河北省张家口市2024-2025学年高二上学期期中考试英语试题

2024—2025学年第一学期11月高二期中考试 英语 注意事项：1. 考试时间为120分钟，满分150分。 2. 答题前、考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡相应的位置。 3. 全部答案在答题卡上完成，答在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is wrong with the man’s plant? A. It gets too much food. B. It gets too little sunlight. C. It gets too much water. 2. What did the woman want when she was young? A. To have dark hair. B. To sell her golden hair. C. To have her cousin’s height. 3. Where are the speakers probably? A. In a concert. B. In a restaurant. C. In a ticket office. 4. How does the man sound? A. Frustrated. B. Delighted. C. Confused. 5. What is the man? A. A director. B. An actor. C. A writer. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why is the woman’s screen dark? A. She is using an app. B. The screen is broken. C. The phone is out of battery. 7. What makes it difficult for people to sleep? A. A little white noise. B. Lots of blue light. C. A very dark room. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What do we know about the man? A. He dislikes typing. B. He often complains. C. He is very busy. 9. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Colleagues. B. Boss and employee. C. Husband and wife. 10. What will the speakers do probably? A. Go on strike due to the cold. B. Choose to work from home for the day. C. Discuss the temperature issue with boss. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. How are the speakers feeling now? A. Excited. B. Disappointed. C. Worried. 12. What will the woman buy? A. Some model cars. B. Some little people. C. Some tiny plants. 13. What is the man going to do first? A. Buy the tickets. B. Go to the bathroom. C. Get some food. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the woman doing? A. Leading a school tour. B. Teaching a class. C. Organizing a competition. 15. Why does the man come to this school? A. To take part in a special party. B. To attend the school as a student. C. To meet with his previous teachers. 16. What sport is the man probably good at? A. Swimming. B. Football. C. Basketball. 17. Where will the speakers go next? A. The library. B. The science labs. C. The art studio. 听下面一段独白，回答第18至20题。 18. What is unique about the AI Canteen? A. It serves only vegetarian meals. B. It is entirely operated by robots. C. It is located in a shopping mall. 19. How does the intelligent cooking system prepare food? A. It cooks food using traditional methods. B. It relies on chefs for cooking and serving. C. It uses robotic arms to cook and pack food. 20. What is the advantage of the Al Canteen? A. It has a wider variety of traditional dishes. B. It serves more customers than human waiters. C. It offers a more personalized dining experience. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A The annual Community Garden Day is a cherished event that invites residents to embrace the beauty of nature. This year, the garden will open its gates on a sunny Saturday morning, offering a variety of activities suitable for all ages and gardening skills. Making Your Own Fertilizer An informative session by Mrs. Johnson will guide participants through the process of making natural fertilizer from kitchen waste. This practical skill will help gardeners enrich their soil and grow healthier plants. Date and Time: Sunday, 22nd September, at 11:30 Location: Fertilizer Making Spot Duration: 25 hours Plant Care and Growth Gardeners with some experience will enjoy a session with Mr. Smith, who will share tips on how to keep plants growing healthily. He will show effective watering techniques and discuss the importance of sunlight and nutrients. Date and Time: Saturday, 21st September, at 14:00 Location: Garden Care Area Duration: 3 hours Kids’ Garden Adventure Children are welcome to join in the fun at the Kids’ Garden Adventure, where they can plant their own small plot of vegetables and flowers. This activity include storytelling sessions that bring to life the stories of plants and the importance of gardening. Date and Time: Sunday, 22nd September, at 9:00 Location: Kids’ Garden Area Duration: 1.5 hours Starting Seeds Workshop For those new to gardening, a workshop led by experienced gardener, Mrs. Brown, will introduce the basics. Participants will learn how to start seeds, care for young plants, and understand the joy of growing their own food. Date and Time: Saturday, 21st September, at 10:00 Location: Garden Learning Center Duration: 2 hours 1. Which activity lasts the longest? A. Starting Seeds Workshop. B. Plant Care and Growth. C. Making Your Own Fertilizer. D. Kids’ Garden Adventure. 2. What will Mrs. Brown teach in her session? A. How to identify different flower species. B. How to improve watering skills for plants. C. How to grow seeds and tend young plants. D. How to create fertilizer from kitchen waste. 3. What is the text? A. A report. B. A guide. C. A letter. D. A journal. B Most of us have memories from childhood that go something like this: You’re not leaving the table until you eat all your vegetables. How lucky we were to have nutritious food, even if we had to learn to like it. According to the Houston Health Department, for nearly one quarter of children living in Houston, Texas, the choice to eat healthily doesn’t exist. They are unable to obtain fresh produce, relying entirely on canned and packaged goods. A lack of fresh meat and produce in your diet can lead to increases in depression and obesity and greater risks of heart disease and cancer. A poor diet is also tied to poor performance in school for young children. Annie Zhu was shocked to find out so many children in Houston lived in food deserts. She was also shocked to see how much fresh food supermarkets throw away every day. So she and her twin sister Shirley went to work. First, they partnered with the Houston Health Department to distribute food at community centers. With the help of a food rescue organization Second Servings, they collected surplus (过剩的) food from grocery stores and began organizing monthly markets. They even connected with human service agencies to provide help beyond food. Lastly, since fresh food needs to be picked up right away, they developed a text-messaging app Fresh Hub, which tells people when and where the markets are. Each month, Fresh Hub organizes high school students who wear green shirts and go to set up stands of fresh produce, baked goods and packaged meats. The Zhu sisters and the green dream team have distributed over 1,500 pounds of food. And while families are collecting food, volunteers are entertaining kids with art projects that teach healthy eating. At the end of the day, Annie says they are happy to be making a difference. “Frustration over the unfair circumstances built into society led us to meet incredible people,” says Annie. “I know I’m not alone on this journey to help the underserved and I know my journey has only just begun!” 4. What is the purpose of paragraph 2? A. To explain a concept. B. To suggest a solution. C. To make a comparison. D. To stress a problem. 5. What did Annie and Shirley do to help families in food deserts? A. They opened an affordable food store. B. They developed an app to sell fresh food. C. They gathered extra food and distributed it. D. They grew fresh produce in community gardens. 6. Which words can best describe the twin sisters? A. Patient and popular. B. Humorous and helpful. C. Caring and creative. D. Diligent and decisive. 7. What is the best title for the text? A. Food Deserts Harm Children’s Health B. Two Angels Bridge the Fresh Food Gap C. Technology Helps Fight Food Insecurity D. Twin Sisters Educate Children About Food Waste C Every Monday through Friday, you may be running between work, appointments and family events — can’t the workout wait until the weekend? Maybe, according to a new report published in the journal JAMA, which found that people who exercised throughout the week and “weekend warriors”, who packed their exercise into the weekend, saw a similar reduction in the risk of heart diseases. The paper relied on data from the UK Biobank, a large biomedical database that follows residents in the long term. “A group of more than 1000,000 people used accelerometers (加速度计) to track their movement over the course of a week,” the study said. Researchers then assessed the relationship between exercise patterns and events of the heart. Adults need at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity (中等强度) physical activity per week, according to The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans. “If you are able to achieve those guideline-recommended levels over one to two days of the week, then our findings show you’re getting a similar benefit as people who exercise every day,” said lead study author Dr Shaan Khurshid, instructor of medicine at Harvard Medical School in Boston. Dr Andrew Freeman from National Jewish Health in Denver, who was not part of the research, often recommends his patients aim to exercise every day, encouraging them to engage in 30-minute exercise that’s hard enough to make them breathless. Still, there are patients who tell Freeman that they can only get a day or two of activity during the week but have more time on the weekend. Now the recent study gives him more confidence in helping them make that work. “This is at least inspiring enough for me to say to some patients, ‘Hey, there’s recent data that says if you can’t get your 30 minutes every day, getting 150 minutes over a weekend might be helpful,’” said Freeman. 8. What is the main finding of the new research? A. Exercising on weekends is more beneficial. B. Most people prefer to exercise on weekdays. C. Regular daily exercise is essential for heart health. D. Weekend exercise has benefits similar to daily exercise. 9. How did the researchers get their findings? A. By observing people’s exercise habits. B. By conducting interviews with patients. C. By reviewing residents’ medical records. D. By analyzing data from wearable devices. 10 How long is the recommended weekly duration for moderate-intensity exercise for adults? A. At least 30 minutes. B. At least 100 minutes. C. At least 150 minutes. D. At least 180 minutes. 11. What is Dr Andrew Freeman’s attitude towards the new study? A. Positive. B. Opposed. C. Critical. D. Indifferent. D Cows love having an open area of grassland. But in some parts of the world, this is only practicable during the summer. In the winter months, it can become too cold for cows to safely stay outside, so they are kept in a large farm building for warmth. Being kept inside is not always enjoyable for the cows, and their unhappiness is closely connected to less milk production. For this reason, some cow owners have fitted their cows with VR headsets that run a program specially. The program simulated (模拟) grassland in summer and was designed for the way that cows get color and light. According to the National Library of Medicine, cows see red most easily but have a hard time telling the difference between blue and green. Reports from a farm in Moscow, Russia — where the VR headsets were first developed by vets — found in 2019 that the cows that used the VR headsets saw a decrease in anxiety and an improved mood. This led to an increase in milk production, which went from 5.8 gallons to 7 gallons a day. The cow owner Izzet Kocak from Aksaray, Turkey, heard about this experiment and tried the VR headsets on his cows in December 2021. When Kocak put the headsets on his cows, he found an improvement in the moods of his animals. “They are watching an area of grassland, and it helps invigorate their spirits. They are less stressed,” he said. The technology is now being used around the world. According to the BBC, the headsets are made specifically for the “structural features of cow heads” by vets, and the animals are shown a “unique summer field simulation program”. The familiar sight of an area of grassland is enough to improve the mood of the animals. Ministry of Agriculture of the Russian Federation says that research has shown a connection between a cow’s mood and its milk production. They said, “Examples of dairy farms from different countries show that in a calm atmosphere, the amount of milk increases greatly.” 12. Why do some cow owners use VR headsets on their cows? A. To entertain cows with VR games. B. To potentially boost milk production. C. To prevent cows from escaping in winter. D. To keep cows safe from winter conditions. 13. What does the underlined word “invigorate” in paragraph 4 probably mean? A. Lift. B. Ruin. C. Pose. D. Lower. 14. What do we know about the VR headsets? A. They are designed to fit cows’ heads. B. They improve cows’ color vision. C. They are only used in cold climates. D. They show images of different seasons. 15. What is the text mainly about? A. Research on VR for animals. B. How vision affects cows’ health. C. Weather’s impact on dairy farms. D. The technology to benefit cows and farmers. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Exam time is one of the most stressful in school, whether it is high school, college or graduate school. Even the best students in your school feel the stress. ____16____. Find where you work best. This is the most difficult part of the process. It often goes unnoticed that the environment where we are working impacts our productivity to a great extent. ____17____. Whether it’s a busy cafe, the floor of your room, or a bench in the park, choosing the right environment is the first step to cope with exam stress and be productive. Be organized. My biggest tip is that organizing your time, creating a work schedule, and keeping on top of lectures and extra readings will immensely reduce exam stress. ____18____. If so, making small to-do lists can also make such a big difference. You’ll be surprised how much more confident you feel when you get to the exam period if you have an organized work routine! Rest and reward. Set an alarm for 25 minutes, start working, and then rest for 5 minutes. You can repeat this process 4 — 6 times and then have a longer break or even grab some food. After you feel you have done enough work for the day, then a good way to stay motivated to continue studying tomorrow is to reward yourself. ____19____. ____20____. When I’m feeling stressed, I tend to keep it inside. I don’t want people to know that I am struggling. But reaching out to family or friends about how overwhelmed I felt, how I thought I was going to fail was so helpful. Even just explaining how you feel to someone can be incredibly comforting. A. Talk to others B. Complain to someone C. No one place will be perfect for everyone D. Being organized definitely enhance your learning E. Organization does not come naturally to everyone F. You could watch your favourite TV show or go out for a drink G. Below are my tips to help you manage and overcome exam stress 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A lovely dog earned fame for her extraordinary rescue of a young Rhode Island boy and ended up proving just how special she really was. The shelter staff had considered Ruby can’t be adopted or controlled due to her high ____21____. Five different families ____22____ her to the shelter. The shelter workers intuitively (直觉) knew the local police’s search and rescue department would be a great ____23____ for Ruby, where officers would make great use of her energy. They reached out to the state police, who agreed to give Ruby a(n) ____24____, and Corporal Daniel O’Neil became her handler. Ruby’s long-time handler, Corporal Daniel, ____25____ a close bond with her. He knew Ruby needed a ____26____ to focus her energy. Daniel trained Ruby for a year and a half — much longer than others — but he never ____27____ her. In 2011, Ruby became a certified K-9 trooper (骑警). Six years later, she earned hero status for her ____28____ rescue of a local missing boy. “We got a call from Gloucester Police Department stating there was a ____29____ boy,” Daniel recalled. “And we just went out and started searching.” Hours into search, Ruby ran away from the group and _____30_____ down a hill. Daniel _____31_____ Ruby down the hill and saw her bending over the missing boy on the ground. The boy had hit his head and suffered a serious _____32_____. Daniel _____33_____ the boy’s mother, Pat Inman, that they had found her son alive. He later explained to her how the department’s K-9 trooper had _____34_____ her son. Pat expressed her deep gratitude to Daniel and Ruby for their heroic _____35_____ in rescuing her son. 21. A. pressure B. price C. energy D. anxiety 22. A. returned B. presented C. showed D. introduced 23. A. end B. fit C. joy D. mix 24. A. excuse B. option C. reward D. chance 25. A. threw B. broke C. formed D. tended 26. A. post B. task C. root D. trip 27. A. hung on to B. got down to C. came down on D. gave up on 28. A. incredible B. predictable C. available D. irresistible 29 A. dead B. lost C. cold D. sick 30. A. wandered B. flowed C. raced D. cycled 31. A. followed B. buffeted C. detected D. adjusted 32. A. shock B. defeat C. blow D. injury 33. A. informed B. reminded C. warned D. convinced 34. A. amused B. obtained C. bothered D. located 35. A. talents B. efforts C. fantasies D. tendencies 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填写1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The recent opening of a new exhibition building at the Sanxingdui Museum, in Guanghan, in Sichuan province, made the place an instant tourist hot spot. The bronze heads, golden masks, holy trees and various statues reveal the mysterious faces of a culture ____36____ (date) back more than 3,000 years. For those who cannot make it to Guanghan, ____37____ the extensive site of Sanxingdui is located, an immersive exhibition ____38____ (equip) with digital technology, titled “Hello Sanxingdui”, offers an alternative means to be amazed by the greatness of this Bronze Age culture. It is running at the Longfu Art Museum in Beijing until Feb. 29. It provides a time-travel experience for both an educational and ____39____ (art) appeal. The journey begins with a brief timeline of texts, photos and videos, showing how Sanxingdui was first discovered in the 1920s, when objects ____40____ (find) by farmers digging an irrigation ditch (灌溉沟渠), and it highlights the important moments in the past century’s ongoing archaeological efforts ____41____ (reveal) the secrets surrounding Sanxingdui. On show are life-size reproductions of dozens of astonishing artifacts, such ____42____ 2.6-meter bronze statues, 3.8-meter-wide bronze masks and “the holy tree” standing nearly 4 meters. ____43____ (image) of these objects found at Sanxingdui and their patterns have been digitized, animated and projected on screens, leading the audience into ____44____ ancient kingdom of Shu, a civilization that thrived (兴盛) for centuries in the southwest during the Zhou Dynasty, and disappeared ______45______ (sudden), leaving many myths and legends. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华，你校英文报正在举行以“My Favorite Traditional Chinese Festival”为主题的作文比赛，请你写篇短文投稿，内容包括： 1. 节日简介；2. 喜欢的原因。 注意：1. 词数80左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 My Favorite Traditional Chinese Festival ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。续写的词数应为150左右。 It was supposed to be a normal trip to the supermarket. My son was little and it was getting close to nap time, so I was rushing through the aisles trying to avoid a meltdown. I remember feeling a sense of accomplishment as I got him into the car without any tears. Then I went to start the car and realized my keys were gone. After a few minutes of checking around, I realized that I must have locked them in the trunk with my bag. I wasn’t sure what to do, so I took my son out of his car seat and went back inside the store with my cart still full of groceries. I had to use their phone to call my husband for the spare key because my phone was in the bag I had locked in the trunk. After multiple calls and messages with no answer, I was getting frustrated. I was exhausted from a sleepless night that all moms go through when their kids are teething. When he went into full-on crying, I felt the tears come down my face, too. An employee at the store tapped me on the shoulder and asked me to come with her. I was panicked for a moment, thinking that I was going to be scolded and thrown into the storage area to keep us quiet. The employee, whose name I would later know was Kelly, took me, to my surprise, to the Starbucks cafe inside the store. She asked me if I drank coffee. When I said yes, she walked over to the counter and came back with one for me. I told her how stupid I felt locking my keys in the car, and she assured me it happened to a lot of people. As we talked, my son settled into a sound sleep in my arms. After about fifteen minutes, she said her break was over, and she had to get back to work. But I still couldn’t get in touch with my husband. At that moment, she told me she would find someone to help me unlock my trunk once she got back to the store. 注意：1. 续写词数应为150左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 After a while, a store employee came over to me. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ The next day, I returned to the supermarket to thank Kelly. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024—2025学年第一学期11月高二期中考试 英语 注意事项：1. 考试时间为120分钟，满分150分。 2. 答题前、考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡相应的位置。 3. 全部答案在答题卡上完成，答在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is wrong with the man’s plant? A. It gets too much food. B. It gets too little sunlight. C. It gets too much water. 2. What did the woman want when she was young? A. To have dark hair. B. To sell her golden hair. C. To have her cousin’s height. 3. Where are the speakers probably? A. In a concert. B. In a restaurant. C. In a ticket office. 4. How does the man sound? A. Frustrated. B. Delighted. C. Confused. 5. What is the man? A. A director. B. An actor. C. A writer. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why is the woman’s screen dark? A. She is using an app. B. The screen is broken. C. The phone is out of battery. 7. What makes it difficult for people to sleep? A. A little white noise. B. Lots of blue light. C. A very dark room. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What do we know about the man? A. He dislikes typing. B. He often complains. C. He is very busy. 9. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Colleagues. B. Boss and employee. C. Husband and wife. 10. What will the speakers do probably? A. Go on strike due to the cold. B. Choose to work from home for the day. C. Discuss the temperature issue with boss. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. How are the speakers feeling now? A. Excited. B. Disappointed. C. Worried. 12. What will the woman buy? A. Some model cars. B. Some little people. C. Some tiny plants. 13. What is the man going to do first? A. Buy the tickets. B. Go to the bathroom. C. Get some food. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the woman doing? A. Leading a school tour. B. Teaching a class. C. Organizing a competition. 15. Why does the man come to this school? A. To take part in a special party. B. To attend the school as a student. C. To meet with his previous teachers. 16. What sport is the man probably good at? A. Swimming. B. Football. C. Basketball. 17. Where will the speakers go next? A. The library. B. The science labs. C. The art studio. 听下面一段独白，回答第18至20题。 18. What is unique about the AI Canteen? A. It serves only vegetarian meals. B. It is entirely operated by robots. C. It is located in a shopping mall. 19. How does the intelligent cooking system prepare food? A. It cooks food using traditional methods. B. It relies on chefs for cooking and serving. C. It uses robotic arms to cook and pack food. 20. What is the advantage of the Al Canteen? A. It has a wider variety of traditional dishes. B. It serves more customers than human waiters. C. It offers a more personalized dining experience. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. C 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. D 5. C 6. C 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. D 10. C 11. A D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. G 17. C 18. E 19. F 20. A 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. A 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. B 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36 dating 37. where 38. equipped 39. artistic 40. were found 41. to reveal 42. as 43. Images 44. the 45. suddenly 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】My Favorite Traditional Chinese Festival My favorite traditional Chinese festival is the Spring Festival, which marks the beginning of the lunar new year. It is a time for family reunions, delicious food, and vibrant celebrations. I love this festival because it brings my family together, allowing us to share joy and happiness. The tradition of giving red envelopes and setting off fireworks adds to the festive atmosphere. Moreover, it is a time to reflect on the past year and set new goals, making it a meaningful and hopeful occasion. In conclusion, the Spring Festival not only celebrates the arrival of a new year but also strengthens the bonds within our family. It is a time filled with warmth, tradition, and hope, making it my most cherished traditional Chinese festival. 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】 After a while, a store employee came over to me. He was carrying a set of tools and assured me that he could help unlock the trunk. With a few skillful maneuvers, he managed to open it, and I was finally able to retrieve my keys and phone. I thanked him profusely, feeling a wave of relief wash over me. My son was still peacefully asleep, and I was grateful for the unexpected kindness I had received. The next day, I returned to the supermarket to thank Kelly. I brought a small gift as a token of my appreciation. When I found her, I expressed my heartfelt gratitude for her help and understanding. She smiled warmly and said it was nothing, encouraging me to pass on the kindness to someone else in need. Her words stayed with me, and I left the store feeling inspired to make a difference in someone else’s day, just as she had in mine. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$