辽宁省七校名校协作体2024-2025学年高三上学期11月期中英语试题

2024-2025学年度（上）七校协作体11月高三联考 英语试题 考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where is the woman going? A. To the dorm. B. To the bookstore. C. To the reading room. 2. What will the man do today? A Fly a kite. B. Visit his sister. C. Look for an apartment. 3. How much does the keyboard cost now? A. $20. B. $40. C. $50. 4. What are the two speakers talking about? A. A souvenir. B. A place. C. A piece of cloth. 5. What determined the woman’s choice of the hotel? A. The food. B. The reviews. C. The location. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。 6. What type of cuisine does the restaurant serve? A. Chinese. B. Italian. C. Indian. 7. What is the name of the restaurant mentioned in the conversation? A. Spice Bastar. B. Spice Bazaar. C. Spice Bachar. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。 8. What did Jack do last night? A.He went to a party. B. He studied in the library. C.He prepared for a report. 9. What will Jack have next week? A. A meeting. B. A test. C. A report. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。 10. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Their weekend plans. B. Their final exams. C. Their dream jobs. 11. When does the man finish his shift on Sundays? A. At 3 pm. B. At 8pm. C. At 9 pm. 12. Why does the man work part-time? A. To live independently. B. To raise his family. C. To save for his college. 13. What is the woman advised to do? A. Study overnight. B. Postpone job hunting. C. Plan in advance. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。 14 What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Host and guest. B. Customer and waiter. C. Teacher and student. 15. What does Max study at Stanford? A. Music. B. Literature. C. Composition. 16. What inspired Max to make the album? A. His desire to grow up. B. His insight into music. C. His mom’s love for music. 17. What will Max do with his future music? A. Add new musical styles. B. Release classical music albums. C. Cooperate with French composers. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。 18 Why did the speaker join the nature club? A. The science club was full. B. He was interested in nature. C. Some classmates invited him. 19. What is the source of 25% of modern medicines? A. The ocean. B. The field. C. The rainforest. 20. How much fresh water can be used by human? A. Ninety-seven percent. B. Three percent. C. One third. 第二都分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Newstead Abbey Newstead Abbey is a historic house and estate in Nottinghamshire, England,that was once home to the famous poet Lord Byron, who wrote some of his most celebrated poems at Newstead Abbey. History The house dates back to the 12th century, when it was founded as an Augustinian church by King Henry II. After the Closure of the church in the 16th century, the church was transformed into a residence for the Byron family,who owned it for over 250 years. Lord Byron inherited the property in 1798, but sold it in 1818 due to financial difficulties. Attractions & Activities The house and gardens are open to the public and offer a variety of attractions, such as the medieval cloisters, the Gothic Revival chapel (小教堂), the Japanese garden, and the lake. Byron’s personal belongings and souvenirs are still on display there. You can also enjoy guided tours, exhibitions, events, and activities throughout the year. ·Admission Adult: £10.80 (online price), £12 (gate price) Child (age 5-15): £5.40 (online price)£6(gate price) Senior(age 60+), Group (10 or more people): 10% off discounts 1. What was the original purpose of Newstead Abbey when founded in the 12th century? A. To serve as a royal residence. B. To serve as a religious building. C. To serve as a military base. D. To serve as a cultural center. 2. Which of the following can you do in the house of Newstead Abbey? A. See the items that belonged to Lord Byron. B. Chat with the founder, King Henry II, in person. C. Participate in the construction of the Japanese garden. D. Acquire the ownership of the Augustinian church. 3. If two adults with two children aged 7 and 10 buy tickets online, how much can they save? A. £1.20. B. £3.60. C. £4.80. D. £9.60. B Amy, a day old, was abandoned at a police station in Seoul. Her birth parents couldn’t afford to give Amy the appropriate healthcare then. She spent her first three months in an orphanage before she was adopted. “I always thought, why should I be more thankful to my adoptive parents than the next person?” she says. In 2011, Amy reconnected with her birth mother in South Korea, her adoptive mum by her side. “My Korean mother took my American mother’s hands in hers and said with tears, ‘Thank you.’ After that, my whole world changed,” Amy says. At the time, she was working in the e-commerce sector and struggling with anxiety, depression and an eating disorder. Reconnecting with her birth family, however made her feel like the luckiest person in the world and she wanted to actively share her good fortune. That year, she quit her job and co-founded the Global Gratitude Alliance, which partners with grassroots organizations to create community-led solutions or social and economic change. Since then, a reflexive sense of thankfulness has become Amy’s frame of reference for work, relationships and daily life in general. She tried to rethink her world view, appreciate the little things and make connections with others. For Amy, the attitude shift helped her overcome health issues—she didn’t need the drugs any more after she returned from Korea. Those positive effects inspired Amy to share the experience with others. Through a partnership with a home for orphaned children in Nepal, the Global Gratitude Alliance provided teachers with workshops that concluded with a ceremony of giving thanks. The participants used those techniques to help their students and community after the destructive earthquake of 2015. Children from the school recently visited a local seniors’ home to build relationships with the residents there. “Gratitude creates a cycle of giving and receiving,” Amy says. 4. What can we know from the passage? A. Amy was raised by an American couple. B. Amy received proper treatment as an infant. C. Amy was more thankful to her birth mother. D. Amy was orphaned three months after her birth. 5. What played a key role in Amy’s change? A. Her job quitting B. The reunion with her birth mother. C. The struggle against her disease. D. The connections with volunteers. 6. What can we know about members of the Global Gratitude Alliance? A. They hosted ceremonies in workshops. B. They sought partners for orphaned children. C They built relations with adoptive parents. D. They contributed to post-disaster service. 7. What is the text mainly about? A. Good fortune inspires people a lot. B. Reflection helps build frame of life. C. Family reunion gets positive effects. D. Gratitude needs to be widely spread. C Researchers have claimed a major step forward in the field of organ transplantation after a monkey survived for more than two years with a genetically engineered pig kidney. Scientists have spent decades working out whether animal organs could ever work properly and safely in humans without them being rejected by the patient’s immune system, but the challenges have proved immense. For the latest trial, researchers used a gene-editing tool called Crisper to alter genes in Yucatan miniature pigs before transplanting their kidneys into macaques (猕猴). The modifications altered genes to prevent organ rejection and remove pig viruses that could potentially be activated in recipients. Writing in the journal Nature, the scientists describe how 21 monkeys performed after their kidneys were removed and a single genetically modified pig kidney was implanted. Monkeys typically survived only 24 days when the kidneys were edited to disable three genes that trigger immune rejection. But when the scientists added seven human genes that reduce blood clotting (结块), inflammation and other immune reactions, the monkeys survived seven times longer, typically for 176 days.When combined with treatment to suppress the immune system, the researchers report that one monkey survived for more than two years-758 days -with the transplanted organ. Curtis, the chief executive of eGenesis, said the long-term survival of at least some of the monkeys had put eGenesis on course to satisfy the US Food and Drug Administration requirement to see at least 12 months’ survival in animals before the team can launch a clinical trial in humans. “We are well on our way there,” Curtis said. “There simply aren’t enough kidneys to go around. In our opinion it’s the only near-term viable solution.” The team uses Yucatan miniature pigs as donors because at maturity their kidneys are roughly the same size of those in the adult human. In the monkey trial, the kidneys were transplanted at two to three months when the organs were much smaller. Prof Tatsuo Kawai, an author on the study at Harvard Medical School,said the scientists expected the modified pig organs to perform better in humans than monkeys because “they are a better match”. 8. What do researchers do with the Yucatan miniature pigs? A. They altered their immune systems. B. They transplanted their kidneys into human beings. C. They used them to produce a gene-editing tool. D. They changed their genes to prevent rejection and remove pig viruses. 9. What’s Curtis’ attitude towards the result of the experiment? A. Content. B. Dissatisfied. C. Doubtful. D. Dismissed. 10. What does the underlined word “those” refer to? A. Kidneys. B. Monkeys. C. Pigs. D. Organs. 11. What’s the best title of the passage? A. Timne to change human immune system. B. An advance in immune system. C. An advance in organ transplantation. D. A clinical trial in humans. D Almost half a billion small, cheap electrical everyday items from headphones to handheld fans ended up in landfill in the UK in the past year, according to research. The not-for-profit organisation Material Focus, which conducted the research,said the scale of the issue was huge and they wanted to encourage more recycling. More than half a billion cheaply priced electronic goods were bought in the UK in the past year alone-16 per second. Material Focus findings showed that of these items,471m were thrown away. This included 260m disposable vapes (电子烟), 26m cables, 29m LED, solar and decorative lights, 9.8m USB sticks, and 4.8m miniature fans. Scott Butler, executive director at Material Focus, described it as “fast tech”.He said: “People should think carefully about buying some of the more silly items in the first place.” He said the items people bought were often “cheap and small”, and that consumers may not realise they contain valuable materials that could be saved if recycled. Small electricals can contain precious materials including copper, lithium and stainless steel. These components can be recycled and used in wind turbines, medical devices and electric vehicles. Material Focus said that while people were used to the idea of recycling larger electrical items such as fridges, lots of smaller devices were left unused in houses. Butler said :“We want to get the message across that anything with a plug, battery or cable can be recycled and there’s somewhere near you to do it. The scale of the issue is huge, but there’s an easy solution-just as the trend for recycling and repurposing fashion has grown and grown, we want to encourage the nation to recycle fast tech, guilt-free and fuss-free.” Material Focus said that when consumers bought a cheap item, they saw it as disposable. They estimate that UK citizens spent more than £2.8bn on these cheap products in the past year. The non-profit group described it as “the tip of the iceberg” when it comes to the growing issue of wasted electricals in the UK. More than 100,000 tons of waste electricals are thrown away every year, and there are 880m electrical items of all kinds lying unused in UK homes. 12. What can we infer from Butler’s words in paragraph 4? A. Cheap items don’t deserve consumer’s careful use. B. Low-quality electrical goods are easy to be recycled. C. Consumers should stop buying these “fast tech” in the first place. D. Valuable materials can be found in these cheap and small electrical goods. 13. What did Butler appeal to people to do? A. They’d better spread the idea of “fast tech”. B. They’d better recycle small devices as well as larger ones. C. They’d better set up somewhere near them to do the recycling. D. They’d better catch the trend of disposing small and cheap items. 14. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. Tons of small and cheap electrical items are thrown away. B. Legal efforts should be made to ban small electrical items. C. “Fast tech”— the future generation. D. Recycling valuable materials from electronics is urgent. 15. Where is the text most probably taken from? A. A book review. B. A philosophical textbook. C. A science magazine. D. An electronic book. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Traditional exercise finds fresh audience Once a sport for elderly, pandemic and government support give baduanjin younger profile, Chen Nan reports. For 28-year-old model Huang Qian, going to the gym and following a strict diet help her maintain a slim figure. About eight months ago, she decided to add a new form of exercise to her daily routine. Baduanjin-____16____-is a form of qigong, a set of traditional Chinese fitness exercises combining physical movement, with breathing and meditation（冥想）. “I knew nothing about baduanjin until I saw videos of people practicing on social media platforms. The movements are very slow, like tai chi, ____17____,”says Huang, who is from Hubei province. Nevertheless, she decided to give baduanjin a try because she has issues with her cervical vertebrae（颈椎），spleen（脾脏）and stomach. “I read reviews, saying that it can be helpful to these kinds of problems,”she says. Compared with other types of qigong exercise, such as tai chi and wuqinxi(in which practitioners imitate the movements of a bear, a tiger, a monkey, a deer and birds),____18____ “____19____, which allows practitioners to easily memorize them, and move in time,” says WangZhen, a professor at the Shanghai University of Sport. “You can practice at almost any time and anywhere. For example, you can practice a standing posture by the table after sitting in front of the computer fora long time,”Wang adds. “Now, baduanjin is a new fashion among te young,” says Liu Xiaolei, associate professor of the martial arts school at the Beijing Sport University,who has posted baduanjin videos on social media platforms. One of them has been viewed over 200,000 times on Bilibili. "In the past, only the elderly practiced baduanjin in parks or at home because it is not difficult. Now, ____20____," says Liu. A. which has attracted many new practitioners B. which translates as eight pieces of brocade（锦缎） C. Each movement has its own set of rhyming instructions D. However, the experience has sparked a deep interest in education E. so I naturally associated it with the kind of exercise favored by the elderly F. baduanjin is more suited to beginners thanks to its simple, gentle movements G. I see many young people, either students or white-collar workers, practicing baduanjin 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B，C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 That morning, I got the train as always. I was a publishing director and was looking forward to embracing a new day of work, as usual. I would always turn to the crossword (纵横填字游戏), but that day it didn’t ____21____. I’d been doing it for 30-old years, but trying to read this one was like walking through syrup (糖浆): ____22____ slow and hard. I thought I must be tired. I said to my assistant. The ____23____ colleague contacted my wife, Beth, and she drove me straight to hospital. There, confirmation came that I’d had a stroke in the part of my brain that ____24____ with communication. I was now in a condition that means it’s difficult or ____25____ to receive and produce language. It was the only time I cried. I was back at home a week later, and my goal was to get better and return to work in a couple of months. The way to ____26____ my language ability was rough. I’d look at simple pictures and try to describe them as my mind ____27____ round and round in the darkness, looking for words. As the months passed, it became self-evident that I wasn’t going to be able to go back to my old job. For 25 years, I had ____28____ myself as a publisher. I was used to a busy day of meetings. I didn’t feel ready to say ____29____ to my old self. There were times when I felt incredibly angry. In the darkest months, I devoted myself to _____30_____. I couldn’t manage novels or newspapers, so I tried reading poetry, and found the shorter lines less _____31_____. My speech came back, and I learned how to read again, though much more slowly. I also learned the _____32_____ to keep up. I allowed myself to slow down, and started to enjoy it. _____33_____, I get rid of my old skin. I grieved the past, its passing and its absence, and started to come to terms with it. Now, 10 years later, I look after my grandson a day a week, and my relationship with my family is deeper than ever. If you’d asked me 15 years ago to _____34_____ the importance of the things in my life I might have said work, but now I’m no longer a high-achieving publisher or someone who reads 10 books a week. I’m a _____35_____ man, and if I read 10 books a year, that’s pretty good. 21. A. make sense B. make for C. make out D. make in 22. A. temporarily B. unbelievably C. scarcely D. mildly 23. A. curious B. reserved C. concerned D. casual 24. A. messes B. cooperates C. identifies D. deals 25. A. impossible B. absurd C. practical D. innocent 26. A. gaining B. rebuilding C. revealing D. improving 27. A. wandered B. doubted C. slipped D. fled 28. A. informed B. evaluated C. defined D. reflected 29. A. goodbye B. hello C. good D. something 30. A. speaking B. managing C. writing D. trying 31. A. outstanding B. fantastic C. overwhelming D. excellent 32. A. favor B. sympathy C. patience D. comfort 33. A. Annually B. Hopefully C. Narrowly D. Gradually 34. A. arrange B. compare C. rank D. declare 35. A. genius B. family C. dignity D. community 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The hit Chinese video game Black Myth: Wukong recently ____36____ (spark) a surge in tourism in North China’s Shanxi province. ____37____ all the 36 ancient architectural sites featured in the game, 27 are in Shanxi. The Yungang Grottoes, Huayan Temaple and the Xuankong Hanging Temple are three of these historical sites, all of ____38____ are in Datong city in northern Shanxi. A trip to Datong wouldn’t be complete without exploring the Yungang Grottoes, ____39____ UNESCO World Cultural Heritage site. Yungang Grottoes represent the pinnacle of Buddist cave art from the 5th and 6th centuries, ____40____ (create) during the Northern Wei Dynasty (386-534). ____41____ set Datong (then known as Pingcheng) apart from other cities was that it was the capital for nearly a century. During a tour with the 2024 Shanxi Trip for Taiwan Merchants and Youth on Aug 23, Fan Yang-chi, said: “I only got to ____42____ (true) understand the carving techniques of people and their ____43____ (devote) to Buddhist art after visiting the Yungang Grottoes”. A journalist Cheng Chen-tung also expressed his admiration:“The Yungang Grottoes are very ____44____ (impress). It’s a very important place in Chinese history, an asset of the Chinese mainland, and a crucial cuItural heritage on both sides of the Taiwan Strait. I hope it can ____45____ (promote) to more people in Taiwan.” 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华，你校英文报正在为2023年6月5日的世界环境日征集环保口号。请你给口号征集负责人Alex写一封信，介绍自己的口号，内容包括： 1. 口号的具体内容； 2. 口号内涵； 3. 对口号入选的期待。 参考词汇：口号 slogan 注意： 1. 写作词数应为80左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Alex, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。 I always hope for some student who possesses that unusual capability to convey feeling， insight, and passion through art. It doesn’t happen often, but it did one summer holiday - and from a wonderfully unexpected source. That summer, I volunteered to teach a summer school art class for high school freshmen. When I arrived on the first day, the students were grouping in the center of the classroom, except for a red-haired girl named Emma who took a desk in the back row. I looked over what would be my workspace for the following days. There were large windows with plenty of light and I spotted several kinds of trees outside that would serve as models. Emma was always the earliest to get to our classes，and I could feel her effort. However, she kept her seat in the back row as though being ignored was something to hope for. I asked one popular girl, who said, “She is an orphan. We try to be friendly, but she acts like she’s in another world.” I said, “All right. Let’s try to make this summer the good part of Emma’s life, OK?” There was no answer in words but she nodded, telling me she understood and empathized - good kid, at heart. During the following days, I could feel other students’ kindness to Emma. Sometimes, Emma even talked and drew with them, but she still kept a certain distance from me. When I asked to see her work, she leaned forward covering it with her forearms. Treating her in any special way only seemed to emphasize her painful dissimilarity, so I limited my communication with her to a good morning smile. The summer went by quickly and everyone got much better at drawing. So did Emma’s behavior. We had a lot of fun in the process, but the last day came at the right time. The kids filed in and watched me write the assignment on the whiteboard: Draw a picture titled: “A Place I Love”. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150左右; 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 I walked around, watching the drawings develop. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ It was Emma’s turn to show her drawing. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 1-5 CCBAB 6-10 CBABA 11-15 CCBAB 16-20 CAACC 2024-2025学年度（上）七校协作体11月高三联考 英语试题 考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where is the woman going? A. To the dorm. B. To the bookstore. C. To the reading room. 2. What will the man do today? A. Fly a kite. B. Visit his sister. C. Look for an apartment. 3. How much does the keyboard cost now? A. $20. B. $40. C. $50. 4. What are the two speakers talking about? A. A souvenir. B. A place. C. A piece of cloth. 5. What determined the woman’s choice of the hotel? A. The food. B. The reviews. C. The location. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。 6. What type of cuisine does the restaurant serve? A. Chinese. B. Italian. C. Indian. 7. What is the name of the restaurant mentioned in the conversation? A. Spice Bastar. B. Spice Bazaar. C. Spice Bachar. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。 8. What did Jack do last night? A.He went to a party. B. He studied in the library. C.He prepared for a report. 9. What will Jack have next week? A. A meeting. B. A test. C. A report. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。 10. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Their weekend plans. B. Their final exams. C. Their dream jobs. 11. When does the man finish his shift on Sundays? A. At 3 pm. B. At 8pm. C. At 9 pm. 12. Why does the man work part-time? A. To live independently. B. To raise his family. C. To save for his college. 13. What is the woman advised to do? A. Study overnight. B. Postpone job hunting. C. Plan in advance. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。 14. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Host and guest. B. Customer and waiter. C. Teacher and student. 15. What does Max study at Stanford? A. Music. B. Literature. C. Composition. 16. What inspired Max to make the album? A. His desire to grow up. B. His insight into music. C. His mom’s love for music. 17. What will Max do with his future music? A. Add new musical styles. B. Release classical music albums. C. Cooperate with French composers. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。 18. Why did the speaker join the nature club? A. The science club was full. B. He was interested in nature. C. Some classmates invited him. 19. What is the source of 25% of modern medicines? A. The ocean. B. The field. C. The rainforest. 20. How much fresh water can be used by human? A. Ninety-seven percent. B. Three percent. C. One third. 第二都分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. A 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. A 5. B 6. D 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. A 10. A 11. C D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. B 14. A 15. C 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. E 18. F 19. C 20. G 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B，C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. C 32. C 33. D 34. C 35. B 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. has sparked 37. Among 38. which 39. a 40. created 41. What 42. truly 43. devotion 44. impressive 45. be promoted 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Dear Alex, I’m Li Hua. Learning that slogans for the World Environment Day 2023 are in great need, I’m writing to introduce my version — Our Earth, Our Responsibility. It is born out of the understanding that we are one people and we have only one Earth. So most importantly, we should safeguard the diversity of life on Earth, its ecosystems and its limited resources. And it is the unity of people all over the world that matters most in protecting our earth. I hope my slogan can call on more people to shoulder their responsibility and meet with your favorable reply. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】 I walked around, watching the drawings develop. The students were immersed in their work, each trying to capture the essence of the place they loved in their unique way. The drawings were a mix of vibrant colors and delicate lines, each telling a story of someone's heartfelt attachment to a special place. I smiled, knowing that this assignment had been a success in its own way. It was Emma’s turn to show her drawing. She stood up slowly, her face flushed with nervousness. She held up her drawing, and I gasped. It was a beautiful rendering of the classroom we had spent the summer in. The large windows, the various trees outside, and even the whiteboard with our final assignment written on it were all captured in meticulous detail. But more than that, it was the emotion in the drawing that struck me. Emma had captured the essence of our summer together, the joy, the struggle, and the growth that we had all experienced. I looked up at her, tears in my eyes, and saw that she was smiling too. In that moment, I knew that Emma had not only found a place she loved, but she had also found a community that loved her. 1-5 CCBAB 6-10 CBABA 11-15 CCBAB 16-20 CAACC 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $