浙江省杭州市萧山区萧山东片7校联考2024-2025学年九年级上学期11月期中考试英语试题

2024学年第一学期九年级期中学情调研 英语听力材及答案 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分20分) 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置，听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1.W:What a beautiful cup? What is it made of? M: It's made of silver. 2.W:Mark, you look strong and healthy. Do you often exercise? M: Yes. I play basketball every day, and I go swimming once a week. 3.W:Look at those clouds. M: They are getting darker and darker. 4.W:Who left this English book on my desk. Is it yours? Mike? M:No. Mine is here. It must be Amy's. Her name is on it. 5.W:Jeff,what do you think the life will be like in the future? M: I think there will be more trees and fewer cars. 第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分） 听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 W:Hey, James, you look sleepy now. Did you stay up late last night? M: Yes,Helen.I started for the English test until midnight. I found it hard to remember everything. W:That's true.And midnight isn't a good time to study. M: So how do you prepare for a test? W:I usually review my notes. It helps a lot. M: Do you often study with a group? W:No, I don't. Wait a minute. I don't think we will have an English test this afternoon. There will be a history test. M:Oh,no!. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 M:Cathy, what did you do during the winter vacation? W:I visited my grandparents with my parents. M: How did you get there? W:My father didn't drive his car. We went there by train. M: How long did you stay there? W:For two weeks. Although it was short, I really had a good time. M: Sounds good.You must have done many interesting things. W:Yes.My grandparents had a farm and I really enjoyed myself there.Oh, the bus +is coming. I need to go now. M: See you later. W:See you! 听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。现在，你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。 M/W: Hello to all our listeners. Welcome back to Art On The Air. Today, let's get to know Frida Carlo, one of Mexico's greatest artists. Freda was born in Mexico in 1907. Her father was a German, and he met Frida’s mother in Mexico. Her father took photos and she liked helping him. However, Frida was badly hurt in a bus accident when she was 18. She could not go back to school and had to stay in bed for months. She taught herself to paint while she was in bed. Her paintings were bright and she painted mainly about her life or herself with animals. Frida was thought to be brave because she did not let her illness stop her from painting. Her old house was turned into a place where other people could learn about her life. 英语 参考答案 第一部分 1-5BCBBC 6-10 AACBA 11--15BBCCA 第二部分 第一节（共15小题，计30分） 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. A 25.D 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. C 第二节（共5小题，计10分） 31. B 32. A 33. E 34. D 35. Join different kinds of clubs./ Invite others to play ball games with us.（答案不唯一，合理即可） 第三部分 第一节（共15小题，计15分） 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. B 48. C 49. B 50. A 第二节 （共15小题，计15分） 51.meeting 52. First 53. with/by 54. a 55.is thought 56.British 57.to say 58. also 59. If 60.the most common 61. equator 62. largest 63. full 64. were lying 65.surprised 第四部分 第一节（共10小题，计10分） 66. ourselves 67. fourth 68. rest 69. start 70. musical 71. prices 72. worried 73. until 74. simple 75. competition 第二节（共1小题，计20分） 书面表达评分标准 第五档(18~20分) 很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少，格式正确，书写规范。 第四档(14~17分) 较好地完成了规定的写作任务:基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。 第三档(10~13分) 基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多、格式基本正确，书写基本规范。 第二档(6~9分) 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多、影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。 第一档(0~5分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误较多，书写不规范。 第8页 / 共15页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$2024学年第一学期九年级期中学情调研英语答题卷 第I卷 第一部分听力(20分) 第一节听小对话，回答问题（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 1. b 3. 4. 5. 第二节听长对话或独白，选答案（共10小题，每题1.5分，满分15分） 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分) 第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 31. 32. 33. 34 35 第三部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 36 37. 38 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 第Ⅱ卷 第二节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 51 52 53. 54 55. 56 57. 58. 59. 60 英语答题卷第1页共2页 第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节：词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A用方框中所给单词或词组的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。 61. 62 63 64 65, B.根据括号内所给汉语意思写出单词的正确、完全形式，每空限填一词。 66 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72 73 74 75. 第二节书面表达（共1题，满分20分） Hi Adam, Best regards. Li Ping (给11条线) 英语答题卷第2页共2页 2024学年第一学期九年级期中学情调研 英语调研卷 命题人：9年级备课组 审核人：9年级备课组 考生须知： 1、本试卷分试题卷和答题卷两部分，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2、所有答案都必须做在答题卷标定的位置上，务必注意试题序号和答题序号相对应。 3、考试结束后，上交试题卷和答题卷。 第I卷 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分20分) 第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分) 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置，听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What’s the cup made of? A. Gold. B. Silver. C. Glass. 2. How often does Mark go swimming? A. Every day. B. Twice a day. C. Once a week. 3. How will the weather probably be? A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Windy. 4. Whose English book is it? A. Mike’s. B. Amy’s. C. Katie’s. 5. What are the two speakers talking about? A. A new car. B. A kind of tree. C. The future life 第二节 (共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分) 听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的做答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。对话读两遍。 6. When did James study for the test? A. Last night. B. This morning. C. This afternoon. 7. How does Helen study for a test? A. By reviewing notes. B. By making mind maps. C. By studying with a group. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。对话读两遍。 8. How did the girl go to her grandparents’ home? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By train. 9. How long did the girl stay there? A. For two days. B. For two weeks. C. For two months. 10. Where are the two speakers now? A. At the bus station. B. In the classroom. C. On the farm. 听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。独白读两遍。 11. Where was Frida from? A. Germany. B. Mexico. C. America. 12. What happened when Frida was 18 years old? A. She learned to take photos. B. She got hurt in a bus accident. C. She got into a good university. 13. Who taught Frida to paint? A. Her father. B. Her teacher. C. She taught herself. 14. What are Frida’s paintings mainly about? A. Her life or her family. B. Her life or her old house. C. Her life or herself with animals. 15. What did people think of Frida? A. Brave. B. Hard-working. C. Lucky. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A.B.C和D)中选出最佳选项。 A Trip 1 One Week in the Mountains Bring your strong shoes and warm clothes for this walk in a beautiful area of the Green Mountains. You may go hiking or try rock climbing. You can also find many kinds of animals living in this area. Time: May 8 ~ May 14 Tel: 6463-9818 Adults: $110 Children: $55 Trip 2 Three Days in the Countryside There are beautiful gardens. Take your camera and enjoy the wonderful sights in the Hunter Valley. It is a good place for fishing and horse riding. You can also find different kinds of flowers here. Time: May 20 ~ May 22 Tel: 6398-6432 Adults: $50 Children: $25 Trip 3 Flashlight(手电筒) Adventure Put on your warm clothes, bring a flashlight and come for a night walk along the Duck Vally. It is a trip full of adventure. A guide will lead the tour. Many of the plants you will see on this trip can only be seen at night. Time: May 16 ~ May 18 Tel: 6387-5629 Adults: $30 Free for children Trip 4 Five Days by the Sea Wear your sun hat and enjoy wonderful sunshine all the time. Our hotel is next to the sea. We have our own boats, too. You can swim in the sea or in the swimming pool. Time: May 23~ May 27 Tel: 6753-8293 Adults: $80 Children: $40 16. Which number may you call if you want to watch the plants at night? A. 6753-8293 B. 6387-5629 C. 6398-6432 D. 6463-9818 17. David wants to enjoy the sunshine with his wife, his 5-year-old daughter and his 7-year-old son. How much will he pay? A. $80 B. $120 C. $200 D. $240 18. Where is the passage probably from? A. A diary. B. A newspaper. C. A survey. D. A menu. B. Once upon a time, there lived a kind-hearted king. He loved birds and animals, and had a huge bird sanctuary（禁猎区）in his kingdom. He hated harming the animals and birds. He did not kill them for meat. One day, the king was sent two beautiful birds by a businessman. The king ordered the trainer to make them feel comfortable in their country. One day, the king saw one bird fly very high, very quickly. However, the other bird just sat on the branch（树枝）and didn’t move even a step. The trainer said that he had tried everything he could but still failed to make the bird move. Later, the king decided to find someone in the country to make it move and fly. A few weeks later, an old man reached the king's palace and assured him that he would make the bird fly like the other one. The king asked the trainer to take the old man to train the bird. The next day, the king went to visit the old man. He was surprised to see the other bird fly like the first one to great height at rapid speed. The king was very happy and sent the old man quite a few gold coins and asked the old man what he had done to make the bird fly in a day. The old man simply replied, “I just cut down the branch of the tree where the bird used to sit on. Many of us are like this. We have wings to fly; we know how to fly, and where to fly. Still we sit doing nothing or doing something that makes us inferior（较差的）to others. 19. What did the king do after he got the two birds? A. He sent them to a businessman in the forest. B. He kept them on the branch of a tree. C. He ask the trainer to take care of them. D. He set them free and let them fly away. 20. What does the underlined part “assured him” probably mean? A. Made him agree. B. Let him believe. C. Helped him fly. D. Cheer him up. 21. Why did the king go to visit the old man the next day? A. To see if the man's words were true. B. To have a talk with the trainer. C. To make the other bird fly in the sky. D. To give the old man some money. 22. What can we learn from the passage? A. The businessman became the richest man in the world. B. The trainer was successful in making both birds fly. C. The king killed the two birds for meat in the end. D. The old man used a simple way to make the bird fly. C ①A hungry fly(苍蝇) speeds through a forest. It smells nectar (花蜜) and lands on a green leaf. It starts to drink the sweet liquid (液体). Suddenly, the fly’s world turns green. The two sides of the leaf close against each other. Long green teeth lock together around it. The fly has been caught by Venus flytrap(捕蝇草). There is no way to run away alive. ②The Venus flytrap is perhaps the most famous killer plant. However, scientists have only recently started to understand how it hunts (猎取) and eats. After years of study, plant scientist Alexander Volkov believes he now knows the Venus flytrap’s secret. “This,” says Volkov, “is an electrical plant.” ③There are three small hairs along each of the Venus flytrap’s two leaves. When an insect(昆虫) touches a hair, it creates an electrical signal (信号) in the leaf. The insect can continue feeding - for now. But if it touches another hair within 20 seconds, the leaf traps suddenly close. This allows the plant to tell the difference between a drop of water, for example, and a moving insect. ④Once trapped(困在陷阱中), an insect has little chance of staying alive. Instead of nectar, the Venus flytrap now gives out a different liquid - one that slowly eats away at the insect. Ten days later, almost nothing is left. The plant’s leaves open again, and the Venus flytrap is ready for its next meal. 23. Why does the writer tell a story of a fly in Paragraph 1? A. To show how poor the fly is. B. To show how the plant hunts. C. To show how the fly gets food. D. To show how the plant grows. 24. According to the passage, what can we learn about the Venus flytrap? A. It uses electrical signals. B. It eats with its long teeth. C. It makes three kinds of liquid. D. It closes slowly when hunting 25. What's the structure of the passage? A. B. C. D. 26. What’s the best title for the passage? A. Wonderful electricity. B. Three powerful hairs. C. A famous killer plant. D. The death of an insect. D Misty Copeland spends most days practicing and perfecting the graceful movements of her art. She takes classes almost every day and takes care of her body so she doesn’t hurt it when she goes to work at American Ballet (芭蕾) Theatre, one of the most famous ballet companies in the world. Misty didn’t always feel so confident (自信) in herself. The challenges she has faced over almost 20 years of dancing have made her strong. She was a shy child, but she loved music and movement. When she was 13, she joined the drill team(体操表演队). One day, her coach (教练) advised that she attend a free ballet class at the Boys & Girls club. For two weeks, Misty sat on the gym platforms watching the class, afraid to join in. Finally, she gave it a try. At first, Misty felt out of place in the class. She didn't know anything about ballet, and she was older than most of the students. Even though Misty felt discouraged, she didn’t give up. She talked with others who had similar problems. With the support of these friends, things slowly improved. Over the next five years, ballet was Misty’s life. She practiced, performed, competed, attended summer ballet programs, and got many prizes. Today, Misty says, “I’ve learned to accept my appearance, skin color, and figure.” She wants to help other dancers, especially ballerinas of color, accept themselves, too. She wrote a picture book, Firebird, in which her character encourages a young African American ballerina. In a note at the end of the book. Misty tells readers to follow their dreams, “No matter what that dream is,” she writes, “you have the power to make it come true with hard work and dedication.” 27. Which word can best describe Misty according to Paragraph 1? A. Hard-working. B. Talented. C. Helpful. D. Creative. 28. Which of the following is TRUE about Misty? A. She started dancing before she was 13. B. She enjoys the feeling of practicing and performing ballet. C. She is successful because of her talent and perfect body. D. She became confident again each time with the help of her parents. 29. What does the underlined word “discouraged” probably mean? A. Upset. B. Bored. C. Shy. D. Lonely. 30.What’s the best title of the passage? A. Training for Ballet B. The Challenges of Ballet C. Dance towards Dreams D.A Great Performance 第二节（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选择正确的选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号填入31-34题，并回答35题。 A survey shows that the number of lonely adults is increasing. According to a research, loneliness can have harmful effects on health. So if you feel lonely at times, be sure to care about it. Here are some tips for you to avoid being lonely. 31. ________ Maybe it seems that you don’t have time to meet new friends, but you need to consider your social life first. Go for a walk and chat with someone. You can even offer to take a neighbor’s dog for a walk. The neighbor will surely like to make friends with you. 32. ________ Without doubt, it’s difficult for you to move to meet like-minded people. However, the Internet can easily bring people with the same interests together. So it is easy to build an online friend community. Try some safe meetup websites, bringing people with common interests together. 33. ________ In order to find possible friends, try to know more about them. What do they like doing? Join one of their activities. What subject are they interested in? Find out more about it and discuss it with them. In this way, you can know each other much better. 34. ________ Volunteering is good for both body and mind. It gives you the chance to communicate with people. Helping at the local food store or in a charity (慈善) shop will give you a warm feeling and you’ll know other volunteers. It’ll also give you something to talk about with friends and families. A． Build your community online. B．Make time to meet people. C．Plan ahead. D．Work as volunteers. E．Know more about your friends. 35．Can you think of another way to avoid being lonely? (No more than 20 words) ______________________________________________________________________________第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出一个最佳选项。 Before I was in Grade Six, I was always the worst student in my class. But things became 36 . That’s all because a new teacher, Miss Sadia, came to my school. One day after 37 , she found that I didn’t have lunch with my classmates, but eating alone(独自). 38 she came to me and began to talk to me. After that day, she gave me particular(特别的) 39 . I started to work hard because she gave me the feeling that someone believed in me. Her encouragement(鼓励) 40 me a lot. At the 41 of my first term in Grade Six, I came second in my class. But later we seemed to get less 42 . Every time I came to talk with her, she just put on a cold, stony face. I didn’t know 43 . When I was in Grade Seven, we hardly ever talked with each other. When I 44 middle school, I was out of touch with her. She 45 answered the phone when I called her. Several years later, I went to a good university. One day, I 46 her at a party. I couldn’t help asking her, “Why did you stop talking to me?” “You are a 47 boy. I want you to be able to stand on your own two feet and try to 48 the best in you. Now here you are and I feel proud(骄傲的) of 49 ,” She said. I could not say 50 , but I smiled. I’ll always thank her. 36. A. easier B. better C. farther D. funnier 37. A. work B. practice C. school D. class 38. A. So B. Or C. Although D. Because 39. A. care B. gift C. problem D. exam 40. A. won B. thanked C. reached D. helped 41. A. time B. top C. end D. part 42. A. close B. brave C. common D. hard 43. A. what B. when C. how D. why 44. A. opened B. missed C. left D. stayed 45. A. only B. never C. just D. even 46. A. minded B. chose C. touched D. met 47. A. creative B. smart C. serious D. pretty 48. A. find out B. care about C. bring out D. look for 49. A. me B. you C. her D. him 50. A. anything B. something C. everything D. nothing 第Ⅱ卷 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分 25 分） 第二节：（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1 个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。将答案填写在答题纸的相应位置。 November 21st is World Hello Day. At school, we learned that "How do you do?" and "How are you?" are correct ways to say hello when 51.________(meet) others. But do you know how to respond (回答)them? Do native(本土的)speakers still use them today? As we learned, "How do you do?" is for greeting someone we meet for the 52._______(one) time. And it can be responded with the same "How do you do?" "How are you?" is used to greet someone we are familiar with. It usually follows 53. ________an answer of "I'm fine, and you?" or "I'm well, and you?" But English is 54._______casual(随意的) language. The formal "How do you do?" is seldom said by native speakers. It 55. ________(think) old-fashioned. Yet they greet each other in many other ways. You may hear a conversation between 56.________(Britain) people: "You all right?" "Yeah, you?" "I'm good. Any plans for the weekend?" or "How's it going?" "Yeah, fine, and you?" These ways of greeting are popular for young people 57._________(say) hello to friends. Americans like saying "What's up?" or "What's good?" to friends. Don't be confused(混淆). It doesn't mean "What's wrong?" It is just one way of saying hello. And people usually respond "Not much." or "Nothing." "Hey, man." is 58._______popular. But it is only used among males(男性). What do females say? You guess it. They often say "Hey, girl." If you come across an Australian, you may hear "G'day, mate." It means "Good day". You can respond with the same "G'day." However, there is no rule to say hello to each other. 59._________you can't remember all of the above, just choose "How are you?" This is 60.________(common) and standard way for people of all ages. You can reply with "Pretty good." "Same as usual." or "I'm hanging in there." 第4部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分） 第一节：词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A.用方框中所给单词或词组的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。 ( lie large interest equator full surprise ) How much do you know about Australia? I'm sure a lot of people have visited it before. Australia is to the south of the 61.__________, so it is often called "the Land Down Under". It is a small continent(洲), but it is the sixth 62._________ country in the world. The population of Australia is just as large as that of Shanghai. It is an English-speaking country. It is a peaceful and beautiful place to take a holiday. Nowadays, thousands of Chinese tourists go there on vacation. Last month we decided to visit Australia. First we went to Berth. Berth is a fantastic place 63._________ of wild flowers. While we 64._________ and enjoying ourselves near a path at the foot of a hill, we suddenly heard bells ringing at the top of the hill. What we saw made us so 65. ___________ that we picked up all our things right away and ran to our car. All the way we ran as quickly as possible. Australia is also famous for sheep. After a short drive away from any town, you’ll find yourself in the middle of white sheep. B.阅读下面短文，然后根据括号内所给汉语意思写出单词的正确、完全形式，每空限填一词。 You probably know about Single’s Day （Nov. 11th） in China, when people stay up very late to shop online in order to save money. We usually enjoy 66 (我们自己) during shopping on that day. Well, the US has something similar called Black Friday. Black Friday is the 67 (第四) Friday in November. This year it will fall on Nov. 24th. It’s the start of the holiday shopping season. Most people don’t have to go to work that day and they have a 68 (休息). So people 69 (开始)to consider what kind of presents to buy for their families and friends. While Single’s Day is usually for online shopping, a lot of shopping on Black Friday is like a war at actual shops. Shoppers look for deals they like，such as 70 (音乐的) instruments, televisions and computers. Though these things have high 71 (价格）, on this day, they decide which to buy in the end. Last year, some people 72 (担心) that they would miss the things they wanted to buy. They waited in line for hours 73 (直到) midnight when stores finally opened. For the people who camped out in the cold，it was not a 74 (简单) thing. They waited and rushed in as soon as the doors opened. Some people even got hurt when people went through the doors. But this year, a few stores start sales even earlier. By doing this, the stores hope to get more shoppers and stay ahead of the 75 (竞争). 第二节：书面表达（共 1题，满分 20 分） 76. 假定你是学生李平，随着社会的发展，我们的生活变得越来越好，请你以“Our life has changed for the better”为主题，给你的外国笔友Adam写一封邮件，从下表所列的几个方面描述过去和现在美好生活的变化,并谈谈你的感受。 In the past Now Living condition small house, ... comfortable house, … Free time activity swim in the river or sea, few books,... swim in the swimming pool, more books, ... ... ... ... 注意: (1) 短文中必须描述表格中所列的内容,可适当发挥; (2) 文中不得出现真实的人名和校名等相关信息; (3) 词数:80-100 Hi Adam, Best regards, Li Ping 九年级英语调研卷 第1页 / 共8页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$null