山西省晋中市榆次区山西现代双语学校南校2024-2025学年七年级上学期10月月考英语试题

2024—2025 学年初一年级适应性调研 英 语 试 题 说明：答题时间 60 分钟，分值 100 分 一、补全对话（每小题 2 分，共 10 分） 请根据下面的对话内容，在空白处填上一个适当的句子， 使对话的意思连贯、完整。 75% Good morning，Teacher！ 1. You can call me Miss Green. Nice to meet you, Miss Green. I’m Jenny. Nice to meet you too. Oh, what are these? 2. Are these books yours? No. Mine are in the schoolbag. I think they’re Maria’s. Maria? 3. M-A-R-I-A. Oh. I see. 4. Yes, it is my cup. 5. OK. You’re welcome. Ask Maria to come here. 二、完形填空(每小题 2 分，共 20 分) 请阅读下面语篇，理解其大意，然后从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出一 个能填入空白处的最佳选项。 Hello, my name is Cindy Green. I 6 a 12-year-old girl. This year, I become a middle school 7 . And I study in a boarding school (寄宿学校). So I have a new smartphone(智能 手机). And the 8 is 13903512323. What colour is it? It's purple. I like purple. My quilt (被 子) is 9 , too. Look at the boy. 10 is my brother, Dave Green. He is 10 years 11 . He is in a blue jacket. He 12 the blue jacket is very nice. He likes blue 13 red, but his telephone is black. He 14 five pens—one red pen, two blue pens and two black pens. They are in 15 pencil box. ( ) 6. A. am B.is C.are ( ) 7. A.pen B. student C.ruler ( ) 8. A.name B.key C.number ( ) 9. A.purple B.green C.yellow ( ) 10.A.It B.He C.She ( ) 11.A.rich B.young C.o1d ( ) 12.A.thanks B. says C.spells ( ) 13.A.then B.and C.or ( ) 14.A.greets B.has C.circles ( ) 15.A.their B.her C.his 三、阅读理解（本题共三个语篇，每篇后有五个小题，每小题 2 分，共 30 分） (A) 请阅读下面对五名同学的描述，将其与上面的图片相匹配，并将图片的字母标号填到相应 的横线上。 B 16. Anna White, England She is fifteen years old.She likes animals. Now she is taking Joey, her pet dog, to the hospital because it is sick and needs to see a vet (兽医). 17. Wang Hui,China He is a boy from Shaoxing, Zhejiang. He is 14. He wants to play football with his friends, but he can't. Because he is taking an English lesson. 18. Linda Green, New York She is twelve. Music is her favourite.Sometimes she lies on the bed and enjoys the music. She wants to be a singer one day. 19. Sophie, France She is 13 years old. She is from Paris. She worked as a volunteer (志愿者)in Paris during the Olympic Games(奥运会). 20. John, Canada He is in Yunnan now.He likes elephants. “They have long noses. Their ears are very big. They look very cute and kind," he says. (B) 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 Welcome to the “most beautiful family(最美家庭 )” . Let’ s meet the family today—a family of teachers. 第 1 页 共 4 页 第 2 页 共 4 页 I'm Bob. This is my wife Linda.We are both 66 years old and teach in a senior university(老年 大学).I teach Chinese painting and she teaches English. Our daughter and son, Mary and Alex, are teachers too. I'm Mary, a Chinese teacher. I work in Green Middle School. My husband Alan is an art teacher in my school. We have two children— Annie and Frank. They are in my school too. Annie is in Grade 7. I'm Eric. I'm a student from Class 9, Grade7 in Green Middle School. My father Alex is a P.E. teacher in No. 1 Middle School.My mother Helen teaches children maths. I have a sister, Alice. She likes playing ping-pong. In the future, I want to be a maths teacher because I like children and maths very much. ( ) 21. Who teaches Chinese painting? A.Mary. B. Linda. C.Bob. ( ) 22. Where does Alan work? A.In Green Middle School. B. In No. 1 Middle School. C. In a senior university. ( ) 23. How many children are in Grade 7 in this family? A. One. B.Two. C.Three. ( ) 24. What subject does Eric like best? A.Chinese. B. English. C.Maths. ( ) 25. Which one is TRUE(正确的) according to the passage(文章)? A. Mary is an English teacher. B. Helen plays ping-pong well. C. Annie and Alice are cousins. (C) 请阅读下面短文,根据语篇内容,从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项, 使短文意思通顺。选项中有一项为多余项。 After your sixth grade, you come to a middle school, and all things are new to you. How to start your new school? 26. But not everyone is good at making new friends. Here are some ideas. Have a good self-introduction(自我介绍) In the first class, teachers want to know you, so they let you give a self-introduction.Your introduction can make you sound interesting and fun to other people. 27. Be nice to others(其他人) If the boys and girls can't find their erasers or rulers, let them use yours or you can go to the Lost and Found (失物招领处 ) with them. And if they want to go to the library but don' t know where it is, you can go with them. 28. Find things to talk about 29. For example, you don't like salad, but you like fruit and chicken. You like sports, and you have many sports things. You have fun in your science class.You can use these small free talks to get close to(亲近) your new friends. 30. If you have some, you will feel(感到)happy and great about your new middle school life. If not, you may feel bored with many things and things may not go well. A. It's important to have friends. B. Start it with making new friends! C. Nice people are always welcome. D.Then they want to be friends with you. E.You can talk about your likes and dislikes(不喜欢). F. But some people don't want to be friends with you. 四、词语运用（每空 2 分，共 20 分） 请阅读下面短文，根据语篇内容，从方框中选出恰当的词填空，使短文通顺、连贯。 cows tomatoes a is sky red under another their water My grandparents have a small farm. At the front, there 31. a big sign(标志) with “Welcome” on it. The sign is 32. and white. In the garden, there are some carrots and 33. . There is also 34. tree with green leaves (叶子). 35. the tree, you can see a brown hen and five yellow chicks(小鸡). 36. farm has two rabbits. They have white and soft fur. Nearby, there is a lake with clear 37. . In the barn (畜棚 ), there are two 38. . Their fur is black and white. In 39. field, there are four white sheep. At night, the stars are in the 40. . The moon shines on the lake, making it look beautiful. 五、书面表达（共 20 分） 农场上绿色的草坪，娇艳的花朵，可爱的小动物：牛羊成群，还有鸡、鸭、鹅。请你以“My Dream Farm”为题写一篇英语短文，简要介绍一下你梦想中的农场。 要求： 1.词数不少于 50 词；开头已给出，不计入词数； 2.文中不得出现真实的人名、校名。 第 3 页 共 4 页 第 4 页 共 4 页 2024—2025 学年初一年级适应性调研 英 语 试 题 答 案 说明：答题时间 60 分钟，分值 100 分 一、补全对话（每小题 2 分，共 10 分） 1.Good morning. 2.They are books. 3.How do you spell “Maria”? /How do you spell her name?/ How do you spell it?/ Spell it,please./Spell her name,please./... 4.Is it your cup? 5.Thank you./Thanks. 二、完形填空(每小题 2 分，共 20 分) 6-10 ABCAB 11-15 CBBBC 三、阅读理解（每小题 2 分，共 30 分） （A）16-20 （B）21-25 （C）26-30 A D E B C CA B C C B D C E A 四、词语运用（每小题 2 分，共 20 分） 31. is 32. red 33. tomatoes 34. a 35. Under 36. Their 37. water 38. cows 39. another 40. sky 五、书面表达（共 20 分） 不少于 50 词，错 4 处单词扣 1 分，错 2 处语法扣 1 分，错一个句子扣 1 分。