内容正文:
2024-2025学年度第一学期第一次月考
高一英语试题
考生注意:
1. 答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
2. 答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1 . Why does the woman refuse to play tennis with Peter?
A. She is busy. B. The weather is bad. C. She dislikes Peter.
2. What are the speakers talking mainly about?
A. A fantastic photo. B. A new furniture store. C. The man's home.
3. What did the woman think of Dana's speech?
A. Well-prepared. B. Important. C.Boring.
4. Where does the conversation most probably take place?
A. In the meeting room. B. In the office. C. At home.
5 . What is the woman doing?
A. Taking a shower. B. Cooking breakfast. C. Making the bed.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6至8题。
6. What does the man do?
A.A teacher. B.A secretary. C.A reporter.
7. What do we know about the woman?.
A. She likes doing the paperwork.
B. She managed to get a teaching job.
C.She will have several interviews soon.
8.How does the man feel about the woman's news?
A. Worried. B. Surprised. C.Pleased.
听第7 段材料,回答第9至11题。
9.When will the speakers leave for the shopping trip tomorrow?
A.At 8:45. B.At 9:15 .C. At 9:30.
10. How many people will go for the trip?
A.3. B. 4. C.2.
11. What do the speakers need to take tomorrow?
A.Food. B.Hats .C.Clothes.
听第8 段材料,回答第 12 至 14 题。
12. Who will meet the woman at the airport?
A. The man. B. The man's workmate. C. The man's driver.
13. Why did the woman fail to be picked up?
A. The man forgot the time change..
B.The driver got the wrong arrival time.
C. She didn't e-mail the man about the change in time.
14. Where will the speakers meet tonight?
A. At a hotel. B. At an airport. C. At the man's office.
听第9段材料,回答第 15 至 17 题。
15. How did the man find the sailing trip?
A.It was expensive. B. It was exciting. C. It was boring.
16. What did the woman do on the weekend?
A. She practiced basketbal1. B. She played tennis. C. She went fishing.
17.Where will the speakers go next weekend?
A. To the theater. B. To the park. C. To the seaside.
听第 10 段材料,回答第 18 至20 题。
18. What color is Pauly’s head?
A.A little blue B. Totally green. C.Mostly red.
19.Why is the speaker worried about Pauly?
A.He won't survive on his own. B. He refuses to eat anything. C. He has a broken tail.
20. What does the speaker expect people to do if they hear Pauly?
A. Record Pauly's loud call. B.Tell him right away. C.Give Pauly something to eat.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Part-time jobs are a great way for teens to make some money. They can also help the teens learn responsibility and get valuable work experience. What’s more, teens can find out what they really like to do in the future by experiencing different jobs. Would you like to look for a part-time job in your free time? Here are some part-time jobs suitable for you.
Dog Walker Wanted
Working hours are from 5:00 p.m. to 6:00 p.m. every day.
Just take dogs out for exercise, feed them and make them active.$10 an hour.
Server Wanted
From 6:00 p.m. to 8:00 p.m., Monday to Friday.
Need to take their orders, serve their food and help them as needed. $130 a week.
Yard Worker Needed
Spend 2 hours every Saturday.
A yard worker needs to cut the grass, plant flowers and everything necessary in a yard. $30 a day.
Pet Sitter Needed
Need to care for different animal friends while their owners are away.
It’s necessary to feed and cheer up the pets in order to keep them healthy and active. $12 an hour.
Visit www.indeed.com for more information.
21. According to the passage, having a part-time job can help teens ________.
A. spend money quickly B. keep healthy and active
C. get a job as a manager D. become more responsible
22. How much can Gina make working in a restaurant?
A. $10 an hour. B. $12 an hour. C. $13 an hour. D. $15 an hour.
23. Where is the text probably from?
A. A website. B. A diary. C. A guide. D. A storybook.
B
In the early 1950s, I was a member of the A class at Armidale Senior High School in northern New South Wales.
In the second and third years we all did General Maths, and our teacher was Mrs Lindsay—Clare Lindsay. Her arrival at our classroom was always quick, "Good morning, everyone!" Then our books would be out, and we would watch her closely.
I've thought a lot about Clare Lindsay over the years. What was her special magic? There are two reasons and I think they're necessary for all excellent teachers. She loved her subject, and she loved us, in a patient and objective way. She had no favorites that I can remember, and she called us all by our first names pleasantly. She had a way of teaching that I loved.
"Now we could go down this path, couldn't we? We could argue this, and then this, but that doesn't work because of this. No Can Do (NCD)!" She would put a big cross, and write "NCD" against what she had put down. "Right! Why not go down this new path?" And she would show us that this new way worked. It was fun. We, whether the students were intelligent or not, all did well because of her. I never found maths difficult, and I put that skill down to her.
In the fourth and fifth years, we were divided into the science and arts streams(按学生能力划分的班级), and Mrs Lindsay didn't teach us any more. But as the Leaving Certificate exams were coming, one of my friends became nervous about how much maths he didn't know. With great courage, he went to see Mrs Lindsay, and asked if she would help him prepare for his General Maths paper. "Of course!" she said, and did just that, after school, in her own time. He passed. What a good teacher!
24. What is the second paragraph mainly about?
A. What Mrs Lindsay was like.
B. How Mrs Lindsay started her class.
C. How Mrs Lindsay treated her students.
D. What activities Mrs Lindsay organised in class.
25. What was Clare Lindsay's special magic?
A. She always talked with her students. B. She knew how to control her students.
C. She had a wide knowledge of maths. D. She loved her job and her students.
26. What did the author mean by saying "I put that skill down to her" in Paragraph 4?
A. He forgot the maths skill Mrs Lindsay had taught.
B. He found that the maths skill was difficult to learn.
C. He thanked Mrs Lindsay for teaching him the maths skill.
D. He hoped Mrs Lindsay would teach him more maths skills.
27. Which of the following can best describe Clare Lindsay?
A. Patient and warm-hearted. B. Brave and helpful.
C. Energetic and strict. D. Generous and confident.
C
It’s a hot time for Chinese language learning across the world, not only because of China’s higher status (地位) in the global community but also because of the increasing economic and cultural connections between China and other countries. As one of the latest countries to welcome Chinese language lecturers, the United Arab Emirates (UAE) plans to open Chinese language courses in 200 public primary and secondary schools; experienced Chinese teachers are eagerly needed.
Other Chinese courses opening across world show the increasing demand for Chinese-speaking talent. Russia included Mandarin (普通话) as an elective foreign language in the country’s college entrance exam. Following English, German, French, and Spanish, Mandarin has become the fifth elective test item for the exam, according to Sergey Kravtsov, Deputy Minister of Russia’s Ministry of Education and Science.
Spain, for example, has more than 40,000 people learning Chinese; last year some 8,000 took the Chinese Proficiency Test (HSK) exam, ranking first among the member states of the European Union, according to Xinhua News Agency.
In the US, learning Chinese has been thriving for a number of years and is now a popular choice for American children, especially those who born in elite (精英) families. The children are exposed to the language at an early age as their parents believe mastering Chinese will help them build successful international careers.
28. What makes Chinese language learning so hot now?
A. China has the highest international position.
B. Many countries depend on China to develop.
C. Many countries want to adopt China’s culture.
D. China has more international influence globally.
29. What can we know about Chinese learning in Europe?
A. Chinese is always an elective foreign language in Russia.
B. There are 200 public primary schools offering Chinese courses in Russia.
C. A Chinese teacher can earn $4,500 a month in Spain.
D. One fifth of students learning Chinese took the HSK in Spain last year.
30. What does the underlined word “thriving” in the last paragraph mean?
A Declining all the time. B. Developing very fast.
C. Stopping suddenly. D. Changing all the time.
31. How many foreign countries are mentioned in the passage?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 8 D. 9
D
Animals are natural resources(资源) that people have wasted all through our history.
Animals have been killed for their fur and feathers(羽毛), for food, for sport, and simply because they were in the way. Thousands of kinds of animals have disappeared from the earth forever. Hundreds more are on the danger list today. About 170 kinds in the United States alone are considered in danger.
Why should people care? Because we need animals. And because once they are gone, there will never be any more.
Animals are more than just beautiful or interesting. They are more than just a source of food. Every animal has its place in the balance of nature. Destroying one kind of animal can create many problems.For example, when farmers killed large numbers of hawks(鹰), the farmers’ stores of corn and grain were destroyed by rats and mice. Why? Because hawks eat rats and mice. With no hawks to keep down their numbers, the rats and mice multiplied(繁殖) quickly.
Luckily, some people are working to help save the animals. Some groups raise money to let people know about the problem. And they try to get the governments to pass laws protecting animals in danger.
Quite a few countries have passed laws. These laws forbid(禁止) the killing of any animal or plant on the danger list. Slowly, the number of some animals in danger is growing with these efforts.
32. Why do people kill animals?
A. They kill animals for something they need.
B. They kill animals to raise some money.
C. Animals destroy their natural resources.
D. Animals create many problems.
33. What has happened to the animals on the earth?
A. About 170 kinds of animals have disappeared forever.
B. Thousands of kinds of animals are gone forever.
C. A few kinds of animals have died out.
D. All kinds of animals are in danger.
34. Animals are important to us mainly because __________.
A. they give us a source of food B. they are beautiful and lovely
C. they keep the balance of nature D. they give us a lot of pleasure
35.What can we conclude(总结) from the fact that quite a few countries have passed laws protecting animals in danger?
A. Animals in danger will be kept away from human being.
B. Animals in danger will not be killed any more in the world.
C. The situation(情况)of some animals in danger will improve.
D. Every person will know the importance of protecting animals.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Easy Ways to Keep Your Brain Sharp
Everyone is forgetful, but as we age, we start to feel like our brains are slowing down(减速) a bit—and that can be a terrible thing. 36 Read on for some techniques(技巧) worth trying.
1. 37
People who regularly made plans and looked forward to upcoming events had a 50 percent reduced chance of Alzheimer's disease (早老性痴呆症), according to a recent study. 38 Something as simple as setting a goal to have a weekly coffee date with a friend will do. There's evidence that people who have a purpose in life or who are working on long or short-term goals appear to do better. In other words, keep your brain looking forward.
2. Go for a walk.
Mildly raised glucose (葡萄糖) levels can harm the area of the brain that helps you form memories and physical activity can help get blood glucose down to normal levels. In fact, exercise produces chemicals(化学物质) that are good for your brain. 39
3. Learn something new.
Take a Spanish class online, join a drawing club, or learn to play cards. A study found that mental(精神的) stimulation (刺激) limits the weakening effects of aging on memory and the mind. But the best thing for your brain is when you learn something new and are physically active at the same time. 40 Or go dancing with your friends.
A. Focus on the future.
B. This can be especially harmful to the aged.
C. It should be something like learning gardening(园艺).
D. So take a few minutes each day to do some reading.
E. But don't worry if your schedule isn't filled with great events.
F. Luckily, research shows there is a lot you can do to avoid those moments.
G. In other words, when you take care of your body, you take care of your brain.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Two years ago, I took a bus to visit a friend living on a farm. My friend 41 to pick me up from the bus station. Once I got off the 42 , I pulled my two suitcases(行李箱) and walked to the pickup area. 43 , my friend got stuck in the heavy traffic and I had to 44 for an hour at the pickup area.To make things worse, it started raining half an hour later.Looking around, I was sad to find that there was no place to take shelter(躲避)from the 45 . Just as I was feeling 46 , a man driving a car stopped in front of me and 47 me an umbrella. I asked for his 48 and so I could mail(邮寄)it back when I 49 _ using it.To my surprise, the man said, “you don't have to 50 it. Just pass the umbrella on to someone else when 51 car arrives. ” When my friend finally 52 , I gave the umbrella to a lady carrying a baby who just arrived at the pickup area. 53 I left, I asked her to give it to anyone else in 54 of the umbrella. When I arrived at my friend's farm, I was very tired, but happy that I was able to pass 55 on to others
41. A. regretted B. promised C. forgot D.disagreed
42. A.car B.train C. bus D. taxi
43. A. Differently B. Finally C. Unluckily D. Naturally
44. A.wait B. count C. save D. work
45. A.fire B.rain C.snow D. danger
46. A.helpless B.thirsty C.hungry D.sick
47. A.passed B.showed C. sold D. found
48. A. age B. address C. hobby D. job
49. A.avoided B. started C. minded D.finished
50. A. get B.keep C. borrow D. return
51. A.his B.her C.your D. my
52. A.showed up B. gave up C. woke up D. stayed up
53. A.Before B.After C.Because D.Unless
54. A.support B.need C.search D.place
55. A. fitness B. fairness C. kindness D. politeness
第二节 单句语法填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面句子,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
56. I was looking at the photos on the notice board ______ I heard a voice behind me.
57. ______(turn) around, I saw a white haired man.
58. I tried to turn_______ my brain, but the engine just wouldn't start.
59. I ________ (organize) my words in my head when the girl next to me gave me a nudge.
60. _______ butterflies in my stomach, I breathed deeply.
61. Challenges like this might sometimes put you ________ pressure.
62. I was _____ (frighten) at the sight of the test paper, but then I figured I'd better just go all out and see what happens.
63. Is there anything else in particular that you would like _____ (share) with us?
64. Well, thanks again for ______(come) to speak to us, Lisa.
65. Thinking is a more important ability _____ note-taking and memorizing.
66. Finally it's Friday, I can't believe the first week is coming to _____ end.
67. Even the smallest words can be _____(confuse).
68. You also have to wonder at the unique madness of a language _____ a house can burn up as it burns as it burns down.
69. English was invented by people, not computers, and it reflects the________ (create) of human race.
70. I am looking forward to my early _____(graduate) because I aspire to support my poor family.
第四部分,写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假如你是来自英国的交换生Adam,刚刚来到新华高中进行交流学习,你将向老师和同学介绍自己,包括个性、爱好等方面。
要点包括:1. 自我介绍;2 性格、爱好;3. 未来计划。
注意事项:1. 词数不少于80。2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Good morning everyone! I am Adam from the UK. Thank you for your attention.
第二节 (满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文
Jim loved adventures when he was a little boy. He was also a strong-minded boy who didn't give up easily.
One day when he was thirteen years old, he asked some friends to climb a mountain with him. The boys agreed and they even decided to camp at the top of the mountain.Then after they got ready, they set off. It was a beautiful day and the boys started climbing the mountain happily after they got to the foot of it. The mountain was very tall and it was tiring for the young boys to climb it, but everyone was passionate(热情的)and no one complained(抱怨).
When it got dark, they finally reached the top and they all shouted happily. Then Jim started counting(数数). To his shock, there was one missing. “Where is Mike?” he asked. All the boys looked around and they didn't see Mike around. They got worried. they started shouting“Mike,Mike!” But there was no response. Worrying that Mike might be in danger, the boys knew they must return to find him.
However, after climbing the mountain for hours, they were all tired. Jim asked the other boys to camp there and then he went down the mountain to find Mike alone. Jim left the boys and started going down the mountain with a flashlight. Though tired, hungry and cold, he still didn't give up. But things got even worse when his flashlight suddenly stopped working.Jim almost became desperate(绝望的), and he started calling his friend's name. To his joy, finally, he got a weak response. Mike was just nearby.
Jim felt his way in the darkness and walked toward his friend. Luckily the moon got out of the cloud and Jim could finally see again. He found his friend trapped in a hole for hours. Jim managed to pull Mike up from the hole, and Mike was finally safe. However, Jim was so tired that he fell and rolled(滚) down a slope(山坡) and lost consciousness(失去意识).
注意:1.续写词数应为150左右;2.请按如下格式在以下位置作答:
When Jim finally woke up, he found himself in hospital.
Looking at those worried faces of his parents and friends, Jim made a decision.
(
1
)
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
$$
高一英语月考一答案(满分150分,时长2小时)
第1部分 听力(共两节,满分30分 20*1.5=30分):
1-5 BCACB 6-10 ABCCB 11-15 ACBAA 16-20 BCCAB
第2部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第1节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
21-23 DCA 24-27 BDCA 28-31 D D B B 32.A 33.B 34.C 35.C
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)七选五 36-40.FAEGC
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
41.B 42.C 43.C 44.A 45.B 46.A 47.A 48.B 49. D 50.D 51.C 52.A 53.A 54.B 55.C
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
56.when 57.Turning 58.on 59. was organizing 60.With 61. under 62. frightened
63.to share 64.coming 65. than 66. an 67. confusing 68. in which 69. creativity 70.graduation
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分40分)
第1节 (共1小题,满分15分)范文
Good morning everyone! I am Adam from the UK. I'm really excited to be here at Xinhua High School for this exchange program.
Let me introduce myself. I am an outgoing and friendly person. I love making friends and chatting with people from different backgrounds. My hobbies are quite diverse. I enjoy reading all kinds of books, especially novels and biographies. It helps me expand my knowledge and imagination. Also, I am passionate about sports. I often play football and tennis with my friends in my spare time.
As for my future plans, I hope to travel around the world and experience different cultures. I believe it will broaden my horizons and make me a more open-minded person. I also aim to study hard and get good grades to enter a top university.
Thank you for your attention.
【分档划分标准】
第五档(很好)(13~15分):完全完成了试题规定的任务。
(1)覆盖所有内容要点,表达清楚、合理;(2)应用了较多复杂、高级的语法结构和词汇;
(3)语法结构或词汇方面使用准确,即使有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级
词汇所致;表现了较强的语言运用能力;(4)自然流畅地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。整体而言,完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(好)(10~12分):完全完成了试题规定的任务。
(1)基本覆盖所有内容要点,表达比较清楚、合理;(2)应用的复杂高级的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求;(3)语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致;(4)应用了语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。整体而言,达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(适当)(7~9分):基本完成了试题规定的任务。
(1)虽漏掉一些要点内容,但覆盖所有主要内容,尚能表达出作文要求;(2)应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,句子结构有一定的变化;(3)有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解;(4)能应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(较差)(4~6分):未适当完成试题规定的任务。
(1)漏掉或未描述清楚一些内容要点,有些内容与主题无关;(2)应用的语法结构单调,词汇项目有限;(3)有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解;(4)较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(差)(1~3分):未完成试题规定的任务。
(1)明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,偏离主题;(2)语法结构非常单调,词汇项目非常有限;(3)较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解,词不达意;(4)缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
0分:未作答;所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判,所写内容与题目要求完全不相关0分。
第二节 (共1小题,满分25分)范文
When Jim finally woke up, he found himself in hospital. He was severely injured and couldn't even feel his legs. He was told that he might not be able to walk again. Hearing that, Jim became desperate, with tears rolling down his face, He loved adventures and now he even couldn't walk. His parents and friends were all there with him, feeling sad and regretful. But they all encouraged him, saying that they'd do all that they could to help him walk again .
Looking at those worried faces of his parents and friends, Jim made a decision. He decided to stand on his feet again no matter how hard it could be. Jim left the hospital after a month..He had to use a wheelchair of course, but Jim remained positive. He started training himself to stand on his feet later with the help of his friends. The process was really painful and hard, but he never gave up. One year later, Jim finally recovered. Now he can have adventures with his friends again!
【分档划分标准】
第五档(21-25分)完全达到预期写作目的。与所给短文融合度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理;内容丰富,故事发展合理、逻辑性强,续写完整,符合写作目的与情境;所使用语法结构和词汇多样、准确和恰当,可能有个别错误,但完全不影响意义表达;有效地使用了语句间的连接手段,结构清晰,意义连贯。
第四档(16-20分)达到预期写作目的。与所给短文融合度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理;内容比较丰富,故事发展比较合理、有逻辑性,续写比较完整,比较符合写作目的与情境;
所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达;比较有效地使用了语句间的连接手段,结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。
第三档(11-15分)整体而言,基本达到预期写作目的。与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;写出了若干有关内容,故事发展有合理之处、有一定的逻辑性,续写基本完整,基本符合写作目的与情境;
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义的表达应用简单的语句间的连接手段,结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。
第二档(6-10分)未能达到预期写作目的。与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;写出了一些有关内容,故事发展不太合理、逻辑性差,不太符合写作目的与情境;语法结构单调、词汇项目有限,错误较多,影响了意义的表达:较少使用语句间的连接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义不够连贯,
与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差;
第一档(1-5分)完全未达到预期写作目的。产出无关内容太多,故事发展不合理、不合逻辑,续写不完整,不符合写作目的与情境;语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限,错误很多,严重影响了意义的表达;缺乏语句间的连接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。
0分:未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;所写内容均与所要求内容无关
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
$$