Zhuhai won first place, the team from Shenzhen won second place and the team from Guangzhou won third place.
第二部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。
17. Science is _______ interesting subject. I like it very much.
A. a B. an C. the
【答案】B
【解析】
【详解】句意:科学是一门有趣的学科。我非常喜欢它。
考查冠词。此处表示泛指,interesting以元音音素开头,应用an。故选B。
18. The film Postmen in the Mountains tells us a touching story _______ the love between father and son.
A. to B. for C. about
【答案】C
【解析】
【详解】句意:电影《那山那人那狗》讲述了一个关于父子之爱的感人故事。
考查介词辨析。to到;for为了;about关于。根据“the love between father and son.”可知,应该用介词“about”引出所讲述的内容。故选C。
19. This is my uncle. _______ is an English teacher.
A. He B. His C. Him
【答案】A
【解析】
【详解】句意:这是我的叔叔。他是一名英语老师。
考查代词辨析。he他,主格;his他的;him他,宾格。空处指代叔叔,作主语,应用he。故选A。
20. — It’s _______ to say “Hello” when you meet someone.
— Sure!
A. difficult B. polite C. nervous
【答案】B
【解析】
【详解】句意:——当你遇到别人的时候说“你好”是礼貌的。——当然!
考查形容词辨析。difficult困难的;polite礼貌的;nervous紧张的。根据“say ‘Hello’ when you meet someone.”可知,遇到别人的时候说“你好”是礼貌的。故选B。
21. If you have any questions, please _______ your hand.
A. look up B. get up C. put up
【答案】C
【解析】
【详解】句意:如果你有任何问题,请举手。
考查动词短语。look up查找;get up起床;put up举起。根据“you have any questions”可知有问题,要举手,故选C。
22. —The girls are talking _______.
—Yes, they have so many fun things to share.
A happily B. sadly C. suddenly
【答案】A
【解析】
【详解】句意:——女孩们正在愉快地说话。——是的,她们有很多有趣的事情分享。
考查副词辨析。happily开心地;sadly悲伤地;suddenly突然。根据“they have so many fun things to share”可知是指女孩们正在愉快地谈话。故选A。
23. Lingling’s mother usually ________ a walk with her dog after dinner.
A. take B. takes C. is taking
【答案】B
【解析】
【详解】句意:玲玲的妈妈通常晚饭后带着她的狗散步。
考查时态。根据“usually”可知,句子应用一般现在时,主语Lingling’s mother为第三人称单数,谓语动词take用第三人称单数形式takes,故选B。
24. —_______ do you go on the Internet?
—Once a week.
A. How soon B. How long C. How often
【答案】C
【解析】
【详解】句意:——你多久上网一次?——一周一次。
考查特殊疑问句。How soon多久以后;How long多长;How often多久一次。根据答语“Once a week.”可知是询问频率,因此选择How often。故选C。
25. There _______ many new books in the library. I want to get some to read.
A. are B. is C. be
【答案】A
【解析】
【详解】句意:图书馆里有许多新书我想借一些看。
考查there be句型。主语books是复数形式,be动词用复数形式are,故选A。
26. — Thank you for helping me water the flowers.
— _______
A. See you next time. B. Sorry to hear that. C. You are welcome.
【答案】C
【解析】
【详解】句意:——谢谢你帮我浇花。——不客气。
考查情景交际。See you next time下次见;Sorry to hear that很抱歉听到那个消息;You are welcome不客气。根据“Thank you for helping me water the flowers.”可知,应回答不客气。故选C。
第二节(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
My name is Bill. I get up ____27____ every day. It’s about 6:20 am. My mother cooks ____28____ at home for me. After I have breakfast, I ____29____ at 7:20 am and get there at about 7:40 am.
My school is very modern (现代的). There are many ____30____ buildings in our school. They’re classroom buildings, a lab building and an art building. I have most (多数的) lessons in the classroom building. I have music in the art building.
I have eight subjects. I ____31____ very hard. I’m interested in many of them and good at maths. Some of ____32____ classmates often ask me questions about our maths homework. I can ____33____ them.
Most of my teachers are very young. I like all of them. But my favourite teacher is Miss Li. She is funny. Her lessons are very ____34____. My classmates and I all like her lessons. We often watch films and sing songs in class.
There are many ____35____ in my school. I’m in the Basketball Club. Basketball is my favourite sport. I have basketball practice on the team. ____36____ I have the same favorite basketball player — Yao Ming as my teammates (队友).
I’m happy at school and I like my school.
27. A. slowly B. early C. late
28. A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner
29. A. go home B. go to bed C. go to school
30. A. beautiful B. old C. small
31. A. play B. study C. think
32. A. their B. your C. my
33. A. ask B. help C. lend
34. A. boring B. difficult C. interesting
35. A. clubs B. buildings C. lessons
36. A. But B. And C. Or
【答案】27. B 28. A 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. B
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,主要介绍了作者Bill的学校生活。
【27题详解】
句意:我每天早上起得很早。
slowly慢速地;early早;late晚。根据“It’s about 6:20 am.”可知,作者早上起得早。故选B。
【28题详解】
句意:我妈妈在家为我做早餐。
breakfast早餐;lunch午餐;dinner晚餐。根据“After I have breakfast...”可知,此处说的是早餐。故选A。
【29题详解】
句意:早餐后,我7:20去上学,7:40到学校。
go home回家;go to bed睡觉;go to school去上学。根据下文“My school is...”可知,此次说的是去上学。故选C。
【30题详解】
句意:我们学校有很多美丽的建筑。
beautiful美丽的;old老的;small小的。根据“My school is very modern.”可知,现代化学校的教学楼应是很漂亮的。故选A。
【31题详解】
句意:我学习很努力。
play玩;study学;think想。根据“I have eight subjects.”和“I’m interested in many of them and good at maths.”可知,此处说的是作者学习学校的课程很刻苦。故选B。
【32题详解】
句意:我的一些同学经常问我关于数学作业的问题。
their他们的;your你的;my我的。根据“...classmates often ask me...our...”可知,设空处应为第一人称形容词性物质代词,表示“我的”同学们。故选C。
【33题详解】
句意:我能帮助他们。
ask问;help帮助;lend借。根据“I’m ... good at maths.”可知,作者数学很好,当同学们向他请教时,他是能够帮助同学们的。故选B。
【34题详解】
句意:她的课很有趣。
boring烦躁的;difficult困难的;interesting有趣的。根据“But my favourite teacher is Miss Li. She is funny. ”可知,作者最喜欢李老师,李老师有趣,她的课应是很有趣的。故选C。
【35题详解】
句意:我的学校里有很多社团。
clubs俱乐部;buildings建筑;lessons课。根据“I’m in the Basketball Club.”可知,此处作者想要介绍学校里的社团。故选A。
【36题详解】
句意:并且我有同样喜欢的篮球运动员——姚明作为我的队友。
But但是;And并且;Or或者。根据“I have basketball practice on the team.”可知,设空处所在句子与其为递进关系。故选B。
第三部分 阅读理解(共三节,满分55分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Name: Jane Smith Age: 12 Class: 8 Grade: 7 School: No.1 High School
Family
Job
Favorite
Colour
Food
Animal
Grandfather
Farmer
Green
Bread
Cats
Father
Driver
White
Meat
Birds
Mother
Teacher
Yellow
Fish
Dogs
Sister
Student
Pink
Hamburgers
Pandas
37. How old is Jane?
A. Seven. B. Eight. C. Twelve.
38. What kind of animals does Jane’s grandfather like best?
A. Cats. B. Birds. C. Dogs.
39. What does Jane’s father do?
A. A farmer. B. A driver. C. A teacher.
40. Which food does Jane’s mother like?
A. Bread. B. Meat. C. Fish.
41. What is Jane’s sister’s favourite colour?
A. Pink. B. White. C. Yellow.
【答案】37. C 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. A
【解析】
【导语】本文描述了Jane Smith的个人信息及其家庭成员的工作和喜好。
【37题详解】
细节理解题。根据表格中“Age: 12”可知,Jane今年十二岁。故选C。
【38题详解】
细节理解题。根据表格中Grandfather对应的Animal列有“Cats”可知,Jane的祖父最喜欢的动物是猫。故选A
【39题详解】
细节理解题。根据表格中Father对应的Job列有“Driver”可知,Jane的父亲是司机。故选B。
【40题详解】
细节理解题。根据表格中Mother对应的Food列有“Fish”可知,Jane的母亲喜欢的食物是鱼。故选C。
【41题详解】
细节理解题。根据表格中Sister对应的Colour列有“Pink”可知,Jane的妹妹最喜欢的颜色是粉色。故选A。
B
①Junior high school has more homework and subjects than primary school. You have to know more learning ways. Listening to teachers is a good way. But teaching yourself (自学) is also a useful way to learn. So how do you teach yourself? It is not a difficult thing.
②First, you must read the textbooks. Read as much as you can.
③Second, you must ask yourself questions. The questions are something you don’t understand or you want to know about. You can write down these questions. A clever student is also good at asking questions.
④Third, you can learn to answer the questions in many ways, such as thinking by yourself, reading books and asking other people.
⑤These are the ways of teaching yourself. If you work like this for a long time, you are sure to be more successful (成功的) in your study.
42. The underlined word “It” refer to (指的是) “_______”.
A. Reading books B. Doing homework C. Teaching yourself
43. What should you do first when you teach yourself?
A. Think by yourself. B. Read textbooks. C. Ask questions.
44. How can we learn to answer the questions?
a. thinking by yourself. b. reading books. c. asking other people. d. listening to the radio.
A. bcd B. abc C. acd
45. Which is the structure(结构) of the passage?
A. B. C.
46. What is the best title (标题) of the passage?
A. Ways to teach yourself B. What to do in the classroom C. How to become a clever student
【答案】42. C 43. B 44. B 45. A 46. A
【解析】
【导语】本文讲述了在初中阶段,学生要学会自学的方法,包括阅读教材、提问以及通过多种方式解决问题的过程。
【42题详解】
代词指代题。根据“So how do you teach yourself? It is not a difficult thing.”可知,It指代的是“自学”。故选C。
【43题详解】
细节理解题。根据“First, you must read the textbooks”可知,教自己时首先要做的是阅读教材,故选B。
【44题详解】
细节理解题。根据“you can learn to answer the questions in many ways, such as thinking by yourself, reading books and asking other people.”可知,回答问题的方法包括思考、读书和问别人,故选B。
【45题详解】
篇章结构题。通读全文可知,文章第一段先总体介绍主题,第二段到第四段具体介绍了怎么做,第五段是总结全文。文章是总分总结构。故选A。
【46题详解】
最佳标题题。本文讲述了在初中阶段,学生要学会自学的方法,包括阅读教材、提问以及通过多种方式解决问题的过程。故选A。
C
Every day, we see many things around us. Some things are living (有生命的), and some are nonliving (无生命的). Let’s learn how they are different.
Living things
Living things can grow and change. For example, plants are living things, like dandelions, bamboo and roses. Animals are living things. And guess what? You’re living thing, too! Living things need to breathe air, and they have to eat and drink. People and animals can walk or move on their own. They can find food and water in different places.
Plants don’t walk, but they are still living things. They make their own food using sunlight, water, and air. They can grow up tall to catch the sunlight. Water usually comes to them. What living things do you see every day?
Nonliving Things
Nonliving things don’t need to eat, breathe air or drink water. They can’t breathe at all. A toy is not a living thing. A ball can move around, but is it a living thing? No, it’s not. A ball only runs when we kick (踢) it. It can’t move by itself. It doesn’t breathe and it doesn’t grow. It’s a not a living thing.
Look around you. What nonliving things do you see? All the living and nonliving things in our world are special. It’s important to take care of everything.
47. The underlined (画线的) word “dandelions” might be the name of _______.
A. a plant B. an animal C. a sport
48. Which of the statements (陈述) about living things is TRUE (正确的)?
A. Plants don’t need food, water or air.
B. Plants and animals are both living things.
C. Animals can make food from sunlight, water and air.
49. Which of the following is a nonliving thing?
A. B. C.
50. What does the writer think of things around us?
A. They have nothing to do with us.
B. We should love and care about them carefully.
C. Living things are important but nonliving things are not.
51. Where can we read the passage?
A. In a history book. B. In a math book. C. In a science book.
【答案】47. A 48. B 49. A 50. B 51. C
【解析】
【导语】本文介绍了身边有生命和无生命的事物,有生命的如植物、动物和人类,能生长、变化、呼吸、吃喝等,无生命的如玩具、球等,无需吃喝呼吸且不能自主移动,强调要爱护一切。
【47题详解】
细节理解题。根据“plants are living things, like dandelions, bamboo and roses”,可知“dandelions”是植物的一种,故选A。
【48题详解】
细节理解题。根据“Plants are living things...Animals are living things”,可知植物和动物都是有生命的东西,故选B。
【49题详解】
细节理解题。根据 “Nonliving things don't need to eat, breathe air or drink water. They can’t breathe at all. A toy is not a living thing. A ball can move around, but is it a living thing? No, it’s not.” 可知,篮球是无生命的东西,故选A。
【50题详解】
细节理解题。根据 “It’s important to take care of everything”,可知作者认为我们应该爱护和小心照顾周围的一切,故选B。
【51题详解】
推理判断题。文章主要介绍了有生命和无生命的事物及其区别,这属于科学知识范畴,所以可能在科学书中读到,故选C。
第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有一项为多余选项。
Celebrating New Year happens in every country. But each country has its own way to celebrate New Year.
____52____ One is on January 1st, and the other is in January or February. People have many activities to celebrate New Year, like watching lion dances or having a family dinner.
People in Thailand (泰国) celebrate it by pouring (泼) water on friends and visitors. ____53____ Their New Year isn’t on January 1st. It is in April. ____54____
In Switzerland (瑞士), people often go skiing to celebrate New Year. ____55____ They jump up and down to make the cow bells ring. They hope this will sweep away the bad luck of the old year.
____56____ They often say “Happy New Year” to each other.
A. People all over the world have a great time on New Year’s Day.
B. The Chinese people celebrate New Year twice.
C. We eat dumplings on that day.
D. They think this will bring much rain in the next growing season.
E. It is very hot at that time of a year in Thailand.
F. They sing in the ice and snow world.
【答案】52. B 53. D 54. E 55. F 56. A
【解析】
【导语】本文介绍了各国庆祝新年的不同方式,如中国有两次新年,泰国泼水庆新年,瑞士人滑雪庆新年等,且各国新年活动各具特色,人们都在新年时欢乐庆祝。
【52题详解】
该空后提到“One is on January 1st, and the other is in January or February.”,这是在说新年的时间,中国有农历新年和公历新年,B选项“中国人庆祝新年两次。”符合语境,故选B。
【53题详解】
根据“People in Thailand (泰国) celebrate it by pouring (泼) water on friends and visitors.”可知,泰国人通过向朋友和游客泼水庆祝新年,E选项“在泰国一年中的那个时候非常热。”能解释泼水的原因,故选E。
【54题详解】
根据“Their New Year isn’t on January 1st. It is in April.”可知,泰国新年在四月,D 选项“他们认为这将在接下来的生长季节带来很多雨水。”是对泰国新年在四月的进一步说明,故选D。
【55题详解】
根据“In Switzerland (瑞士), people often go skiing to celebrate New Year.”可知,瑞士人经常去滑雪庆祝新年,F 选项“他们在冰雪世界中唱歌。”也是瑞士人庆祝新年的活动之一,与滑雪相呼应,故选F。
【56题详解】
根据“They often say “Happy New Year” to each other.”可知,他们经常互相说“新年快乐”,A选项 “全世界的人在新年这一天都玩得很开心。”能很好地引出后面互相祝福的内容,故选A。
第三节(共8小题,61至65每小题1分;66、67每小题2分;68小题6分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,根据短文内容按要求完成任务。
My name is Mike. I come from Beijing. I’m thirteen years old. I have a good habit. My favorite foods are eggs, vegetables and fish. I like playing football. I often play it with my friends on weekends. I am in Class One, Grade Seven at No. 5 Middle School. I am good at Chinese and English, but I like music best. I think it is interesting. Now I will tell you something about our school activities this term.
We have a busy term. On September 9th, we have a basketball game at four in the afternoon. I think it is interesting. We can see some great basketball stars. In October, we have a school trip. It’s relaxing for us. In November, we have an English party. It is in our classroom. And we have an art festival on December 30th. I play the piano with my good friend Linda. We win the first prize. How happy we are! Do you want to make friends with me?
Task I Finish the chart according to the article. Fill in each blank with no more than 3 words.
Hello, everyone! Look at this boy!
57.
·His name is Mike.
·He is from ________.
·He is 13 years old.
·He’s in ________, Grade 7 at No.5 Middle School.
·He has a ________ habit. He likes eating eggs, vegetables and fish very much.
·His favorite sport is ________. He often plays it with his friends ________.
Task Ⅱ Answer the following questions.
58. What is Mike’s favorite subject?
_______________________________________
59. How many school activities does Mike’s school have? What are they?
_______________________________________
60. Do you want to make friends with Mike? Explain your reasons in about 20 words.
_______________________________________
【答案】57. ①. Beijing ②. Class 1 ③. good ④. football ⑤. on weekends
58. His favorite subject is music.
59. Four. They are the basketball game, the school trip, the English party and the art festival.
60. Yes, I do. Mike likes playing football. I like playing football, too. I want to make friends with him and play football with him. (答案不唯一)
【解析】
【导语】本文介绍了Mike的基本信息和他在学校的活动安排,包括他的爱好、学习情况以及他所在学校的各项活动。
【57题详解】
根据“My name is Mike. I come from Beijing.”可知,Mike来自北京,应用Beijing。根据“I am in Class One, Grade Seven at No. 5 Middle School”可知,他在一班,应用Class 1。根据“I have a good habit.”可知,他有一个好习惯,应用good。根据“I like playing football”可知,他最喜欢的运动是足球,应用football。根据“I often play it with my friends on weekends. ”可知,他经常在周末和朋友踢足球,应用on weekends。故填Beijing;Class 1;good;football;on weekends。
【58题详解】
根据“I like music best.”可知,Mike最喜欢的科目是音乐,故填His favorite subject is music.
【59题详解】
根据“Now I will tell you something about our school activities this term.”及后面提到的活动可知,共有四个活动:A basketball game,a school trip,an English party,an art festival。故填Four. They are the basketball game, the school trip, the English party and the art festival.
【60题详解】
开放性作答,言之有理即可。参考答案为Yes, I do. Mike likes playing football. I like playing football, too. I want to make friends with him and play football with him.
第四部分 写作(满分20分)
61. 假如你是李华,你所在班级的外教老师Mr Brown组织了一场最美家庭(The Most Beautiful Family)”的评选活动。请根据以下提示内容,向Mr Brown提交一篇不少于70词的推荐信,推荐你的家庭。
1.文章须包含图中的主要信息,可适当发挥;
2.不得出现真实姓名和学校名称;
3.70词左右,开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Mr Brown,
I would like to recommend my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I believe my family deserves this recommendation.
Yours
Li Hua
【答案】例文
Dear Mr Brown,
I would like to recommend my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.
There are three people in my family. My father is tall and strong. He is very kind and has a good sense of humor. He likes reading books in his free time. My mother is beautiful with long hair. She is kind and loves cooking delicious meals for us. I am an active student who enjoys playing sports. We often go for a walk in the park together on weekends. We also enjoy watching movies, sharing laughter and tears. I love my family. We always support and care about each other.
I believe my family deserves this recommendation.
Yours,
Li Hua
【解析】
【详解】[总体分析]
①题材:本文是一篇书信作文;
②时态:本文应使用“一般现在时”为主;
③提示:写作要点已给出,应注意不要遗漏题干中每一项内容,适当添加细节,并突出写作重点
[写作步骤]
第一步,表明写信的意图;
第二步,根据题干中的要点,介绍家庭成员的基本信息以及家庭活动,说明家庭团结有爱;
第三步,表达自己的期待,并收尾。
[亮点词汇]
①in one’s free time在某人空闲时间
②go for a walk去散步
[高分句型]
①There are three people in my family.(there be句型)
②We always support and care about each other.(and连接并列句)
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2024—2025学年度第一学期
海口市七年级英语科期末检测题
(温馨提示:本卷满分120分,考试时间90分钟。请将答案写在答题卡上)
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分20分)
第一节 (共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
1. 听句子录音,根据所听内容选择与句子意思一致的图画。句子读一遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. B. C. D. E.
1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______
第二节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听句子录音,根据所听内容选出能正确回答句子的答语。句子读两遍。
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. They are kind. B. We love them. C. About 100.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Yes, of course. B. They are beautiful. C. I have no idea.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. By bike. B. On Sunday. C. With our teachers.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. I like books. B. Good idea. C. Keep quiet!
6. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. They eat bamboo. B. They’re very cute. C. They live in Sichuan.
第三节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听对话录音,根据所听内容选出能回答所提问题的正确选项。对话读两遍。
听对话,回答小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
7. What is Anna’s gift for her teacher?
A A thank-you card. B. A color pen. C. A good book.
8. Where will Anne and her father go now?
A. To the library. B. To the store. C. To the school.
听对话,回答小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
9. Who is Peter planning to have a picnic with on Saturday?
A. His friends. B. His cousins. C. His parents.
10. What does the girl plan to do in the park on Sunday?
A. Take a walk. B. Fly a kite. C. Plant trees.
11. When is the girl going to meet Peter?
A. At 8:30 am. B. At 9:00 am. C. At 9:30 am.
第四节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听短文录音,根据所听内容选择能填入空白处或回答问题的最佳选项。短文读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
12. What does Susan’s mother do?
A. A driver. B. A teacher. C. A doctor.
13. How was the weather when Susan got up yesterday?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.
14. Who did Susan go to the Pearl River with?
A. Her friends. B. Her parents. C. Her cousins.
15. When did the dragon boat race finish?
A. At 9:20 am. B. At 10:20 am. C. At 10:30 am.
16. Which team won first place in the dragon boat race?
A. Zhuhai. B. Guangzhou. C. Shenzhen.
第二部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。
17. Science is _______ interesting subject. I like it very much.
A. a B. an C. the
18. The film Postmen in the Mountains tells us a touching story _______ the love between father and son.
A. to B. for C. about
19. This is my uncle. _______ is an English teacher.
A. He B. His C. Him
20. — It’s _______ to say “Hello” when you meet someone.
— Sure!
A difficult B. polite C. nervous
21. If you have any questions, please _______ your hand.
A. look up B. get up C. put up
22. —The girls are talking _______.
—Yes, they have so many fun things to share.
A. happily B. sadly C. suddenly
23. Lingling’s mother usually ________ a walk with her dog after dinner.
A. take B. takes C. is taking
24. —_______ do you go on the Internet?
—Once a week.
A. How soon B. How long C. How often
25 There _______ many new books in the library. I want to get some to read.
A. are B. is C. be
26. — Thank you for helping me water the flowers.
— _______
A. See you next time. B. Sorry to hear that. C. You are welcome.
第二节(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
My name is Bill. I get up ____27____ every day. It’s about 6:20 am. My mother cooks ____28____ at home for me. After I have breakfast, I ____29____ at 7:20 am and get there at about 7:40 am.
My school is very modern (现代的). There are many ____30____ buildings in our school. They’re classroom buildings, a lab building and an art building. I have most (多数的) lessons in the classroom building. I have music in the art building.
I have eight subjects. I ____31____ very hard. I’m interested in many of them and good at maths. Some of ____32____ classmates often ask me questions about our maths homework. I can ____33____ them.
Most of my teachers are very young. I like all of them. But my favourite teacher is Miss Li. She is funny. Her lessons are very ____34____. My classmates and I all like her lessons. We often watch films and sing songs in class.
There are many ____35____ in my school. I’m in the Basketball Club. Basketball is my favourite sport. I have basketball practice on the team. ____36____ I have the same favorite basketball player — Yao Ming as my teammates (队友).
I’m happy at school and I like my school.
27. A. slowly B. early C. late
28. A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner
29. A. go home B. go to bed C. go to school
30. A. beautiful B. old C. small
31. A. play B. study C. think
32 A. their B. your C. my
33. A. ask B. help C. lend
34. A. boring B. difficult C. interesting
35. A. clubs B. buildings C. lessons
36. A. But B. And C. Or
第三部分 阅读理解(共三节,满分55分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Name: Jane Smith Age: 12 Class: 8 Grade: 7 School: No.1 High School
Family
Job
Favorite
Colour
Food
Animal
Grandfather
Farmer
Green
Bread
Cats
Father
Driver
White
Meat
Birds
Mother
Teacher
Yellow
Fish
Dogs
Sister
Student
Pink
Hamburgers
Pandas
37. How old is Jane?
A. Seven. B. Eight. C. Twelve.
38. What kind of animals does Jane’s grandfather like best?
A. Cats. B. Birds. C. Dogs.
39. What does Jane’s father do?
A. A farmer. B. A driver. C. A teacher.
40. Which food does Jane’s mother like?
A. Bread. B. Meat. C. Fish.
41. What is Jane’s sister’s favourite colour?
A. Pink. B. White. C. Yellow.
B
①Junior high school has more homework and subjects than primary school. You have to know more learning ways. Listening to teachers is a good way. But teaching yourself (自学) is also a useful way to learn. So how do you teach yourself? It is not a difficult thing.
②First, you must read the textbooks. Read as much as you can.
③Second, you must ask yourself questions. The questions are something you don’t understand or you want to know about. You can write down these questions. A clever student is also good at asking questions.
④Third, you can learn to answer the questions in many ways, such as thinking by yourself, reading books and asking other people.
⑤These are the ways of teaching yourself. If you work like this for a long time, you are sure to be more successful (成功的) in your study.
42. The underlined word “It” refer to (指的是) “_______”.
A. Reading books B. Doing homework C. Teaching yourself
43. What should you do first when you teach yourself?
A. Think by yourself. B. Read textbooks. C. Ask questions.
44. How can we learn to answer the questions?
a. thinking by yourself. b. reading books. c. asking other people. d. listening to the radio.
A. bcd B. abc C. acd
45. Which is the structure(结构) of the passage?
A. B. C.
46. What is the best title (标题) of the passage?
A. Ways to teach yourself B. What to do in the classroom C. How to become a clever student
C
Every day, we see many things around us. Some things are living (有生命的), and some are nonliving (无生命的). Let’s learn how they are different.
Living things
Living things can grow and change. For example, plants are living things, like dandelions, bamboo and roses. Animals are living things. And guess what? You’re living thing, too! Living things need to breathe air, and they have to eat and drink. People and animals can walk or move on their own. They can find food and water in different places.
Plants don’t walk, but they are still living things. They make their own food using sunlight, water, and air. They can grow up tall to catch the sunlight. Water usually comes to them. What living things do you see every day?
Nonliving Things
Nonliving things don’t need to eat, breathe air or drink water. They can’t breathe at all. A toy is not a living thing. A ball can move around, but is it a living thing? No, it’s not. A ball only runs when we kick (踢) it. It can’t move by itself. It doesn’t breathe and it doesn’t grow. It’s a not a living thing.
Look around you. What nonliving things do you see? All the living and nonliving things in our world are special. It’s important to take care of everything.
47. The underlined (画线的) word “dandelions” might be the name of _______.
A. a plant B. an animal C. a sport
48. Which of the statements (陈述) about living things is TRUE (正确的)?
A. Plants don’t need food, water or air.
B. Plants and animals are both living things.
C. Animals can make food from sunlight, water and air.
49. Which of the following is a nonliving thing?
A. B. C.
50. What does the writer think of things around us?
A. They have nothing to do with us.
B We should love and care about them carefully.
C. Living things are important but nonliving things are not.
51. Where can we read the passage?
A. In a history book. B. In a math book. C. In a science book.
第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有一项为多余选项。
Celebrating New Year happens in every country. But each country has its own way to celebrate New Year.
____52____ One is on January 1st, and the other is in January or February. People have many activities to celebrate New Year, like watching lion dances or having a family dinner.
People in Thailand (泰国) celebrate it by pouring (泼) water on friends and visitors. ____53____ Their New Year isn’t on January 1st. It is in April. ____54____
In Switzerland (瑞士), people often go skiing to celebrate New Year. ____55____ They jump up and down to make the cow bells ring. They hope this will sweep away the bad luck of the old year.
____56____ They often say “Happy New Year” to each other.
A. People all over the world have a great time on New Year’s Day.
B. The Chinese people celebrate New Year twice.
C. We eat dumplings on that day.
D. They think this will bring much rain in the next growing season.
E. It is very hot at that time of a year in Thailand.
F. They sing in the ice and snow world.
第三节(共8小题,61至65每小题1分;66、67每小题2分;68小题6分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,根据短文内容按要求完成任务。
My name is Mike. I come from Beijing. I’m thirteen years old. I have a good habit. My favorite foods are eggs, vegetables and fish. I like playing football. I often play it with my friends on weekends. I am in Class One, Grade Seven at No. 5 Middle School. I am good at Chinese and English, but I like music best. I think it is interesting. Now I will tell you something about our school activities this term.
We have a busy term. On September 9th, we have a basketball game at four in the afternoon. I think it is interesting. We can see some great basketball stars. In October, we have a school trip. It’s relaxing for us. In November, we have an English party. It is in our classroom. And we have an art festival on December 30th. I play the piano with my good friend Linda. We win the first prize. How happy we are! Do you want to make friends with me?
Task I Finish the chart according to the article. Fill in each blank with no more than 3 words.
Hello, everyone! Look at this boy!
57.
·His name is Mike.
·He is from ________.
·He is 13 years old.
·He’s in ________, Grade 7 at No.5 Middle School.
·He has a ________ habit. He likes eating eggs, vegetables and fish very much.
·His favorite sport is ________. He often plays it with his friends ________.
Task Ⅱ Answer the following questions.
58. What is Mike’s favorite subject?
_______________________________________
59. How many school activities does Mike’s school have? What are they?
_______________________________________
60. Do you want to make friends with Mike? Explain your reasons in about 20 words.
_______________________________________
第四部分 写作(满分20分)
61. 假如你是李华,你所在班级的外教老师Mr Brown组织了一场最美家庭(The Most Beautiful Family)”的评选活动。请根据以下提示内容,向Mr Brown提交一篇不少于70词的推荐信,推荐你的家庭。
1.文章须包含图中的主要信息,可适当发挥;
2.不得出现真实姓名和学校名称;
3.70词左右,开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Mr Brown,
I would like to recommend my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I believe my family deserves this recommendation.
Yours,
Li Hua
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