辽宁省抚顺市省重点高中六校协作体2024-2025学年高一上学期期末考试英语试卷

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2025-01-09
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学段 高中
学科 英语
教材版本 -
年级 高一
章节 -
类型 试卷
知识点 -
使用场景 同步教学-期末
学年 2024-2025
地区(省份) 辽宁省
地区(市) 抚顺市
地区(区县) -
文件格式 ZIP
文件大小 17.29 MB
发布时间 2025-01-09
更新时间 2025-01-14
作者 学科网试题平台
品牌系列 -
审核时间 2025-01-09
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价格 2.00储值(1储值=1元)
来源 学科网

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2024—2025学年度上学期“抚顺六校协作体” 期末考试试题 高一英语 考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例:How much is the shirt? A.£19.15. B.£918. C.£9.15 答案是C。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 What gift did Anna get from her job? A. A water bottle. B. A T-shirt. C. ACD. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 What are the speakers discussing? A. A lesson. B. A picture. C. An activity. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 Why does the man sound upset? A. Because the guitar was bought by someone else. B. Because he still can’t afford the guitar. C. Because the woman sold the guitar to a crazy man. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 What does the boy want to have for lunch? A. A potato salad. B. A beef sandwich. C. Fried rice. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 What does the woman advise the man to do? A. Give up Harvard. B. Choose another school. C. Consider more options. 第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟; 听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 6. How much will the man pay for the Bluetooth earphone? A. $60. B. $140. C. $200. 7. What does the man probably care about most? A. The quality. B. Repair service. C. Exchange policy. 听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 8. When will the woman eat out with her parents? A. On Monday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday. 9 What will the man do this weekend? A. Do some housework. B. Rest at home. C. Take a business trip. 听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 10. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Co-workers. C. Classmates. 11. What club does John join? A. The chess club. B. The science club. C. The swimming club. 12. When will John’s group meet? A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Sunday. 听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 13. What is the rent for a two-bedroom flat in the south? A. About $650 a month. B. About $380 a month. C. About $180 a month. 14. What is the advantage of the eastern area? A. There is a beach. B. There are lots of parks. C. There are many factories. 15. Why are people unwilling to live in the north? A. It is too expensive. B. The transportation is inconvenient. C. The wetlands attract many insects. 16. Who is probably the man? A. A tour guide. B. A hotel clerk. C. A house agent. 听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 17. What do we know about the meat? A. It was sold out. B. It rose in price. C. It made people sick. 18. What caused the traffic jam? A. The book fair. B. Road accidents. C. The rush hour. 19. What day is it today? A. Thursday. B. Friday. C. Sunday. 20. Where will the book fair take place? A. On Main Street. B. On State Street. C. On Highway 5. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A Four Recommended Movies and TV shows of 2024 FILM Challengers Zendaya does great work as a former tennis star who now coaches her husband (Mike Faist). And when her former love (Josh O’ Connor), who’ s also a hotshot in the sport, reappears in their lives, everything goes out of control. A pounding score, adventurous editing and one of the smartest weird endings in recent memory completes a movie not quite like any other. — Linda Holmes Genre: Comedy, Drama, Sports TV Photographer For those tempted to dismiss National Geographic shows as televised coffee table books, this series shatters those assumptions with revealing tales on the lives and work of seven astoundingly talented visual artists. My favorite story: Paul Nicklen, who was raised among Inuit people in the Arctic, and Cristina Mittermeier, who grew up in Mexico City and faced down racism and sexism throughout her career, have become a couple hailed as iconic ocean photographers, fooling oil rig workers to get crucial, breathtaking photos. — Eric Deggans Genre: Biography, Documentary FILM Sing Sing Inspired by a long-running arts program at the infamous maximum-security prison, there are many ways this drama could’ve turned out reductive and tired. But it sidesteps them all beautifully, with help from Colman Domingo, giving one of the best performances of the year. Even more notably, it features moving turns from formerly imprisoned men, and those men drew on their own experiences to help tell a story that finds humanity in a place designed to do the exact opposite. — Aisha Harris Genre: Biography, Drama TV Ripley This new adaptation of Patricia Highsmith’s novel The Talented Mr. Ripley relied on outstanding work from star Andrew Scott as well as stunning black-and-white cinematography. This is an older, darker Tom than the one Matt Damon played in 1999, but he’s just as frightening and manipulative. A stretch of almost 20 wordless minutes in the third episode that deals with the logistics of murder was one of the most inventive and darkly funny things I saw this year. — Linda Holmes Genre: Drama, Horror and Thriller 21. In the movie “Challengers”, who is Zendaya? A. A current tennis champion. B. A coach who has never played tennis. C. A hotshot in the sport who has no relation with Zendaya. D. A former tennis star who coaches her husband. 22. Who grew up among Inuit people? A. Cristina Mittermeier. B. Paul Nicklen. C. Eric Deggans. D. Linda Holmes. 23. What is this text mainly about? A. Comparison about different movies and TV shows in 2024. B. The acting skills of the actors in these works. C Introduction of some of the best movies and TV shows in 2024. D. Discussion on the influence of these movies and TV shows on the audience. B In the summer of 2018, like any typical high school student, I was spending my summer afternoons watching tons and tons of cinema and TV. There was one TV show that drew my attention and I still remember its name — Love’ Me, If You Dare. The story was so interesting, and the sounds of the Chinese language so interesting, that I followed up that Chinese show with more Chinese show. However, what I didn’t realize was that I had unknowingly learned some basic pronunciation and many words of Chinese. In 2020, I made a resolution to learn Chinese seriously. I simply did what most others do — googled how to learn Chinese, and started watching videos that teach Chinese through vocabulary exercises and grammar rules. But in a matter of weeks, I became frustrated. I wasn’t learning anything. It was during this time of frustration that I came across Dr. Stephen Krashen’s theory (理论) on second language acquisition — the process of immersion (沉浸式学习), and specifically Comprehensible Input. Comprehensible Input totally changed my way of learning Chinese. I gave up the useless videos and traditional methods of study, and instead focused on understandable Chinese content. I also used graded readers and children’s short stories as part of my daily Chinese “studies.” Besides, I made a rule to spend time immersing myself in the language for at least 1-2 hours every day. Recently, I was excited to see how far my Chinese language journey had taken me! Despite still having a long way to go towards fluency, I take pride in my daily progress. For me, learning a language is an ongoing adventure, filled with small victories and continuous growth. 24. What is the writer’s purpose in sharing his experience in paragraph 1? A. To introduce easy ways to pick up Chinese. B. To explain which part of Chinese he preferred. C. To stress his years of efforts in learning Chinese. D. To show how he developed an interest in Chinese. 25. What does the word “resolution” underlined in paragraph 2 mean? A. Choice. B. Determination. C. Statement. D. Promise. 26. What can we infer about Dr. Stephen Krashen’s theory? A. It encourages learning through immersion and understandable content. B. It emphasizes the importance of grammar rules. C. It focuses on learning Chinese through watching TV shows. D. It suggests learning a lot of difficult words at once. 27. What can we learn about the writer from the last paragraph? A. He has developed great fluency in Chinese. B. He feels proud of his talent for the Chinese language. C. He gets a sense of achievement in learning Chinese. D. He has decided to stop learning Chinese for a while. C Many of us have read “The Art Of War” (《孙子兵法》), but how many of us have truly understood it? What does the most influential and important military text have to teach us? How can a 2,500-year-old Chinese strategist be so important even now? The author Sun Tzu’s whole existence is in mystery. Where did he live? Where was he born? How did he become so successful? How did he die? No one truly knows the answer to these questions. According to researchers, Sun Tzu supposedly wrote the texts during the Warring States period (475-221 BCE). This was the time when China was divided into seven states that started war against each other for supremacy (霸权). The famous military text has now turned into a guide for all manner of conflict, and it is recommended by all the famous business gurus (权威) and even sports coaches. Whenever there is a battle within ourselves, or internal/ external conflict in an organization, The Art Of War provides the necessary guidelines for victory. Even if the conflict is with one’s competition or nature, it gives definitive advice on how to approach that conflict and emerge victorious. One of the first lessons that we learn from The Art Of War is to assess your enemy and yourself. Knowing yourself is important but it is also equally important to know your enemy. Understand your strengths but also recognize your weaknesses and vulnerabilities. This can help you develop strategies to protect the weakest parts of yourself. 28. What is the main mystery about Sun Tzu according to the text? A. His military strategies. B. His real name. C. His personal life details. D. His victories. 29. According to the text, which fields now can The Art Of War be used in? A. All fields involving conflict. B. Business and sports mainly. C. Military and history only. D. Education and self-improvement. 30. According to the last paragraph, what is one of the first lessons from The Art Of War? A. He will win who knows when to fight and when not to fight. B. To focus only on your own strengths. C. To avoid any weaknesses. D. Know yourself and know your enemy, and you will not be imperiled in a hundred battles. 31. What is the main purpose of the text? A. To introduce the life of Sun Tzu. B. To explain the importance and influence of The Art Of War. C. To list the lessons we can learn from The Art Of War. D. To compare The Art Of War in different fields. D Bald eagles have symbolized America since 1782, with its image appearing across currency, documents, flags, stamps, government buildings, military uniforms and more. You’d be forgiven for thinking it’s America’s national bird. They’re not officially designated yet. On Monday, the House of Representatives passed a bill amending (修改) the U.S. Code to officially designate the bald eagle as the country’s national bird. The Senate already passed the bill, with bipartisan support, in July. Now it just needs President Biden’s signature to become the law of the land. Bald eagles lived peacefully among Indigenous Americans (who consider them sacred) for generations and were plentiful in the U.S. when they were chosen as the star of the Great Seal in 1782. But their population has declined dangerously at times since. For many decades they were considered an endangered species, largely due to “human ignorance and harm by pesticides, careless shootings, car and powerline collisions and loss of habitat for nesting and foraging for food,” according to the National Audubon Society. Congress passed the Bald Eagle Protection Act in 1940, making it illegal to possess, kill or sell the birds. But in that decade, a new threat emerged: the insecticide DDT, which caused eggshells to thin and easily break. By 1963, there were a record-low 417 nesting pairs in the lower 48 states. But federal protections saved the species from near-extinction. After the U.S. banned DDT in 1972 (and Canada the following year), the bald eagle population increased exponentially. By 2007, they were removed from the Endangered Species list and considered officially “recovered.” Ed Hahn, the communications director at the National Eagle Center, hopes the bird’s legacy holds lessons for the management of other species, whether they are nationally recognized or not. “When we look at some of the issues that are facing other natural resources today, we can look again at our living national symbol and now our official national bird,” Hahn told MPR News. “It shows what we are able and willing to do when we truly value something, when it’s important to us.” 32. Why does the author mention that the bald eagle has symbolized America since 1782? A. To contrast it with other national symbols. B. To show its long-standing importance. C. To suggest that its symbolism is no longer relevant. D. To argue that it should have been made the national bird earlier. 33. Why was the bald eagle considered an endangered species for many decades? A. Due to a variety of human-related factors and pesticide use. B. Only because of human shootings. C. Because they lost their ability to forage. D. As a result of migrating to other areas. 34. What does the author imply about the role of federal protections in the bald eagle’s recovery? A. They had little effect. B. They were unnecessary. C. They were the only reason for the recovery. D. They played a crucial role. 35. According to the text, what does Ed Hahn expect for regarding the bald eagle’s legacy? A. It will only be remembered as a national symbol. B. It will be forgotten as other species become more important. C. It will serve as a model for managing other species. D. It will lead to more funding for eagle conservation. 第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分) 阅读下列短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项多余选项。 Ways To Increase the Quality of Your Life Everyone at some time feels that their life is going nowhere-and fast. Do you think that your life is idling? Have you reached a stage where things are OK, but not very exciting? If you do feel these things, then it is time to do something to increase the quality of your life. ___36___ 1. Treat yourself. It doesn’t matter if it’s a meal out, a visit to a theater, or a pampering visit to a spa. Make the first thing you do a treat that you have been dying for some time. ___37___. Treats can be free, and you can always make time. Remember, no more excuses! You are worth it! 2. Take up a hobby. When you lead a dull life, it is great to have something that takes you into another world. ___38___. If you love to read, devote time to just sitting with a book and losing yourself in an imaginary world. 3. Learn a skill. Learning a new skill is one of the most satisfying things you can do. You will feel a sense of achievement that will boost your self-image. ___39___. Whether it’s learning a foreign language or playing a musical instrument, there will be a class near your home. 4. ___40___. Often we lose sight of the positive, beneficial things in our lives. Everyone has things to be grateful for and making a list helps to concentrate your mind on these positives. Allow yourself a few minutes to think about your life and identify the good things. Make the list detailed, so, for example, when you say you love your garden, single out a particular plant or tree that you especially appreciate. 5. Take a trip. A busy life with no time off is not good for you. We all need a little relaxation. Looking forward to a trip is a great way to make yourself feel better. Planning the trip and anticipating it is positive, and then the trip itself will be a fantastic boost. A. Create a gratitude list. B. Hold a positive attitude. C. A great way to learn a skill is to join a class. D. Don’t make excuses about not having time or money. E. Hobbies are brilliant for giving you something different to do that you enjoy. F. Read our list of things to do now to make your life better and more enjoyable. G. It could be anything from learning to cook a new cuisine to mastering a software program. 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节,满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题; 每题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 After the Hurricane Francine, a dramatic rescue was broadcast on live television. On the evening of Wednesday, September 11, Miles Crawford, an off-duty emergency nurse in Lakeview, Louisiana, sprang into action when he learned someone was ___41___ in a sinking (下沉的) pickup truck in floodwaters just 200 feet from his home. At around 8:45 p. m., Crawford received a(n) ___42___ call from his brother, saying that a news reporter accidentally caught a(n) ___43___ scene. A truck dived into a nearby river with the driver stuck in it. Without hesitation, Crawford ___44___ to the scene. As Crawford got closer to the sinking ___45___, a police officer told him about the ___46___ conditions. Despite the ___47___, Crawford quickly took matters into his own hands. At the sudden realization of the ___48___ of a tool to break the window, he rushed back to his house to take a hammer. When he ___49___ the chest-high floodwaters and came to the vehicle, the water had _____50_____ the driver’s chin (下巴), and time was running out. Crawford _____51_____ the man to move to the back of the truck, where the water was slightly shallower (浅), and _____52_____ the back window with his hammer. He pulled the man out, guided him through the floodwaters, and helped him climb over to _____53_____. Just 10 minutes later, the truck _____54_____ fully into the water. Crawford said his background as an emergency nurse helped him stay _____55_____ throughout the rescue. “I’m used to high stress and high level of things on a daily basis,” he told news reporters. 41. A. recognized B. trapped C. filled D. concentrated 42. A. unacceptable B. unbelievable C. unavoidable D. unexpected 43. A. heart-breaking B. funny-looking C. heart-warming D. eye-catching 44. A. jumped B. drove C. ran D. hike 45. A. truck B. water C. house D. river 46. A. unique B. amazing C. safe D. dangerous 47. A. prevention B. alarm C. warning D. efforts 48. A. delivery B. control C. loss D. need 49. A. dived into B. checked out C. looked into D. worked out 50. A. attempted B. reached C. washed D. damaged 51. A. appreciated B. promised C. prevented D. instructed 52. A. closed B. struck C. broke D. conducted 53. A. safety B. distance C. source D. entrance 54. A. survived B. sank C. damaged D. dropped 55. A. smart B. formal C. calm D. different 第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5 分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Luosifen is a combination of river snails and rice noodles, originating in Liuzhou, Guangxi. Since Liuzhou is a city full of Luosifen restaurants, with many near one another, you can even smell it while ___56___ (walk) down the street! Because of the humid climate in Liuzhou, people tend to lose their appetite, but the spicy and sour taste excites ___57___ (people) appetite. Modern young people ___58___ prefer the taste can also add extra chili, fresh green vegetables or garlic ___59___ (suit) their own taste. Despite the word “snail” in its Chinese name, actual snails don’t commonly appear in the dish, but ___60___ (use) to flavor (调味) the soup. There being many choices of packaged Luosifen these days, people can easily prepare ___61___ (they) favorite taste at home. Some people even cook Luosifen-based hotpot themselves. Admittedly, Luosifen has become ___62___ must-try dish for those enthusiasts (热衷者) seeking a genuine cuisine. It is popular not only in China ___63___ internationally, with many local variations to suit different tastes. Luosifen is sure to leave a lasting ___64___ (impress) on your taste buds, providing ____65____ (true) unforgettable food experience. 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分) 第一节: 应用文写作(满分15分) 66. 假定你是李华,你校发起了一项活动,倡议每个班级都养绿植。请你给学校微信公众号写一篇英文短文投稿,介绍相关情况,内容包括: 1.活动目的; 2.活动内容; 3.活动的效果和反响; 注意:词数80左右; An activity of keeping green plants ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 (满分25分) 67. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Martin is a high school student who enjoys the friendship with his classmates, but sometimes he wonders what true friendship really is. One day, he expressed his confusion to his mom, who suggested that he organize a team-building activity to explore the real meaning of friendship. Martin’s mom suggested that he organize an activity at school that would require teamwork and joint support. His mom told him he would get a new bike he always wanted as a prize after understanding the meaning of friendship. Martin thought this was a great idea and decided to talk to his teacher about it. His teacher was very supportive and gave him some valuable advice. With the teacher’s guidance, Martin began planning the event. He chose a weekend and invited his classmates to participate. He carefully designed the activity, preparing various challenges to ensure everyone could get involved. He explained the rules, including how to divide tasks, communicate effectively, and support each other when facing challenges. He emphasized the importance of teamwork and how to build trust and cooperation during the activity. On the day of the event, Martin and his classmates moved around the campus, searching for hidden markers. They were divided into several groups, each assigned different tasks. Some had to solve puzzles, while others had to complete physical challenges. Some tasks required close cooperation among team members. Martin noticed that some classmates encouraged each other when facing difficulties, while others shared their findings to benefit the whole team. Together, they overcame one obstacle after another, and each success strengthened the team’s cohesion (凝聚力). Among the challenges, one was impressive. In the challenge, they had to cross a rope bridge over a simulated river. Team members had to support each other to ensure everyone crossed safely. Martin saw classmates who usually didn’t interact much tightly holding each other’s hands, giving courage and support. This scene deeply moved him, making him realize the powerful bond of friendship when facing challenges together. 注意: 1.续写词数应为150个左右; 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 After the activity, Martin shared the day’s events with his mom. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Martin deeply understood his mom’s words. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024—2025学年度上学期“抚顺六校协作体” 期末考试试题 高一英语 考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例:How much is the shirt? A.£19.15. B.£918. C.£9.15 答案C。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】A 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】C 第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟; 听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. B 7. C 【8~9题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. B 【10~12题答案】 【答案】10. A 11. A 12. C 【13~16题答案】 【答案】13. B 14. B 15. C 16. C 【17~20题答案】 【答案】17 C 18. A 19. A 20. B 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. B 23. C B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. D 25. B 26. A 27. C C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. C 29. A 30. D 31. B D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. B 33. A 34. D 35. C 第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分) 阅读下列短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项多余选项。 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. F 37. D 38. E 39. C 40. A 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节,满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题; 每题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【41~55题答案】 【答案】41 B 42. D 43. A 44. C 45. A 46. D 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. B 51. D 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. C 第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5 分,满分15分) 【56~65题答案】 【答案】56. walking 57. people’s 58. who##that 59. to suit 60. are used 61. their 62. a 63. but 64. impression 65. truly 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分) 第一节: 应用文写作(满分15分) 【66题答案】 【答案】An activity of keeping green plants To create a greener school environment, our school launched an initiative which encouraged each class to keep green plants. First, each class was tasked with selecting a type of plant to care for. It was also worth mentioning that we took on various responsibilities from watering and fertilizing to monitoring growth. Besides that, we organized a small exhibition, allowing us to showcase our plants and shared our experiences. Overall, the initiative was fun and meaningful. Not only did it create a healthier environment, but it also fostered a greater appreciation for nature among us. 第二节 (满分25分) 【67题答案】 【答案】 After the activity, Martin shared the day’s events with his mom. He told her about how classmates helped each other during the challenges, especially when crossing the rope bridge. He said he was amazed to see the changes in his friends, and how they united and became stronger as a team. He realized that was exactly true friendship. His mom happily said,“ you are right. True friendship is about being there for each other in tough times and working towards a common goal.” Martin deeply understood his mom’s words. He understood that friendship isn’t just about having fun together, but also about mutual support and cooperation. He felt that through this activity, he had truly grasped the meaning of friendship. With this new understanding, he was looking forward to even deeper and more meaningful friendships with his classmates. And he was pleased to receive the new bike as a reward for this valuable discovery. 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$null

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辽宁省抚顺市省重点高中六校协作体2024-2025学年高一上学期期末考试英语试卷
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辽宁省抚顺市省重点高中六校协作体2024-2025学年高一上学期期末考试英语试卷
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辽宁省抚顺市省重点高中六校协作体2024-2025学年高一上学期期末考试英语试卷
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