河南省许昌市襄城县2024-2025学年八年级上学期11月期中英语试题

2024—2025学年第一学期期中教学质量检测 八年级英语 (试卷总分: 120分 考试时间: 100分钟) 题号 一 二 三 四 五 六 总分 分 值 20 40 15 15 10 20 120 得 分 一、听力理解(20小题，每小题1分，共20分) 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。 ( ) 1. What is the difference between the sisters? A. Ann is more outgoing. B. Ann's sister is taller. C. Ann's eyes are bigger. ( ) 2. Who won the Got Talent? A. Bob. B. Dennis. C. Dave. ( ) 3. What is Dad doing now? A. He is watching news. B. He is playing basketball. C. He is watching a basketball game. ( ) 4. How many percent of the boy's classmates exercise every day? A.50%. B. 80%. C.95%. ( ) 5. How Long did the boy sleep last night? A. Four hours. B. Five hours. C. Eight hours. 第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。 ( ) 6. What is the boy like? A. Quiet. B. Shy. C. Outgoing. ( ) 7. What sport can the boy play? A. Football. B. Basketball. C. Volleyball. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。 ( ) 8. Where does John often do exercises? A. In the park. B. In the gym(体育馆). C. On the playground. ( ) 9. What time are they going to meet tomorrow morning? A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 6:50. 听下面一段独白，回答第10 至第12 三个小题。 ( ) 10. How often does the boy eat junk food? A. Never. B. Every day. C. Ten to eleven times a week. ( ) 11. How many hours does the boy sleep every night? A. Nine hours. B. Ten hours. C. Eleven hours. ( ) 12. What does the boy eat every day? A. Vegetables. B. Milk. C. Fruit. 听下面一段对话，回答第13 至第15 三个小题。 ( ) 13. How does the woman like Chinese Culture? A. She likes it. B. She can't stand it. C. She doesn't mind it. ( ) 14. What does the man think of game shows? A. They are boring. B. They are interesting. C. They are meaningless. ( ) 15. What shows do they both like? A. Game Shows. B. Sports News. C. Chinese Culture. 第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。 16. 17. 20. 19. 17. 二、阅读理解 (20小题，每小题2分，共40分) 阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。 A A few good friends are talking about their last vacations. Helen I went to Xi' an with my cousin. We visited the Terracotta Army and had a great time. We ate delicious food, too. Xi’ an is a big and nice city. I like it a lot. Jason My parents took me to Hong Kong by plane. We went to Disneyland. It's just like a fairy tale kingdom (童话王国). And we bought many special things. Most of them weren't expensive at all. Diana Last summer, my family went to Hainan. The weather was sunny and hot. We went swimming and boating. They were exciting. Later, we ate some seafood. It was very delicious! Bruce My uncle works in Tibet (西藏). Last summer, I took a train to visit him. There I saw lots of tall and clean mountains. Many people there are good at singing and dancing. 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 ( ) 21. What did Jason do on vacation? A. Ate delicious food. B. Went shopping. C. Went boating. D. Saw some mountains. ( ) 22. Who had a great time at the sea? A. Helen. B. Jason. C. Diana. D. Bruce. ( ) 23. Which people are good at dancing and singing? A. People in Xi’ an. B. People in Hong Kong. C. People in Hainan. D. People in Tibet. ( ) 24. How did all the friends feel about their vacations? A. Sad. B. Bored. C. Terrible. D. Happy. ( ) 25. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Helen went to Xi’ an by plane. B. Jason liked boating on the sea. C. Diana visited Disneyland. D. Bruce visited his uncle in Tibet. B Almost all the children love watching television, some children will spend six hours a day at school, then spent another four to six hours in front of the television set. Some even watch television for eight hours or more on Saturdays. TV shows are like books or films. A child can learn both good things and bad things from them. Some programs help children understand the world better. Others introduce them to people and places from other countries or other times in history. With TV, a child does not have to go to the zoo to see animals or to the ocean to see a ship. Boys and girls can see plays, concerts or games at home. Television brings many places and events into our homes. Some programs show crime(犯罪活动) and other things that children shouldn't watch, so parents need to help their kids to find out the good programs, and they can also help their kids to find other interesting things to do and limit their children's TV time. 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 ( ) 26. Some children usually spend a day in school. A. four hours B. four to six hours C. six hours D. more than eight hours ( ) 27. Some children spend eight hours or more on Saturdays. A. studying B. playing card games C. watching TV D. helping their parents ( ) 28. On television, children can see . A. games B. animals C. oceans D. almost everything ( ) 29. What does the underlined sentence mean? A. Television is bad for children. B. Television makes people love their homes. C. People can learn about things without going to see them. D. people can see houses and buildings on TV. ( ) 30. What is the main idea of the passage? . A. Why TV is bad. B. The good and had sides of TV. C. How kids watch TV. D. Programs on TV for children. C Malls (购物中心) are popular places for Americans to go to. Some people spend so much time at malls that they are called mall rats. Mall rats shop until they visit hundreds of stories. People like malls for many reasons. They feel safe because malls have police stations. Parking is usually free. And the air inside is always fresh. The newest malls have beautiful rest places with waterfalls and large green trees. The largest mall in the United States is the Mall of America in Minnesota. It covers 4.87 million square feet(平方英尺). It has more than 12,530 stores and a large park! There are parking spaces for 12,750 cars. About 750,000 people shop there every week. The first indoor mall in the United States was built at 1965 in Edina, Minnesota. People love doing all their shopping in one place. More malls are built around the country. Now malls are town centers where people come to do many things. They shop, and of course, they also eat in food courts that have food from all over the world. They see films at theaters. Some people even get their exercise by doing the new sport of“mall walking” Others go to malls to meet friends. In some malls, people can see a doctor and even go to church (教堂). In other words, people can do almost everything at malls. Now people can live in their favorites shopping centers in fact. 根据材料内容选择最佳答案。 ( ) 31. Those Americans are called mall rats. A. who eat in food courts at malls B. who spend so much time at malls C. who enjoy themselves at malls D. who do all their shopping at malls ( ) 32. The passage gives reasons why American people like malls. A.2 B.3 C.4 D.5 ( ) 33. According to the passage, Americans like doing shopping A. in one place B. in a quiet place C. in a busy place D. in different places ( ) 34. What does the third paragraph mainly tell us? A. People like to go to the mall. B. The Mall of America is noisy. C. When America had the first mall. D. What the Mall of America is like. ( ) 35. Which statement is TRUE according to the passage? . A. People can see a doctor at some malls. B. Parking is free at all the malls. C. The malls are only in big cities. D. The largest mall is in Hong Kong. D Doing sports is becoming more and more important in our life. People all over the world enjoy playing sports. 36 Such as swimming, running, jumping and so on. Different people like doing sports for different reasons. Some people do sports for fun , but most people do them for health. Sports can help us become strong and keep us healthy. 37 For example, young people usually like exciting sports, such as running. 38 And it can keep cold and other small health problems away. While old people like slow and soft sports, such as Tai Chi. Doing Tai Chi is good for the old. 39 40 People do different sports in different seasons. For example, people like swimming in summer, while skating and skiing are popular in winter. Do you like doing sports? Do you do sports every day? Let's start doing sports together. 根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使文章意思通顺、内容完整。 A. Different people like different sports. B. Sports change with seasons. C. It can relax their body and mind. D. There are many different kinds of sports in our life. E. Running makes their heart and body strong 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 三、完形填空(15小题，每小题1分，共15分) 通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。 Early to bed and early to rise 41 a man healthy, wealthy and wise. This is an old English saying. Have you heard of it before? It means that we must go to bed early and get up early in the morning. If we do so, we shall be 42 . We shall 43 be clever and quick to learn. Is this true? 44 it is. The body must have enough 45 to be healthy. Children of young age should have ten 46 sleep every night. If you do not go to bed early, you 47 have enough sleep. Then you cannot think properly (恰当地) and you cannot 48 your work properly. You will not be wise. Some people go to bed late at night and get up late in the morning. This is not good 49 them. We sleep at night 50 it is dark. The darkness helps us to sleep 51 . When the daylight comes, we must get up. This is the 52 for exercise. Walking, running, jumping, swimming and playing games are all exercise. Exercise helps the body become 53 . Exercise also helps the blood (血液) to move around inside the body. This is very 54 . Our blood takes food to all parts of our body. The head also needs blood. Exercise helps us to 55 better! ( ) 41. A. makes B. helps C. lets D. asks ( ) 42. A. health B. healthily C. healthy D. unhealthy ( ) 43. A. too B. either C. as well D. also ( ) 44. A. Though B. maybe C. But D. So ( ) 45. A. sleepy B. sleep C. asleep D. sleeping ( ) 46. A. minutes B. hours C. minutes' D. hours' ( ) 47. A. mustn't B. can't C. needn't D. shouldn't ( ) 48. A. have B. do C. take D. get ( ) 49. A. to B. at C. for D. with ( ) 50. A. when B. since(自从 ) C. before D. how ( ) 51. A. good B. well C、nice D. fine ( ) 52. A. time B. place C. work D. morning ( ) 53. A. strong B. weak(弱的) C. good D. beautiful ( ) 54. A. hard B. important C. easy D. kind ( ) 55. A. play B. make C. think D. spend 四、语篇填空(15小题，每小题1分，共15分) 第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 few show famous role Internet become education through culture more There are many TV programs on Chinese food, but 56 of them are like A Bite Of China II. It tells us something interesting about what Chinese eat in different 57 and places . Chinese is 58 for its delicious food. And food plays an important 59 in Chinese culture. You can see all kinds of foods 60 the program. And you can also learn how to make the food. That is why it 61 so popular. The program is also 62 because it is not only about food. There are also many great stories of food and people. Liu Wen, a worker ofCCTV-9, says the stories also 63 social transformations(社会变迁) and relationships(关系) between family and friends. It helps people from other countries know 64 about China. They can not only enjoy the beauty of Chinese food, but also learn Chinese cultures. You can watch the program on the 65 now. You can also watch it on TV. 56. 57. 60. 58. 57. 61. 62. 63. 64. 63. 第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。 Kate is interested 66 sports. She loves playing volleyball very much. She thinks it is very exciting to play it. She trains hard every day. Her grandfather lives in another city. He is 67 famous volleyball coach (教练) So Kate sent a postcard to him. She said, “Could you come here this National Day holiday? I want to practise playing volleyball with you.” 68 a week, Kate got her grandfather's letter. He said he would come this Sunday and that he would take Kate to the stadium to watch the volleyball match against the Japanese team. Kate was very happy. On Sunday morning, 69 Kate opened the door, she found her grandfather was already waiting for her. With her grandfather's help, Kate plays better 70 before. 66. 67. 68. 69. 68. 五、补全对话。(5小题，每小题2分，共10分) 根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的句子连贯、完整。 A: Is that Jack? B: 71. . Jack is a little shorter than John. A: Are they twins? B: 72. . They look almost the same. And they are my best friends. We have the same hobbies (爱好). A: Then 73. ? B: We all enjoy playing the guitar. A: 74. ? B: Yes, I am. I'm more serious than them. A: 75. ? B: Jack and I want to be pop singers, and John wants to be a doctor when we grow up. 六、书面表达(20分) 亲爱的同学们，课余时间、周末、假期你们通常都是怎样度过的呢? 请以“My Free Time”为题, 写一篇短文。 信息提示： (1) 参加运动，每周锻炼3-5次，有利于身心健康； (2) 娱乐活动，如：看电视、上网，可以自我放松； (3) 帮助父母做家务，如：打扫房间、洗碗、洗衣服…… (4) 课外阅读, 开拓视野 ( open one's eyes)。每个月去图书馆看两三次书; (5) 旅行：每年至少旅行一次，学到更多知识，交到更多朋友.如：去年暑假去了青岛旅游…… 要求： (1) 根据信息提示，把握要点，适当发挥，不逐字翻译； (2) 文中不得出现真实姓名或校名； (3) 字数为100左右。文章的开头已给出，不计入总字数。 My Free Time I have lots of things to do in my free time. 2024—2025学年第一学期期中教学质量检测 八年级英语答案 一、听力理解 (共20小题，每小题1分，共20分) 1-5 ABCAB 6-10 CBABA 11-15 ACABB 16-20 DCEBA 二、阅读理解 (15小题，每小题1分，共15分) 21-25 BCDDD 26-30 CCDCB 31-35 BCADA 36-40 DAECB 三、完形填空 (15 小题, 每小题1分, 共15分) 41-45 ACDBB 46-50 DBBCA 51-55 BAABC 四、语篇填空 (15 小题, 每小题1分, 共15分) 第一节： 56. few 57. cultures 58. famous 59. role 60. through 61. becomes 62. educational 63. show 64. more 65. Internet 第二节： 66. in 67. a 68. After 69. when 70. than 五、补全对话 (5小题，每小题2分，共10分) 71. No, it's John 72. Yes, they are 73. what are your hobbies 74. Are you different from them 75. What do you want to be when you grow up 说明： (1) 学生答案中出现单词拼写或语法错误，评分时视其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分。 (2) 本评分标准每题给出了多个答案供参考，如果考生写出的句子与所给答案不一致，但只要与情景相符，上下文意思连贯，符合表达习惯，英语语言表达准确，应给分。 六、书面表达 (20分) My Free Time I have lots of things to do in my free time. I often take part in sports. I exercise three to five times a week. It is good for both my physıcal and mental health. Entertainment is also important to me. I enjoy watching TV and surfing the Internet, which can help me relax myself. In addition to these activities, I help my parents with housework, such as cleaning the room, washing dishes and clothes. Besides, I do some extra-reading to open my eyes. I go to the library to read books two or three times a month. Moreover, I love travelıng. I travel at least once a year. Through traveling, I can gain more knowledge and make new friends. For example, last summer vacation, I traveled toQıngdao, where I had an amazing experience. All in all, I try to make my free time meaningful. 注意： (1) 本题总分为20分，按4个档次给分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次。注意把握各个档次的给分范围，避免出现过于集中在每个档次的最低分数段。 (2) 文章中要体现全部提示信息，内容可详可略。文章能够合理表达出学生的想法及观点即可。 (3) 词数少于60的，从总分中减去2分； 多于100的，建议不扣分。 (4) 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 (5) 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 (6) 如书写较差影响内容表达，在本档次内可酌情扣分。 (7) 各档次的给分范围和要求 (见下表) 第四档16~20分 完成了试题规定的任务。 ●覆盖所有内容要点。 ●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ●语法结构和词汇应用基本正确， 些许错误主要是因为尝试较复杂语法结构和词汇所致。 ●有效地使用了语句间的连接成分， 使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档11~15分 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ●虽漏掉一些内容， 但覆盖主要内容。 ●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的基本要求。 ●有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误， 但不影响理解。 ●应用了简单的语句间连接成分， 使全文内容连贯。基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档6~10分 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 ●漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容， 写了一些无关内容。 ●语法结构单调应用的词汇有限。 ●有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误， 影响了对写作内容的理解。 ●较少使用语句间的连接成分， 内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档1~5分 未完成试题规定的任务。 ●明显遗漏主要内容， 写了一些无关内容， 原因可能是未理解试题要求。 ●语法结构单调， 应用的词汇有限。 ●较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误， 影响对写作内容的理解。 ●缺乏语句间的连接成分， 内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少， 无法评判； 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$