内容正文:
临泉一中2024-2025学年度高二上学期开学考试
英语学科试卷
考生注意:
1.满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上,并将条形码贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
3.考生作答时,请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目
的答案标号涂黑:非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答,超出答
题区域书写的答案无效,在试卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)1
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题:每小题1.5分,满分75分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每
段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What is the man going to do?
A.Practice tennis.
B.Attend a violin lesson.
C.Take a dance class.
2.Where is Gill?
A.In the garden.
B.In the library
C.In the flower shop.
3.Where does the conversation probably take place?
A.At home.
B.In a supermarket.
C.In a hotel.
4.What does the woman think causes the man's problem?
A.His low chair.
B.His broken desk.
C.His old keyboard.
5.Why was the man unable to visit the woman?
A.He got a wrong address.
B.He failed to stop in Maine.
C.He didn't know her address.
第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最
佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的
作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
6.What is the woman looking for?
A.The bus stop.
B.The Bakery Shop.
C.The City Bank.
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7.When will the next bus leave?
A.At about 7:30.
B.At about 8:30.
C.At about 9:30.
2
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8.When did the woman plan to take her vacation?
A.This month.
B.Next month.
C.Two months later.
9.What does the man expect the woman to do?
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A.Travel with him
B.Postpone her trip.
C.Comfort her husband.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10.What is the relationship between the speakers?
A.Mother and son.
B.Teacher and student.
C.Roommates.
11.What does Bill say about the apartment?
A.It was small.
B.It was expensive.
C.It was messy.
12.What does the woman suggest Bill do?
A.Find more information online.B.Turn to his classmates for help.
C.Buy some furniture by
himself.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13.What is the man?
A.A writer.
B.An actor.
C.A shop assistant.
14.How are the jobs organized by the man?
A.By country
B.By industry
C.By salary.
15.In which aspect do food stylists help?
A.Transportation.
B.Production.
C.Advertising.
16.Which industry is Brad Fields in?
A.The food industry.
B.The cleaning industry.
C.The film industry.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17.What is the only requirement on the photos for this year's competition?
A.The color.
B.The topic.
C.The size.
18.What is the first prize?
A.A camera.
B.A photography book
C.Free photography lessons.
19.What is the speaker doing now?
A.Hosting a program.
B.Reading a newspaper.
C.Having an interview.
20.How long will the exhibition last?
A.Two days.
B.Five days.
C.Eight days.
第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)》
第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature
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Grading Scale
90-100,A;80-89,B;70-79,C;60-69,D;Below60,E.
Essays(60%)
Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course:Essay 1=
10%;Essay2-15%;Es8ay3=15%:E8say4=20%.
Group Assignments(30%)
Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (during the course.All the
assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard,our online learning and course
management system.
Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Test/Group Work/Homework(10%)
Class activities will vary from day to day,but students must be ready to complete short in-class
writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class'
lecture/discussion,so it is important to take careful notes during class.Additionally,from time to time I
will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home,both of
which will be graded.
0
Late Work
An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late.
If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date,it will earn a zero.Daily assignments not
completed during class will get a zero.Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be
accepted.
21.Where is this text probably taken from?
A.A textbook.
B.An exam paper.
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C.A course plan.D.An academic article.
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22.How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?
A.Two.B.Three.C.Four.D.Five.
23.What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?
A.You will receive a zero.
B.You will lose a letter grade.
C.You will be given a test.
D.You will have to rewrite it.
B
When John Todd was a child,he loved to explore the woods around his house,observing how nature solved
problems.A dirty stream,for example,often became clear after flowing through plants and along rocks where tiny
creatures lived.When he got older,John started to wonder if this process could be used to clean up the messes
people were making.
After studying agriculture,medicine,and fisheries in college,John went back to observing nature and asking
questions.Why can certain plants trap harmful bacteria()Which kinds of fish can eat cancer-causing
chemicals?With the right combination of animals and plants,he figured,maybe he could clean up waste the way
nature did.He decided to build what he would later call an eco-machine.
The task John set for himself was to remove harmful substances from some sludge ()First,he
constructed a series of clear fiberglass tanks connected to each other.Then he went around to local ponds and
streams and brought back some plants and animals.He placed them in the tanks and waited.Little by little,these
different kinds of life got used to one another and formed their own ecosystem.After a few weeks,John added the
sludge.
He was amazed at the results.The plants and animals in the eco-machine took the sludge as food and began
to eat it!Within weeks,it had all been digested,and all that was left was pure water.
Over the years,John has taken on many big jobs.He developed a greenhouse-like facility that treated sewage
(from 1,600 homes in South Burlington.He also designed an eco-machine to clean canal water in Fuzhou,a
city in southeast China.
"Ecological design"is the name John gives to what he does."Life on Earth is kind of a box of spare parts for
the inventor,"he says."You put organisms in new relationships and observe what's happening.Then you let these
new systems develop their own ways to self-repair."
24.What can we learn about John from the first two paragraphs?
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A.He was fond of traveling.
B.He enjoyed being alone.
C.He had an inquiring mind.
D.He longed to be a doctor.
25.Why did John put the sludge into the tanks?
A.To feed the animals.
B.To build an ecosystem.
C.To protect the plants.
D.To test the eco-machine.
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26.What is the author's purpose in mentioning Fuzhou?
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A.To review John's research plans.
B.To show an application of John's idea.
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C.To compare John's different jobs
D.To erase doubts about John's invention.
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27.What is the basis for John's work?
A.Nature can repair itself.
B.Organisms need water to survive.
C.Life on Earth is diverse.
D.Most tiny creatures live in groups.
发出出专
A machine can now not only beat you at chess,it can also outperform you in debate.Last week,in a public
debate in San Francisco,a software program called Project Debater beat its human opponents,including Noa
Ovadia,Israel's former national debating champion.
Though it is brilliant,Project Debater has some weaknesses.It takes sentences from its library of
documents and prebuilt arguments and strings them together.This can lead to the kinds of errors no human would
make.Such wrinkles will no doubt be ironed out,yet they also point to a fundamental problem.As Kristian
Hammond,professor of electrical engineering and computer science at Northwestern University,put it:"There's
never a stage at which the system knows what it's talking about."
What Hammond is referring to is the question of meaning.and meaning is central to what distinguishes the
least intelligent of humans from the most intelligent of machines.A computer works with symbols.Its program
specifies a set of rules to transform one string of symbols into another.But it does not specify what those symbols
mean.Indeed,to a computer,meaning is irrelevant.Humans,in thinking,talking.reading and writing.also work
with symbols.But for humans,meaning is everything.When we communicate,we communicate meaning.What
matters is not just the outside of a string of symbols,but the inside too,not just how they are arranged but what
they mean.
Meaning emerges through a process of social interaction,not of computation,not of computation,interaction
that shapes the content of the symbols in our heads.The rules that assign meaning lie not just inside our heads,but
also outside,in society,in memory,social conventions and social relations.It is this that tells humans from
machines.And that's why,however astonishing Project Debater may seem,the tradition that began with Socrates
and Confucius will not end with artificial intelligence.
28.Why does the author mention Noa Ovadia in the first paragraph?
A.To explain the use of a software program.
B.To show the clevemess of Project Debater.
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C.To introduce the designer of Project Debater.
D.To emphasize the fairness of the competition.
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29.What does the underlined word"wrinkles"in paragraph 2 refer to?
A.Arguments.B.Doubts.C.Errors.D.Differences.
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30.What is Project Debater unable to do according to Hammond?
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A.Create rules.B.make sense of meaning.
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C.Talk fluently.
D.Identify difficult words.
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31.What can we learn from the last paragraph?
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A.Social interaction is key to understanding symbols.
B.The human brain has potential yet to be developed.
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C.Ancient philosophers set good examples for debaters.
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D.Artificial intelligence ensures humans a bright future.
A
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Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds,from the common"m"and"a"to the rare
clicks of some southern African languages.But why are certain sounds more common than others?A
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ground-breaking,five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds
that are now found in half the world's languages.
More than 30 years ago,the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals,
such as"f'and"v",were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods.Now a team
of researchers led by Damian Blasi at the University of Zurich,Switzerland,has found how and why this
trend arose.
They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned(
)making it hard to produce labiodentais,which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper
teeth.Later,our jaws changed to an overbite structure(),making it easier to produce such sounds.
The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the
Neolithic period.Food became easier to chew at this point.The jawbone didn't have to do as much work
and so didn't grow to be so large.
Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world
languages after the Neolithic age,with the use of"f'and "v"increasing remarkably during the last few
thousand years.These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.
This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human
beings evolved around 300,000 years ago."The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily
remained stable since the appearance of human beings,but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that
we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural
evolution,"said Steven Moran,a member of the research team.
32.Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damian Blasi's research focus on?
A.Its variety.
B.Its distribution
C.Its quantity.
D.Its development.
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33.Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?
A.They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.
B.They could not open and close their lips easily.
C.Their jaws were not conveniently structured.
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D.Their lower front teeth were not large enough.
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34.What is paragraph 5 mainly about?
A.Supporting evidence for the research results.
B.Potential application of the research findings.
C.A further explanation of the research methods.
D.A reasonable doubt about the research process.
35.What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?
A.It is key to effective communication.
B.It contributes much to cultural diversity
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C.It is a complex and dynamic system.
D.It drives the evolution of human beings.
第二节(共5小题:每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
We all know the golden rule:treat others the way you want to be treated.This is an old proverb we learn
from an early age.36
Have you ever noticed that when you do something nice for someone else,it makes you feel better too?
This isn't just something that happens randomly ().37Doing nice things for others increases
your serotonin(血请素),which is responsible for feelings of satisfaction and well-being,
38While there are several ways to reduce anxiety,it turns out that being nice to others can be
第5页共8页
one of the easiest,most inexpensive ways to keep anxiety at bay.University of British Columbia researchers
found that participants who engaged in kind acts displayed significant increases in positive afct (
that lasted over the four weeks of their study.So,the next time you're feeling anxious,look for opportunities
to help others.
Making others feel good can "warm"your heart,sure-but being nice to others can also affect the
actual chemical balance of your heart.Kindness releases the hormone oxytocin which reduces blood pressure
and therefore protects the heart.39Maybe that's why they say nice,caring people have really big
hearts.
Kindness can help you live longer.You may be shaking your head at this one,but there's science to
back it up.According to Health.com,you're at a greater risk of heart disease if you don't have a strong
network of family and friends.When you're kind to others,you develop strong,meaningful relationships and
friendships.40
A.Anxiety is an extremely common human experience.
B.This behavior can help you handle stressful situations.
C.Kindness strengthens your heart physically and emotionally
D.It has something to do with the pleasure centers in your brain.
E.Besides improving personal relationships,kindness can make you healthier.
F.So,make some new friends,or expand your kindness to the ones you already have.
G.However,there are a number of real-life benefits connected with the way we treat others.
第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Officer Joshua Scaglione of the Westland,Michigan Police Department was on duty when he spotted
Del's Impala driving with tinted(染色)windows..4 1his siren(警笛)and flicking on the lights,he
pulled the car over to ask about the 42windows.It was then that Officer Scaglione 43
3-year-old Lauren in the back of the vehicle-and without a baby car seat.
The police officer asked Dell why his 3-year-old daughter was not 44 in a car seat.The man
answered as he fought back 45,explaining that it was due to some hard times.Dell told Seaglione
how financially (E)he had been 46 to keep his household above water,and that things like car
seats were given a low47below necessities like gas and food.The officer listened,as he took pity on
the man who seemed to just want to 48 his family.He then asked Dell to follow him to the local
Walmart,where the police officer 49 and paid for a seat to give to Dell and his daughter.
50,Dell posted his experience on Facebook in order to 51the officer and his post went
viral in the area.
"I've been in a52situation like this guy before,"Scaglione said."I53it'd be better to
help him out and just raise more54about car safety rather than give him a 55that would dig
him deeper in a hole and make things worse for him."
41.A.Putting down
B.Checking out
C.Setting up
D.Turing on
42.A.closed
B.broken
C.illegal
D.wrong
43.A.met
B.saw
C.recognized
D.caught
44.A.riding
B.driving
C.playing
D.sleeping
45.A.tears
B.anger
C.surprise
D,worries山:an
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46.A.preparing
B.managing
C.struggling
D.expecting
47.A.rating
B.mark
C.price
D.priority
48.A.impact
B.support
C.comfort
D.save
49.A.stared at
B.picked out
C.lifted up
D.sat on
50.A.Satisfied
B.Astonished
C.Touched
D.Excited
51.A.encourage
B.pay
C.contact
D.thank
52.A.boring
B.dangerous
C.tough
D.special
53.A.figured
B.remembered
C.discovered
D.admitted
54.A.questions
B.awareness
C.doubts
D.money
55.A.fine
B.lesson
C.beating
D.shock
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第二节(共10小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或所给单词的正确形式。
No structure is as symbolically significant or 56(cultural)important to China as the Great Wall.
Architectural 57(engineer)are part of a huge project to repair this centuries-old structure.
Jiankou
58
(believe)to be one of the most rugged stretches of the relic.Some of the most
dangerous work includes laborers hanging from towering heights.With ropes tied around 59(they)
waists,repair workers spread cement on the wall's steep sides,while others hold the ropes for support.60
(survive)a fall from the steep sides would be unlikely.A laborer explains61 he risks his life to make
repairs to the ancient structure,saying that it is an honor to be part of such a great cause,and it is very62
(meaning)to do so.
Getting supplies to this part of the wall is also a demanding effort.Because the path is so steep,donkeys
and mules must be used to transport bricks,63 can weigh as much as 150 kg each.The repair team
goes to great lengths 64(keep)the principle of minimal intervention."We have to stick 65
the original format,the original material and the original craftsmanship,so that we can better preserve the
historical and cultural values,"said Cheng Yongmao,the engineer leading Jiankou's restoration work.
第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节应用文写作(满分15分)
66.假设你是李华,学校英文报组织同学们分享自己在假期中一段有趣经历,请你以此为主题写一篇
短文投稿。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80左右:
2,可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。m山Hi他
第7页共8页
第二节读后续写(满分25分)
67.阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I used to be very shy and often felt lonely.Although I did well in all the academic subjects,I was afraid
of physical education.My classmates often laughed at me.
"Look at that girl,"they said."Her feet don't leave the ground when she runs!"
Their words embarrassed me.Moreover,whenever the teacher organized some competitive games,no
one in the class liked to have me as their partner or team member.As a result,I often ended up looking at
others enjoy their games.
Things would go on like that if not for a sports meet in my high school.By mistake,my name was put
on the list of those who would compete in the women's 1500 meters race.By the time people found the
mistake,it was too late to change.
I was utterly dumbfounded(目瞪口呆的),.l500 meters!Running against the best runners from other
classes!And in front of students of the entire school!It would be the worst nightmare I'd ever have!
"You still have time to catch up because there is still one month before the sports meet,"my classmates
all said this to me,including my teacher.
My desk-mate patted me on the shoulder,"Cool!You will run for our class!And we will do training
together."Yes,this is not just for myself,but for my class too,I said to myself.But still,1500 meters to me
was like Mount Everest to a beginning climber.I had no idea even how to start my preparation.
Fortunately,my desk-mate gave me a hand.Every afternoon after class,several of us ran together.They
gave me strengths.While we were running,some others would stand by the tracks cheering for us.
One month certainly couldn't make me a good runner.But when I was standing behind the start line,I
no longer felt lonely or afraid.I saw my classmates standing by the tracks waving at me as if about to run
beside me
The day finally came!
注意:1.续写词数应为150左右:
2请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
With the shot of the starting gun,I dashed out and ran as fast as I could.
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As expected,I was almost the last to cross the finish line.
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第8页共8页null
临泉一中 2024-2025 学年度高二上学期开学考试
英语学科试卷参考答案
第一部分 听力(共 20 题,每小题 1.5 分,满分 30 分)
1~5 BACAC 6~10 CCABA 11~15 CBABC 16~20 BBAAC
第二部分 阅读(共 20 题,满分 50 分)
第一节(共 15 小题,每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
21-23 CBA 24-27 CDBA 28-31 BCBA 32-35DCAC
第二节(共 5 小题,每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
36. G 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. F
第三部分 语言运用 (共 20 题,满分 30 分) 第一节(共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
41-45 DCBAA 46-50 CDBBC 51-55 DCABA
第二节(共 10 小题,每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
56. culturally 57.engineers 58.is believed 59.their 60.Surviving
61.why 62.meaningful 63.which 64.to keep 65.to
第四部分 写作 (共 2 题,满分 40 分)
第一节 (满分 15 分)
【答案】Possible version:
Last Sunday, we visited the nursing home in our city, which is the most meaningful activity we have in this summer holiday.
That day, as planned, we got up early than usual. By riding bikes we all arrived at the gate of the local nursing home. There were many elders there, some of whom looked a little lonely, maybe missing their homes. With our arrival, laughter could be heard everywhere. We accompanied those elders, listening to their stories talking about their families. Smiles spread on their faces. We learned a lot of useful life experience and lessons. We also learned life is precious and we should treasure the present time.
【解析】
【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文。要求考生分享自己在假期中的一段有趣经历,并以此为主题投稿。
【详解】1.词汇积累
有意义的:meaningful→significant
计划:plan→schedule
也许:maybe→perhaps
珍惜:treasure→value
2.句式拓展
简单句变复合句
原句:With our arrival, laughter could be heard everywhere.
拓展句:As soon as we arrived, laughter could be heard everywhere.
【点睛】【高分句型1】Last Sunday, we visited the nursing home in our city, which is the most meaningful activity we have in this summer holiday.(运用了which引导非限制性定语从句和省略关系词的定语从句)
【高分句型2】There were many elders there, some of whom looked a little lonely, maybe missing their homes.(运用了介词+whom引导非限制性定语从句和现在分词作状语)
第二节 (满分 25 分)
【答案】Possible version:
With the shot of the starting gun, I dashed out and ran as fast as I could. Soon I was out of breath and slowed down. Other runners passed me one by one, and gradually I had no idea how many of them were still behind me. My legs were getting heavier and heavier, and I might fall down at any moment. However, I suddenly heard my classmates chanting my name. My desk-mate even ran along the tracks beside me and cheered for me at the same time, just like the month-long training we did together.
As expected, I was almost the last to cross the finish line. Immediately, my classmates held my arms and urged me to walk on my feet and not to sit down. I was surrounded, with all kinds of drinks handed to me. I felt a kind of warmth I had never felt before. Even though I was almost the last to finish the race, I was full of confidence that I would improve in the future. That sports meet was an unforgettable experience. Sports are no longer about winning or losing. They give me a lot of confidence, both confidence in my fellow students and confidence in my own potential. I am no longer lonely, no longer afraid.
【解析】
【导语】本文以人物为中心展开,主要讲述脚上有残疾的作者因为同学们的嘲笑而从来不敢参加任何体育活动。但是有一天,因为组织的错误,有人把她的名字写在了1500米赛跑的比赛名单上。接下来,作者在同学们的鼓励和陪伴下,做了为期一个月的训练。
【详解】1.段落续写:
①由第一段首句内容“随着发令枪响。我冲出去,尽可能快地跑。”可知,第一段可描写作者比赛的过程。
②由第二段首句内容“不出所料,我几乎是最后一个冲过终点线的。”可知,第二段可描写比赛结束之后同学们对作者的态度。
2.续写线索:开始跑——速度慢——被超过——被鼓励——被包围——感受到温暖——感动——有信心
3.词汇激活
行为类
①气喘吁吁:be out of breath/pant for breath
②摔倒:fall down/tumble
③抓住:hold/grasp
情绪类
①充满自信的:full of confidence/very confident
②害怕的:afraid/scared
【点睛】【高分句型1】Other runners passed me one by one, and gradually I had no idea how many of them were still behind me.(由how many引导的同位语从句)
【高分句型2】I felt a kind of warmth I had never felt before.(由省略关系代词that引导的定语从句)
第二部分 阅读理解答案解析
第一节
21. C【解析】推理判断题。根据文章标题 Grading Policies forIntroduction to Literature 及各部分小标题可知,这篇文章主要介绍了一门课程的评分细则,由此可推断出这篇文章选自一份课程计划。故选C项。
22.B【解析】细节理解题。根据文章小标题中的Essays(60%),Group Assignments(30%)和Daily Work/In-ClassWritings and Tests/Group Work/Homework(10%)可知,此门课程的分数评定由三部分组成。故选B项。
23. A 根据 Late Work 部分中的第二句If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it wilearnazero.可知,如果在截止日期后的第四天都无法上交作业,作业将被评为零分。由此可知,如果作业迟交一星期,学生将会得零分。故选A项。
24.C 根据第一段最后一句 when he got older , John started to wonder if this process could be used to clean up the messes people were making.和第二段John went back to observing nature and asking questions. 第二段约翰提出的两个问题可知,约翰是一个有好奇心探索的人。故选C项。
25.D 根据第二段最后一句可知,约决定建一个之后被他称为“生态机器”的东西;根据第=可知,他用池塘和小溪里的动植物建成了一个小型生态待缸内生态系统形成后,他放进污泥以查看此生态系统否和现实环境一样,可以自我修复;根据第四段可知,他的试验成功了。由此可推知,他放进污泥是为了检验其制作的“生态机器”是否奏效。
26.B根据第五段第一句Over the years,John has taken on many big jobs.及下文可知是为了举例说明约翰关于生态设计这一想法的应用
27.A 。根据第一段第二、三句A dirty stream... When he got older, John started to wonder if this process could be used to clean up the messes people were making·及最后一段最后一句 Then you let these new systems develop their own ways to self-repair.可知,约翰的“生态设计”的基础是大自然可以自我修复。
28. B【解析】推理判断题。第一段第一句A machine can nownot only beat you at chess,it can also outperform you indebate.说明一台机器现在不仅可以在国际象棋上击败你还可以在辩论中超越你,目的是显示Project Debater软件程序的聪明。故选B项
29. C根据第二段中的Project Debater has some weaknesses. It takes sentences from its library of documents and prebuilt arguments and strings them together. This can lead to the kinds of errors no human would make.可知,该段主要介绍了Project Debater软件程序的缺点,结合画线词后的will no doubt be ironed out(毫无疑问将被解决)可知,画线词所在分句表示“这样的错误毫无疑问将被解决”
30. 根据第三段But it does not specify what those symbols mean. Indeed, to a computer meaning is irrelevant.可知,Project Debater 软件程序无法理解符号的意义,这些意义对它也无关紧要。故选B项。
31. A 根据最后一段第一句可知,意义是通过社会互动的过程产生的,这种互动塑造了我们头脑中符号的内容。由此可知,从最后一段我们能了解到社会互动是理解符号的关键。故选A 项。
32. D 根据第二段中的 Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi... has found how and why this trend arose.可知,达米安·布拉西的研究方向是这一趋势形成的原因和方式。根据前文可知,this trend指的是30多年前学者查尔斯发现在吃较软食物的群体中唇齿音更常见。由此可知,达米安·布拉西研究的是人类语音的发展,故选 D 项。
33. C根据第三段中的the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned , making it hard to produce labiodentals 和our jaws changed to an overbite structure , making it easier to produce such sounds 知,人类因为上下颌结构的改变才得以更加轻松地发出唇齿音,由此可知,古代的成年人难以发出唇齿音与上下颌结构有关。故选C项。
34. A 根据第五段首句Analyses of a language database also confirmed that...可知,语言数据库的分析也证实了新石器时代之后唇齿音的增加。这与第四段首句提及的研究结果相一致,由此可知,此段是为该研究结果提供证据。故选A项。
35. C 根据最后一段中的The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable 和the huge variety of speech sounds... is the product of a complexnterplay……可推知,人类的语音体系是一个复杂且不断变化的系统。故选C项。
七选五
【导语】这是一篇说明文,文章主要介绍了对别人善良带给自己的好处。
【36题详解】
上文“We all know the golden rule: treat others the way you want to be treated. This is an old proverb we learn from an early age.(我们都知道一条黄金法则:己所不欲,勿施于人。这是我们从小学到的一句古老谚语)”提到一句古老的谚语:己所不欲,勿施于人,下文讲述了对别人好带给自己的好处,G项“然而,在现实生活中,我们对待他人的方式会给我们带来很多好处”符合语境,和上文形成转折关系,引出下文内容,故选G。
【37题详解】
上文“Have you ever noticed that when you do something nice for someone else, it makes you feel better too? This isn’t just something that happens randomly(随机地).(你有没有注意到,当你为别人做一些好事时,你也会感觉更好?这不是随机发生的事情)”提到,为别人做好事自己也会感觉更好,这不是随机发生的事情,空处应是对此进行科学解释,D项“这与你大脑中的快乐中枢有关”符合语境,下文“Doing nice things for others increases your serotonin (血清素), which is responsible. for feelings of satisfaction and well-being.(为别人做好事会增加你的血清素,这是满足感和幸福感的来源)”是对D项进一步解释,故选D。
【38题详解】
根据下文“While there are several ways to reduce anxiety, it turns out that being nice to others can be one of the easiest, most inexpensive ways to keep anxiety at bay.(虽然有几种方法可以减少焦虑,但事实证明,善待他人是最简单、最便宜的控制焦虑的方法之一)”可知,本段和焦虑有关,A项“焦虑是一种极其普遍的人类体验”符合语境,故选A。
【39题详解】
根据上文“Kindness releases the hormone oxytocin which reduces blood pressure and therefore protects the heart.(善良会释放催产素,从而降低血压,保护心脏)”以及下文“Maybe that’s why they say nice, caring people have really big hearts.(也许这就是为什么人们说善良、有爱心的人都心胸宽广)”可知,空处和上文并列,说明善良的好处,C项“善良在身体和情感上都能增强你的心灵”符合语境,故选C。
【40题详解】
根据上文“When you’re kind to others, you develop strong, meaningful relationships and friendships.(当你善待他人时,你会建立起牢固而有意义的关系和友谊)”可知,对别人善良可以建立起有意义的关系和友谊,空处位于段末,是总结上文,F项“所以,交一些新朋友,或者把你的善意扩展到你已经拥有的人身上”符合语境,故选F。
【完形填空解析】
【导语】这是一篇记叙文,讲述了密歇根州Westland市警察局的警官Joshua Scaglione帮助一位经济拮据的父亲购买儿童座椅的故事。
【41题详解】
考查动词短语辨析。句意:他打开警笛,打开车灯,把车停在路边,询问非法窗户的情况。A. Putting down扑灭;B. Checking out结账离开;C. Setting up建立;D. Turing on打开。根据“flicking on the lights”及语境可知,Joshua Scaglione在执勤时发现异常情况,故应是打开警笛,故选D。
【42题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意同上。A. closed关闭的;B. broken破碎的;C. illegal非法的;D. wrong错误的。根据上文“Dell’s Impala driving with tinted (染色) windows”可知,Dell的车窗染了色,是非法的。故选C。
【43题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:就在那时,Scaglione警官看到3岁的Lauren坐在车后座上,而且没有婴儿安全座椅。A. met遇见;B. saw看见;C. recognized认识,辨别出;D. caught抓捕。根据“3-year-old Lauren in the back of the vehicle — and without a baby car seat”可知,此处是警官看到的情景,故选B。
【44题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:这位警察问Dell为什么他3岁的女儿没有坐在汽车座椅上。A. riding骑,搭乘;B. driving驾驶;C. playing玩;D. sleeping睡觉。结合空后的“in a car seat”可知,此处指“坐在汽车座椅上”,用动词ride,故选A。
【45题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:这个男人强忍着眼泪回答说,这是由于一些艰难的时期。A. tears眼泪;B. anger生气;C. surprise惊讶;D. worries担心。根据“explaining that it was due to some hard times”可知,由于经历着艰难时期,他应是强忍泪水。故选A。
【46题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:Dell告诉Seaglione,他在经济上是如何挣扎着让他的家庭摆脱困境,而汽车座椅等东西的优先级低于汽油和食物等必需品。A. preparing准备;B. managing管理,设法完成;C. struggling努力,艰难地行进;D. expecting期待。结合上文“it was due to some hard times”可知,Dell在经济方面很艰难,故选C。
【47题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意同上。A. rating等级;B. mark记号;C. price价格;D. priority优先级,重点。结合语境及空后“below necessities like gas and food”可知,Dell在经济方面很拮据,此处指汽车座椅等物品的优先级低于汽油和食品等必需品,故选D。
【48题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:警官听着,同情这个似乎只想养家糊口的人。A. impact影响;B. support支持,养活;C. comfort安慰;D. save挽救,节省。根据上文“Dell told Seaglione how financially (经济上) he had been ___6___ to keep his household above water”可知,Dell努力养家糊口,故选B。
【49题详解】
考查动词短语辨析。句意:然后,他让Dell跟着他去当地的沃尔玛,这位警察在那里为Dell和他的女儿挑选了一个座位,并付了钱。A. stared at凝视,盯着看;B. picked out挑选;C. lifted up抬起,举起;D. sat on拖延。根据“paid for a seat to give to Dell and his daughter”可知,此处指挑选一个座椅并付了钱,故选B。
【50题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意:Dell深受感动,为了感谢这位警官,他把自己的经历发到了脸书上,他的帖子在当地疯传。A. Satisfied满意的; B. Astonished惊讶的;C. Touched感动的;D. Excited兴奋的,激动的。结合上文内容可知,Scaglione为Dell的女儿买汽车座椅,Dell应是深受感动,故选C。
【51题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意同上。A. encourage鼓励;B. pay支付;C. contact联系;D. thank感谢。根据语境及“Dell posted his experience on Facebook”可知,Scaglione帮助了Dell,Dell把自己的经历发到了脸书上应是为了感谢Scaglione,故选D。
【52题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意:“我以前遇到过像这个人一样的困难情况,” Scaglione 说。A. boring令人厌烦的;B. dangerous危险的;C. tough艰难的;D. special特殊的。根据“like this guy before”可知,Scaglione以前也像Dell一样困难,故选C。
【53题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:我想最好是帮助他,提高他对汽车安全的认识,而不是给他罚款,这会让他越陷越深,让事情变得更糟。A. figured认为,认定;B. remembered想起,记得;C. discovered发现;D. admitted承认。结合“it’d be better to help him out…”可知,此处指Scaglione认为最好是帮助他,而不是罚款,故选A。
【54题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意同上。A. questions问题;B. awareness意识;C. doubts怀疑;D. money钱。根据“about car safety”和语境可知,给Dell买安全座椅是为了提高他的安全意识,故选B。
【55题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意同上。A. fine罚款;B. lesson功课,教训;C. beating惨败;D. shock震惊。根据语境及空后“that would dig him deeper in a hole and make things worse for him”可知,Dell有一些违反交通规则之处,让事情变得更糟糕的是对他罚款,故选A。
【听力录音稿】
(Text 1)
M: Hey, Jane. How’s the dance class going?
W: Great. I’m just on the way to tennis practice. And you? M: I’m going to my violin lesson.
(Text 2)
M: Where’s Gill? I am looking for her everywhere. W: You’ll find her in the garden.
M: Oh? What’s she doing? Picking flowers or reading books?
W: She’s taken my camera, so I think she wants to take some photos.
(Text 3)
W: What can I do for you, sir?
M: Hi! I’m staying in Room 326 and I’d like to order an extra coffee without milk. W: OK! Your coffee will arrive in a minute, sir.
(Text 4)
M: My neck is killing me, and my arm hurts.
W: You know why? Your chair is too low, and that makes your mouse seem too high on your desk.
(Text 5)
W: I heard you were up in Maine this summer. Why didn’t you stop by? M: If I had known your address, I would have visited you.
(Text 6)
W: Excuse me?
M: Yes, madam. What can I do for you?
W: Can you tell me where the City Bank is? M: It’s upstairs, across from the Bakery Shop. W: Thanks. Do you know what time it opens?
M: It should be open now because it’s already 9:00.It usually opens at 8:00 in the morning.
W: That’s good. And can you tell me how often the buses leave for the city center? M: Every thirty minutes, and you’ve just missed one.
W: Oh, dear. Then I’ll have to wait for another thirty minutes.
(Text 7)
M: When are you going to take your vacation?
W: I was planning to take it at the end of this month. We are planning to travel to Australia this time. Why? Has something come up?
M: Well, would it be too inconvenient for you to wait until next month?
W: Hmm... not really. I guess I can put it off until next month, but I’ve got to talk about it with my husband. M: Thank you very much. I really appreciate your changing your plans.
(Text 8)
W: Hi, Bill. How’s it going today?
M: Hi, Mum. It is really tiring walking around and seeing places. W: Yes, I know.
M:I saw a ground-floor apartment with four bedrooms today. W: Four bedrooms? It sounds huge.
M: Yeah, it was. But it was quite cheap. And it was a nice place. A big living room with big windows. And the furniture was modern.
W: Sounds great. Did you take it?
M: Well, no. The place was shared. Three boys are looking for a fourth roommate. They seemed nice enough, but the place was a mess. It’s a shame because the place is not bad, quite close to school.
W: Don’t worry. Try to see more places tomorrow. Hopefully, one of them will be alright. Or ask your classmates for more information.
(Text 9)
W: Daniel Ash, your new book is a collection of articles about people with strange jobs. M: Yes, I collected stories about unusual jobs from all over the world.
W: So you’re not talking about actors or shopping assistants. M: No, all the people in the book have very strange jobs.
W: I see. It’s organized into different industries. What about in the food industry?
M: Well, when a company wants to advertise food, they sometimes need a food stylist. Their job is to make food look good in advertisements.
W: I’ve never heard of that job before.
M: Well, there are only about 20 food stylists in Britain. For example, when we look at a picture of strawberries and cream, we’re really looking at strawberries and white paint.
W: Really?
M: Yes, and they paint sausages with washing-up liquid, then coffee, to make them look natural. W: Then the cleaning industry. Isn’t cleaning a normal job?
M: Normally, yes. But did you know there is a man in America called Bra d Fields and...
(Text 10)
M: Once again we’re holding our popular photography competition for children. It’s open to all children between 8 and 12 who have an interest in photography. We’re not looking for special technical skills—just the imagination to take a good picture. Last year, the topic for our competition was wildlife and we received many excellent photos. This year, we’d like your photos to be on the subject of the sea. This is the only requirement. It doesn’t matter whether your photo is in color or black and white. The size of the photos was limited to 17cm long and 12cm wide last year, but there’s no limit on that this year. A team of professional photographers will judge the photos and they’ll choose the four that they think show the most promise. The winner will receive a camera, while the second prize will be free photography lessons. Those in third and fourth place will receive a photography book. If you’re interested, we’d like you to post your photos to us here at Star Radio, 24 Woodstock Square, London. Your photos need to reach us by the 10th of August so you have a few weeks before the closing date. The results of the competition will be announced on this program on the 15th. There will be a chance to see all the photographs into the competition at an exhibition at the museum. This will start on the 20th of August and stay open until 27th.
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