广西南宁市第三十七中学2023-2024学年八年级上学期第一次大作业英语试题

2023—2024学年度上学期八年级第一次大作业 英语 （全卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟） 注意事项： 1.试卷分为试题卷和答题卡两部分，在试题卷上作答无效。 2.答题前，请认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。 一、听力（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分） （一）听句子，选图片。 你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. （二）听短对话，选择最佳答案。 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。 6.What can't the boy find? A.His watch. B.His phone. C.His wallet. 7.How's the weather in Hangzhou now? A.Windy. B.Sunny. C.Rainy. 8.What club does David want to join? A.The art club. B.The English club. C.The dance club. 9.When did Frank start to play tennis? A.At the age of six. B.At the age of seven. C.At the age of eight. 10.Who does the woman want to buy sports shoes for? A.Her father. B.Her husband. C.Her son. （三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。 你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。 11.Where is the woman going? A.To the bookshop. B.To the bus station. C.To the National Stadium. 12.How long will it take her to walk there? A.For about 10 minutes. B.For about 20 minutes. C.For about 30 minutes. 13.Which bus will she take? A.The No.5 bus. B.The No.15 bus. C.The No.25 bus. 请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。 14.Who taught Peter to ride a horse? A.His uncle. B.His brothers. C.His sisters. 15.When did they pick strawberries? A.After breakfast. B.After lunch. C.After dinner. 16.Where did Lisa go at the weekend? A.To the cinema. B.To the zoo. C.To the library. 请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。 17.What is Mr Smith talking about? A.His school. B.His job. C.His life. 18.When was Mr Smith born? A.In 1980. B.In 1985. C.In 1990. 19.What did Mr Smith's parents open after the fire? A.A company. B.A store. C.A restaurant. 20.What does Mr Smith do now? A.A writer. B.A manager. C.A guide. （四）听短文，选择最佳答案。 你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。 21.What will there be on Saturday evening? A.A basketball match. B.A music festival. C.A lantern show. 22.Where is Bill's mother going to have a picnic this Saturday? A.On the beach. B.In the garden. C.In the park. 23.Who is Jim going to watch a Chinese movie with? A.His friends. B.His classmates. C.His parents. 24.What is Bill going to do on Saturday afternoon? A.Take a walk. B.Play football. C.Go swimming. 25.How many people are there i Bill's family? A.Four. B.Five. C.Six. （五）听短文，填信息。 你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。 Mr King's trip to Hangzhou When Last month What he did On the first day He went to the West Lake.It was very(26) On the second day In the morning, he climbed the mountain.The mountain was not tall but it took him (27) hours. In the afternoon,he(28) lots of delicious food. On the third day He visited several(29) How he felt He had a fantastic time(30) the trip. 二、单项选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 从下列各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳进项。 1. —Wow, Alice, you play the piano so well. —_______. I began learning it at the age of five. A. I think so B. Thank you C. Sounds great 2. Mary felt very ________ after her favourite football team won the match. A. excited B. tired C. safe 3. —What foreign ________ would you like to learn? —French. A. bridge B. language C. advantage 4. —John, why is there in the classroom? —Because all the students in my class are having PE in the playground. A. somebody B. everybody C. nobody 5. —Look! nice weather it is! Let’s go for a picnic! —Good idea! A. What a B. What C. How 6. —Who is the woman _______ hair of gold? —She is my aunt. A. with B. on C. by 7. Don’t drink ______ cola. It’s not good for you. A. much too B. too many C. too much 8. —Does Helen still live in Beijing? —No, she doesn’t. She ________ to Shanghai three months ago. A. moved B. will move C. moves 9. It’s not polite of you to ________ others. A. worry about B. hear from C. shout at 10. —Lingling, ? —She was very strict. A. What did your first teacher like B. What was your first teacher like C. What did your first teacher look like 三、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 根据对话内容，从下面选项中选出恰当的句子补全对话，有一个选项是多余的。 A: May I take your order? B: Yes. ___11___ A: Yes, there are some tomatoes in it. B: OK We’d like a bowl of beef soup. A: ___12___ B: A small bowl, please. Do you have dumplings? A: ___13___ B: Well, we’d like two bowls of chicken dumplings. A: Would you like some drinks? B: No, thanks. ___14___ A: 48 yuan. B: All right. ___15___ A: Thanks a lot. A. Here is the money. B. What colour do you like? C. What size would you like? D. How much do I need to pay? E. Are there any vegetables in the beef soup? F. Yes, we have beef, chicken and carrot dumplings. 四、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面语篇，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。 Wyatt Miller liked football very much. He ___16___ to be a football player at first. But after he took a sewing (缝纫) class, he had a new ___17___. Wyatt thought sewing was so ___18___. His love for sewing didn’t end with his class. He asked his mom to buy a sewing machine for him. He used the ___19___ to alter (修改) his old clothes. He got a lot of fun from it. “When I am sewing, I go into my ___20___,” he said, “It is great.” Then he saved money and bought ___21___ sewing machine. He used the machine to make more clothes. Soon he ___22___ his own brand (自己品牌), Sparked Apparel. Now Wyatt makes clothes in his parents’ house. ___23___ he has a dream. He wants to have a big place to make more clothes. “Some people don’t understand me and ___24___ me ‘Grandma’ because I sew all the time. I just take it,” he said. “When people see my clothes, they are seeing a ___25___ person working hard to make his dream come true. They may also want to work hard for their dreams.” 16. A. needed B. wanted C. helped 17. A. idea B. question C. present 18. A. noisy B. difficult C. interesting 19. A. phone B. camera C. machine 20. A. world B. kitchen C. garden 21. A. other B. another C. others 22. A. started B. lost C. arrived 23. A. Till B. Or C. But 24. A. know B. call C. visit 25. A. bad B. rude C. young 五、阅读理解（本大题共20小题，第56—60小题，每小题1分；第61—75小题，每小题2分，共35分） A What will you do if you get 100 dollars (美元) from others? Will you keep it or use it to do a good thing? Six-year-old William from the US gave us his answer. The story started at a concert. Hundreds of people went to the concert. William also went there with his parents, Matt and Alisa. Before the concert finished, a performer (表演者) asked a child to help him perform a magic trick (魔术). William was the lucky child. He got 100 dollars! The performer asked William what he would like to do with the money. The boy said he would help feed people in need. Then his family took him to the supermarket to buy the things he needed. They also taught him how to cook. In the end, the boy made some food and gave it to the Soup Kitchen in Lawrence. He also visited the kitchen to know how many people would eat it. The boy’s story didn’t end here. William also bought food for a food pantry (分发处). The food pantry helps about 1,300 families in need every Wednesday. How kind William was! 根据语篇内容，判断下列句子正误，正确的在答题卡上将“T”涂黑，错误的在答题卡上将“F”涂黑。 26. William went to a concert with Matt and Alisa. 27 William was a seven-year-old American boy. 28. The performer asked William to perform a magic trick alone. 29. William’s family bought the things for him in the market. 30. About 1,300 families in need can get help from the food pantry every Wednesday. B Stone Castle Welcome to the Stone Castle! A great place for everyone! Opening Hours: Summer season: (April 1st—September 30th ) 9:00 a.m.—5:30 p.m. every day Winter season: (October 1st—March 31st) 10:00 a.m.—4:00 p.m. every day Prices: Adult ticket: £7 Child ticket: £3 Famity ticket: £17 (2 adults & 2 children between the age of 5 and 15) ★Buy tickets at the box office. ★You can also buy tickets on the Internet. Attention! 1.The castle will be closed on the following dates—25th & 26th of December and 1st & 2nd of January. 2.Dogs are welcome at the castle if they are kept on a leash (皮带) at all times. Tel: 985-4321 Address: Stone Bridge, Sunshine Town 根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。 31. When does the castle close on January 25th? A. At 3:30 p.m. B. At 4:00 p.m. C. At 5:30 p.m. 32. How much should two adults with three children (all between the age of 5 and 15) pay to visit the castle? A. £15. B. £17. C. £20. 33. We can take the dogs to the castle if . A. they are small B. they are lovely C. they are kept on a leash 34. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. We can only buy tickets at the box office. B. We can know the telephone number of the castle. C. The castle is open for six hours in summer season. 35. The passage may come from a magazine called . A. Travel Helper B. Healthy Living C. Animal World C Happiness is important for everyone, but few people know how to find happiness. Once a bird lived unhappily, so it traveled far away to look for happiness. It flew and flew. Suddenly it saw a spider (蜘蛛) climbing up a wall. The spider fell (跌倒) off. But it kept climbing again and fell off again. Even so the spider didn’t give up. The little bird was surprised. “Why don’t you have pain but happiness on your face though you fail (失败) again and again?” “Because I keep making my efforts,” said the spider. Then the little bird saw it: happiness is a will in the heart (心). The bird continued fling and saw a lame (跛脚的)—duck help a little duck find the way back home. Although it was disabled, it had a smiling face. “I’m happy because I can help others,” said the lame duck. So the bird saw it: happiness is a love in the heart. The bird went on flying and suddenly saw a little dying flower smiling “You’re going to die. Why are you still so happy?” The bird asked the little flower. “Because my dream will come true,” said the little flower. “What is your dream?” “To produce sweet fruit.” The little bird saw it: happiness is a hope in the heart. So the little bird no more looked for happiness because it had seen the truth: happiness is not in the faraway place but in your own heart. You are the maker of your own happiness. 根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。 36. Who never gave up though it failed again and again in this passage? A. The bird. B. The spider. C. The flower. 37. What does the underlined word “disabled” mean? A. 残疾的 B. 失望的 C. 满意的 38. What can we know from the story? A. The bird found happiness in its own heart. B. The bird found happiness in the faraway place. C. The bird didn’t know where happiness was at last. 39. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A. Happiness is important for everyone. B. Many people know how to find happiness. C. The way to happiness is to have a dream, to help others and not to give up. 40. The passage is mainly about . A. hope B. love C. happiness D Are you looking for a special place for your holiday? How about having fun in space? Lucky for you, a US company is going to build a space hotel to give you a new choice! The Orbital Assembly Company, a science company in California, will start the work in 2025, and open the hotel in 2027. It will be able to hold about 400 people. The hotel will look like London Eye, a large circle with 24 space pods (太空舱) around it. Each pod is 24 meters long and 12 meters wide. The company will plan everything for the tourists. The pods will be used for restaurants, sports hall, movie theaters and so on. There will be land for people to grow vegetables for their daily use. Besides, there are even some rooms for people to buy. But the company hasn’t decided the price for them yet. The space hotel will allow you to enjoy 1/6 of the earth's gravity (重力). When you are there, something fun can really happen, like jumping higher, carrying heavier things and playing basketball in a new way. “In the future, going to space will be another choice for holidays, just like going to Disneyland.” says the CEO of the company. “We are trying our best to build a dream place for more people to have fun.” Are you ready to try the space hotel? Let’s wait and see. 根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。 41. What may the space hotel be like? A. B. C. 42. According to the passage, what can you do in the space hotel? ①Watch movies. ②Do some sports. ③Go fishing. ④Enjoy delicious food. A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ 43. What does “them” in Paragraph 3 refer to (指代)? A. Pods. B. Vegetables. C. Rooms. 44. Which of the following is TRUE about the space hotel? A. The hotel will open in three years. B. People can buy some of the rooms. C. It is fun to live there with 1/3 of the earth’s gravity. 45. Which is the best title for the passage? A. New Choice for Holidays B. The Orbital Assembly Company C. Enjoy Sports in the Space Hotel 六、选词填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分） 根据语篇内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词并用其正确形式填空。将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上，每个单词只能用一次。 new they why together read way draw work important for From the age of three to six children usually develop (成长) from “Learning to read” to “Reading to learn”. It is ___46___ to make children be interested in reading. Here are some reading games to help them enjoy ___47___ more. Game 1: The drawing game after reading Drawing is a ___48___ to show children’s creativity (创造力). Children can draw to retell stories and to show ___49___ feelings after reading. Parents should show interest in children’s ___50___. They should listen to the children telling them ___51___ they draw like this. If parents support (支持) the children, they will like reading more. Game 2: Family theatre Children listen to stories, read them, tell them, ___52___ them and even “act (扮演)” them out. Parents can turn the living room into a theatre and make family members act as actors and have fun ___53___. Game 3: Word games When waiting ___54___ a bus, riding on a train, or having meals in a restaurant, family members can play word games. For example, parents can make ___55___ words like “fish-ball”, “gold-fish”, etc, with the word “fish” in a story. 七、书面表达（15分） 56. 假如你是李华，你是学校“阳光志愿者俱乐部（Sunshine Volunteers Club）”的一员，这周星期天上午，你打算和你的几位同学去养老院开展志愿者活动。请你根据以下提示，用英语写一篇短文，介绍你们的活动计划。 内容要点： 1.活动目的； 2.活动时间、地点、参与人员； 3.活动内容（赠送礼物；沟通交流；唱歌跳舞；……）； 4.你的期待。 写作要求： 1.短文必须包含所有的内容要点，可适当发挥，使短文连贯、通顺； 2.文中不得出现除题目以外的人名、校名和地名，否则不予评分； 3.词数80左右。短文开头已给出，不计入总词数； 4.书写规范工整，标点正确。 参考词汇：volunteer (志愿者)，old people’s home (养老院)，activity (活动) My name is Li Hua. I am a member of the Sunshine Volunteers Club of our school. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2023—2024学年度上学期八年级第一次大作业 英语 （全卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟） 注意事项： 1.试卷分为试题卷和答题卡两部分，在试题卷上作答无效。 2.答题前，请认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。 一、听力（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分） （一）听句子，选图片。 你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. （二）听短对话，选择最佳答案。 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。 6.What can't the boy find? A.His watch. B.His phone. C.His wallet. 7.How's the weather in Hangzhou now? A.Windy. B.Sunny. C.Rainy. 8.What club does David want to join? A.The art club. B.The English club. C.The dance club. 9.When did Frank start to play tennis? A.At the age of six. B.At the age of seven. C.At the age of eight. 10.Who does the woman want to buy sports shoes for? A.Her father. B.Her husband. C.Her son. （三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。 你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。 11.Where is the woman going? A.To the bookshop. B.To the bus station. C.To the National Stadium. 12.How long will it take her to walk there? A.For about 10 minutes. B.For about 20 minutes. C.For about 30 minutes. 13.Which bus will she take? A.The No.5 bus. B.The No.15 bus. C.The No.25 bus. 请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。 14.Who taught Peter to ride a horse? A.His uncle. B.His brothers. C.His sisters. 15.When did they pick strawberries? A.After breakfast. B.After lunch. C.After dinner. 16.Where did Lisa go at the weekend? A.To the cinema. B.To the zoo. C.To the library. 请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。 17.What is Mr Smith talking about? A.His school. B.His job. C.His life. 18.When was Mr Smith born? A.In 1980. B.In 1985. C.In 1990. 19.What did Mr Smith's parents open after the fire? A.A company. B.A store. C.A restaurant. 20.What does Mr Smith do now? A.A writer. B.A manager. C.A guide. （四）听短文，选择最佳答案。 你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。 21.What will there be on Saturday evening? A.A basketball match. B.A music festival. C.A lantern show. 22.Where is Bill's mother going to have a picnic this Saturday? A.On the beach. B.In the garden. C.In the park. 23.Who is Jim going to watch a Chinese movie with? A.His friends. B.His classmates. C.His parents. 24.What is Bill going to do on Saturday afternoon? A.Take a walk. B.Play football. C.Go swimming. 25.How many people are there i Bill's family? A.Four. B.Five. C.Six. （五）听短文，填信息。 你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。 Mr King's trip to Hangzhou When Last month What he did On the first day He went to the West Lake.It was very(26) On the second day In the morning, he climbed the mountain.The mountain was not tall but it took him (27) hours. In the afternoon,he(28) lots of delicious food. On the third day He visited several(29) How he felt He had a fantastic time(30) the trip. 二、单项选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 从下列各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳进项。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】A 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】B 【6题答案】 【答案】A 【7题答案】 【答案】C 【8题答案】 【答案】A 【9题答案】 【答案】C 【10题答案】 【答案】B 三、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. E 12. C 13. F 14. D 15. A 四、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面语篇，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。 【16~25题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. C 五、阅读理解（本大题共20小题，第56—60小题，每小题1分；第61—75小题，每小题2分，共35分） A 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. T 27. F 28. F 29. F 30. T B 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. B 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. A C 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. B 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. C D 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. C 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. A 六、选词填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分） 【46~55题答案】 【答案】46. important 47. reading 48. way 49. their 50 works 51. why 52. draw 53. together 54. for 55. new 七、书面表达（15分） 【56题答案】 【答案】例文 My name is Li Hua. I am a member of the Sunshine Volunteers Club of our school. This Sunday morning, my classmates and I are going to the old people’s home to carry out a volunteer activity. The purpose of this activity is to bring joy and warmth to the elderly. We will start at 9 a.m. and stay there until noon. We plan to bring some gifts for the elderly, such as fruits and flowers. We will also spend time talking with them, listening to their stories, and sharing our experiences. Additionally, we will sing and dance to entertain them. I hope this activity will make the elderly feel happy. I am looking forward to this meaningful experience. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$