内容正文:
2023-2024学年第二学期平凉市泾川一中高中期末联考
高一英语试卷
注意事项:
1.本试卷满分150分,考试时间为120分钟。
2.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号码写在答题卡相应的位置上。
3.所有答案必须在答题卡上作答。
第I卷
第一部分 听力(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What will the man do after work?
A. Have fun with friends. B. Learn a language. C. Watch a movie.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What can we know from the conversation?
A. The electric fan doesn’t work.
B. The air-conditioner is turned on.
C. It’s particularly hot.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Where does the conversation take place probably?
A. In a restaurant. B. In a park. C. In the street.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What does the man ask the woman to do?
A. Spell a word. B. Go to the south. C. Repeat the name of the city.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. A fantastic photo. B. A new furniture store. C. The man’s home.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后, 各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. How long has the man moved here?
A. For 1 month. B. For 2 years. C. For 7 years.
7. Who is the woman?
A. A doctor. B. A teacher. C. A policewoman.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. Where is Leo from?
A. Brazil. B. America. C. Canada.
9. Why did Leo come here?
A. To travel. B. To study. C. To visit his parents.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
10. Who is answering the phone?
A. Ian. B. Ian’s uncle. C. Ian’s father.
11. What time will Amy leave for the airport?
A. 10:00 a.m. B. 1:30 p.m. C. 4:30 p.m.
12. What day is it today?
A. Thursday. B. Friday. C. Saturday.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
13. How many good friends does Mike have?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
14. Whose birthday did Mike forget?
A. Helen’s. B. Laura’s. C. Jamie`s.
15. What does Laura think is Mike’s answer to Question3?
A. Never. B. Once or twice. C. Quite often.
16. What’s the relationship between the speakers?
A Brother and sister. B. Teacher and student. C. Friends.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
17. What does Dr. Baker say in Tip two?
A. Don’t do homework before bedtime.
B. Only do easier homework before bedtime.
C. Don’t get tired before bedtime.
18. What does Dr. Baker ask to turn off?
A. Music, phone, TV and computer. B. Phone, TV and computer. C. Phone and TV.
19. Why does Dr. Baker disagree with video games before bedtime?
A. It’s exciting. B. It’s time-wasting. C. It’s noisy.
20. What’s Dr. Baker’s advice on the phone?
A. Turn it down. B. Put it beside the bed. C. Leave it out of bedroom.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Discover exciting optional courses at our school and join us to explore your interests and develop new skills!
Podcasting 101
Dive into the active world of podcasting (播客) and improve your speaking and technical skills. This course offers hands-on training in making interesting videos on topics of your choice. A perfect stage to express yourself and learn the ropes of digital storytelling.
·Schedule: Fridays, 4:30 PM — 5:15 PM
·Requirements: Please bring a USB stick
Easy Carpentry
Release your creativity and manual skills with our Easy Carpentry (木工) workshop. Learn the basics of carpentry, including the safe use of tools, as you create functional and decorative items like tables, birdhouses and musical boxes.
·Schedule: Mondays, 3:30 PM — 4:30 PM
·Requirements: Safety glasses required
Show Choir
Explore the art of singing performance and dance routines in our Show Choir program Take part in singing and dancing to a variety of lively songs. Work together with other members to stage an impressive end-of-term performance. This program is a fantastic opportunity to make new friends.
·Schedule: Thursdays, 1:00 PM — 1:45 PM
·Requirements: No items necessary
Yoga and You
Start a journey of self-discovery and relaxation with our Yoga and You class. Practice standing and balancing like trees and mountains to become more flexible and feel happier. Yoga promotes better sleep and a healthier figure.
·Schedule: Wednesdays, 4:00 PM — 5:00 PM
·Requirements: Please bring a towel and a yoga mat
21. What skill will students develop in Podcasting 101?
A. Performing first aid. B. Giving speeches on stage.
C. Creating short films. D. Debating on heated topics.
22. When can a student learn to make a hand-made decoration?
A. Fridays, 4:30 PM—5:15 PM. B. Mondays, 3:30 PM—4:30 PM.
C. Thursdays, 1:00 PM—1:45 PM. D. Wednesdays, 4:00 PM—5:00 PM.
23. Which course suits those who enjoy both physical activity and teamwork?
A. Podcasting 101. B. Easy Carpentry.
C. Show Choir. D. Yoga and You.
B
Anne of Green Gables is ideally meant for children — one might think so when seeing the cover or reading through the back page of the masterpiece. It was first published in the year 1904, authored by Lucy Maud Montgomery, but it still connects to today’s world where we forget to live in the present.
It tells of the adventures of Anne Shirley, an 11-year-old orphan (孤儿)girl who is mistakenly sent to Matthew and Marilla Cuthbert, a middle-aged brother and sister who had intended to adopt a boy to help them on their farm in the fictional town of Avonlea. The novel describes how Anne makes her way with the Cuthberts, in school, and within the town.
The book teaches me a lot of things, the most important being — to be who you are. Why do we need to pretend to be somebody else and project a false image of ourselves to look better? We need to realize that we are all different in our own way and accept ourselves first. As is described in the book, Anne is a colorful and ever-growing character. She “has as many shades as a rainbow and every shade is the prettiest while it lasts.” Each aspect of her personality is beautiful, which makes her unique and interesting.
Another important concept that is illustrated remarkably well is the importance of taking joy in the world around us. Anne’s obvious wonder-struck appreciation of life made me truly appreciate the small things. Here is my favourite quote (引言) from Chapter 19:
I believe the nicest and sweetest days are not those on which anything very splendid or wonderful or exciting happens but just those that bring simple little pleasures, following one another softly, like pearls slipping off a string.
Anne’s influence has deeply shaped who I am today. This classic novel truly highlights the importance of self-love and gratitude. With its uplifting and refreshing story, it is a wonderful read for people of all ages seeking a joyful and enriching literary journey.
24. What do we know about Anne of Green Gables?
A. It is a recent release. B. It covers real events.
C. It is a timeless classic. D. It features world history.
25. What can we learn about Anne from paragraph 3?
A. She is true to herself. B. She achieves her goal.
C She is talented in drawing. D. She cares about others.
26. Which of the following best matches the quote from Chapter 19?
A. Time waits for no man. B. Do one thing at a time.
C. Fortune favours the brave. D. Stop and smell the roses.
27. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To tell a story. B. To remember a writer.
C. To teach a lesson. D. To recommend a book.
C
Sending human travelers to Mars would require scientists and engineers to overcome a range of technological and safety obstacles. One of them is the serious risk posed by particle radiation (辐射) from the sun, distant stars and galaxies (星系).
Answering two key questions would go a long way toward overcoming that difficulty: Would particle radiation pose too serious a threat to human life throughout a round trip to the red planet? And, could the very timing of a mission to Mars help shield astronauts and the spacecraft from the radiation?
In a new article published in the journal Space Weather, an international team of space scientists, including researchers from UCLA, answers those two questions with a “no” and a “yes.” That is, humans should be able to safely travel to and from Mars, only if the spacecraft has enough protection and the round trip is shorter than approximately four years. And the timing of a human mission to Mars would indeed make a difference: The scientists determined that the best time for a flight to leave Earth would be when solar activity is at its peak (高峰期), because, during this period, the most dangerous and energetic particles from distant galaxies are deflected (偏转) by the enhanced solar activity.
A trip of that length would be imaginable. The average flight to Mars takes about nine months, so depending on the timing of launch and available fuel, it is reasonable that a human mission could reach the planet and return to Earth in less than two years, according to Yuri Shprits, a UCLA research geophysicist and co–author of the paper.
“This study shows that while space radiation impose (强加) strict limitations on how heavy the spacecraft can be and the time of launch, and it presents technological difficulties for human missions to Mars, such a mission is possible,” said Shprits, who also is head of space physics and space weather at GFZ Research Centre for Geosciences in Potsdam, Germany.
28. What’s the function of the first paragraph?
A. To list human’s achievements in space.
B. To show a possible way to travel to Mars.
C. To introduce scientists’ effort to travel to Mars.
D. To present one of the difficulties of the trip to Mars.
29. What does the underlined word “shield” in paragraph 2 mean?
A. Escape. B. Approach. C. Protect. D. Separate.
30. What is the longest duration (持续时间) of a round trip to Mars for the safety of humans?
A. About 9 months. B. Less than 4 years. C. Less than two years. D. One year.
31. What can be the best title for the text?
A. Will It Be Safe for Humans to Fly to Mars?
B. Humans Will Travel to Mars in the Near Future.
C. The Timing of a Trip to Mars Is Planned.
D. Particle Radiation Changes for the Solar Activity.
D
Unless you’ve been faithfully bringing reusable shopping bags to the store, you probably grab the plastic bags waiting for customers at the checkout. You’re not alone.
About 100 billion plastic bags are used in the U. S. each year. Unfortunately, single-use plastic bags have serious consequences once our trip to the store is over. Less than 10% of plastic bags used in the U. S. are recycled, leaving the rest to end up in landfills (垃圾填埋场), and polluting soil, oceans and other natural habitats.
To fight pollution and other environmental problems, major companies are taking steps to get rid of the use of plastic shopping bags. If you’re a frequent customer at Walmart, don’t be surprised if you notice the plastic bags disappearing over the next few months. Last summer, Walmart announced its goal to be a zero-waste company — meaning no more plastic bags.
But Walmart has announced its Beyond the Bag, an initiative (倡议) working to explore reusable options and “reimagine” the plastic bag. Target and CVS are also on board as founding partners of Beyond the Bag, and so far, the three brands have invested $15 million to come up with a brand-new bag design.
The initiative also started the Beyond the Bag challenge, giving innovators (创新者) a chance to share their ideas. The challenge ran throughout the summer of 2020, and nine winners from over 450 submissions were selected. From a station supplying reusable bag in-store to a new and improved paper bag, the winning designs cover a lot of bases. Each product now has the chance to be tested with funding from the initiative.
While a final replacement for plastic bags at Walmart has yet to be decided, there’s a more sustainable future on the horizon. And if you want to start reducing your use of plastic bags right now, check out our list of reusable bags to bring on your next shopping trip.
32. What does the author mean by saying “You’re not alone” in the first paragraph?
A. Reusable shopping bags are becoming more popular.
B. Customers need to wait for long at the checkout.
C. Some people are waiting in the line with you.
D. Many people use plastic bags when shopping.
33. What does the author want to tell us in Paragraph 2?
A. Single-use plastic bags cause severe environmental problems.
B. Supermarkets should stop providing single-use plastic bags.
C. Single-use plastic bags should be more widely recycled.
D. More landfills should be built to deal with plastic bags.
34. Why does Walmart want to start Beyond the Bag?
A. To attract more customers. B. To provide more plastic bags.
C. To set a good example to Target and CVS. D. To make shopping more environmentally friendly.
35. What is the main idea of the text?
A. People pay more attention to environmental protection.
B. Walmart is getting rid of single-use plastic bags.
C. Reusable paper bags are becoming more popular.
D. Free plastic bags have become a thing of the past.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Walking has been considered as one of the best possible exercises. For many people, daily walking offers many and long-term physical and mental benefits. ___36___ A Stanford University study found that participants were more creative when walking as opposed to sitting.____37____You’ve probably heard the phrase “exercise your innovation (创新)”. Our creative mindset is caused by physical movement, which is exactly why walking with your dog, a friend, or alone feeds creative thinking.
But the scenery is almost as important as the sweat. Just by going outside, you are stepping out of your habitual surroundings and your comfort zone, which is necessary if you want to open your mind to new possibilities. You can walk through a tree-filled neighborhood. ___38___
Walking outside develops our ability to collect new ideas and take in new sights, sounds, smells, and flavors. Shinrin-yoku, a common form of relaxation in Japan, suggests that being in the forest and walking among the trees there can lower your stress levels___39___ Research has shown that immersion (沉浸) in nature around your neighborhood or the disconnection from multimedia increased performance on a creative problem-solving task.
So instead of setting a fitness goal, why not set a creativity goal that starts with walking outdoors? ___40___ For example, you can turn off your phone and give yourself the chance to be present in the world, to hear conversations and natural sounds, and to notice the way people move and the way the sun reflects in a lake.
Walk not just for exercise. Walk for wonder.
A. Unfortunately, you often fail to do it.
B. Engage more closely with your surroundings.
C. The movement aspect of walking is obviously key
D. Without enough energy, you cannot wonder or create.
E. But to receive the benefits, you do not have to live in a forest.
F. This habit, however, isn’t just improving your health but an element of creativity.
G. You can also wander around a park and observe people relaxing or birds singing.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分 15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Afraid to have a start, I was walking slowly into my first school in America. I had ___41___ a long way from India in order to join my parents. My father decided that I would go to school here, so I ___42___ a local high school in my new town.
With ___43___ and fear, I arrived at the classroom. Everyone’s eyes were on me as I entered the classroom. I went straight to the ___44___ and asked him if it was the right class. With a ___45___ voice, he answered, “Yes.” His voice comforted me a little. Then he asked me to ___46___ where I would sit. I selected the ___47___ closest to the door instead of the corner where all of the boys were sitting. I spent the rest of the class taking notes from the ___48___ produced by the overhead projector (投影仪).
___49___ it was my first day, I was confused about which hallway to use, but I ___50___ to get to my classroom without asking anyone. I wasn’t quite sure when I would have ___51___. It was noon when I went to my next class and the bell rang as I entered. I went through the ___52___ process of asking the teacher if I was in the right class. Feeling surprised, she said, “That is the lunch bell.” I felt a little ___53___. Without another word, I headed for the cafeteria.
I realized that all the confusion on my first day was like the difficulty I had to ___54___ to reach my goal. When I got on my bus and sat down inside ___55___, I said to myself, “Today isn’t so bad.”
41. A. traveled B. lived C. felt D. suffered
42. A. explored B. found C. entered D. built
43. A. anger B. anxiety C. doubt D. sadness
44. A. foreigner B. teacher C. worker D. partner
45. A. deep B. familiar C. strict D. soft
46. A. find B. see C. choose D. discuss
47. A. area B. direction C. seat D. goal
48. A. movies B. pictures C. voices D. stories
49. A. Since B. If C. Though D. Before
50. A. feared B. refused C. hesitated D. managed
51. A. gifts B. chances C. fun D. lunch
52. A. interesting B. unexpected C. same D. easy
53. A. funny B. excited C. lonely D. awkward
54. A. put away B. get through C. build up D. show off
55. A. suddenly B. happily C. curiously D. actually
第II卷
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The giant panda is unique to China. ___56___ (cover) the areas of Sichuan, Shaanxi, and Gansu Provinces, Giant Panda National Park protects the pandas’ natural living space. This giant national park ___57___ (include) sixty seven panda reserves (保护区), which are home ___58___ about 1,340 wild giant pandas as well as many other endangered animals, such as Sichuan golden monkeys and snow leopards.
Among the panda reserves in the national park. we ___59___ (high) recommend Wolong Nature Reserve and Ya’an Bifengxia Giant Panda Protection and Research Centre, because of ___60___ (they) large numbers of pandas, beautiful natural environment, ___61___ being easy to reach from Chengdu. Right now, there are more than 100 pandas in the Wolong base and more than 60 at Bifengxia. Wolong Nature Reserve is the only place ___62___ you can see pandas at night.
Giant panda volunteer programs in the panda bases give you ___63___ unique experience with pandas and you will have a chance ___64___ (make) special cakes for them, etc. Contact us for details about these panda programs.
Giant Panda National Park is ___65___ (suit) for animal lovers, especially panda lovers, You can visit it all year round. Wolong is about a 2-hour drive from Chengdu; Bifengxia is about a 3-hour drive from Chengdu.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假设你是李华。你的英国朋友Jim在给你的邮件中提到他对中国历史很感兴趣,并请你介绍一位你喜欢的中国历史人物。请你给Jim回信,内容包括:
1、该人物是谁;
2、该人物的主要贡献;
3、该人物对你的影响。
注意: 1 词数不少于100;
2. 开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Jim,
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
Yours
Lihua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
No one is born a winner. People make themselves into winners by their own efforts. I learned this lesson from an experience many years ago. I took the head coaching job at a school in Baxley, Georgia. It was a small school with a weak football program. The school took part in the league matches every year. However, it never ended well. We were more of the audience, watching and cheering instead of sweating out in the fields.
Fortunately, the school held the tradition that the school’s old team was to play against the new team at the end of spring practice. For lack of resources, the old team bad no coach, and they didn’t even practice to prepare for the game.
I was assigned (指派) as the coach of the new team, which was why I was excited. I believed that we were going to win, but to my disappointment, we were defeated. I couldn’t believe I had got into such a situation. Thinking hard about it, I tried to figure out the reason and what I should do next.
It didn’t take long before I came to realize that my team was depending on me. Without proper guidance or previous experience, my team was at a loss what to do. I had to change my attitude so that I could bring out the best in them about their ability and potential.
I would let my action do the talking. First, I started doing anything I could to help them build a little pride. I could see their spirits lifted, with their head held high in great confidence. Most importantly, I began to treat them like winners. Only when they regarded themselves as winners could they willingly invest time and energy.
This summer, the other teams enjoyed their vacations.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Six months later, football season started.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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2023-2024学年第二学期平凉市泾川一中高中期末联考
高一英语试卷
注意事项:
1.本试卷满分150分,考试时间为120分钟。
2.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号码写在答题卡相应的位置上。
3.所有答案必须在答题卡上作答。
第I卷
第一部分 听力(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What will the man do after work?
A. Have fun with friends. B. Learn a language. C. Watch a movie.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】W: I am catching a movie with my friends after work. We are going to watch the latest one, The Jungle Book.
M: I really envy you. I have to practice speaking Spanish.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What can we know from the conversation?
A. The electric fan doesn’t work.
B. The air-conditioner is turned on.
C. It’s particularly hot.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】M: Oh, the heat is unbearable. Didn’t you turn on the air conditioner?
W: No, we’ve got to have it fixed as soon as possible. You can use the electric fan here.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Where does the conversation take place probably?
A. In a restaurant. B. In a park. C. In the street.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】M: I’m really hungry. Can you recommend a good place to get lunch?
W: There are many restaurants inside the park where you can enjoy a wide variety of dishes.
M: Thanks. Where is the park?
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What does the man ask the woman to do?
A. Spell a word. B. Go to the south. C. Repeat the name of the city.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】W: I’m from Waterloo. It’s a city far to the south.
M: I’ve never heard of that place. Could you spell Waterloo for me?
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. A fantastic photo. B. A new furniture store. C. The man’s home.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】W: How’s your new place? Are you done with the decoration?
M: Yes, it’s fantastic. The walls have been painted and there’s tons of new furniture.
W: I can’t wait to see what you’ve done.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后, 各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. How long has the man moved here?
A. For 1 month. B. For 2 years. C. For 7 years.
7. Who is the woman?
A. A doctor. B. A teacher. C. A policewoman.
【答案】6. A 7. B
【解析】
【原文】W: Did you just move here?
M: Yes, I moved in about a month ago.
W: How many kids do you have?
M: I only have one child.
W: How old is your child?
M: She just turned seven.
W: So, she’ll be in the second grade right now.
M: Yeah, she’s a second grader.
W: I do have a class that I can place her in, but we need to know about her health condition first.
M: That’s wonderful. Thank you.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. Where is Leo from?
A. Brazil. B. America. C. Canada.
9. Why did Leo come here?
A. To travel. B. To study. C. To visit his parents.
【答案】8. A 9. B
【解析】
【原文】W: So, Leo, where are you from? Canada?
M: No, I’m originally from Rio, Brazil. I was born there, but I moved to the US about three years ago. My parents came too.
W: So, you grew up in Rio?
M: That’s right. I came here for college.
W: What are you studying?
M: Math.
W: What did your parents do in Brazil?
M: Well, my father was a math professor, but he’s retired now. He likes travel. My mom is still teaching at my university here.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
10. Who is answering the phone?
A. Ian. B. Ian’s uncle. C. Ian’s father.
11. What time will Amy leave for the airport?
A. 10:00 a.m. B. 1:30 p.m. C. 4:30 p.m.
12. What day is it today?
A. Thursday. B. Friday. C. Saturday.
【答案】10. C 11. B 12. A
【解析】
【原文】W: Hello, could I speak to Ian please?
M: He went to visit his uncle and he won’t be back until very late. I’m his father. Could you call again around ten?
W: That’s a bit late for me, I’m afraid. Could I leave a message?
M: Yes, of course. Okay, and what’s the message?
W: My name is Amy. I was wondering if Ian could give me a ride to the airport on Saturday. My plane leaves at four thirty, so I’d need him to pick me up at around one thirty. He said the other day that he might be able to, but I have to find out for sure. Could you ask him to let me know some time on Friday? I mean tomorrow.
M: OK, I’ll make sure he gets the message.
W: Thanks a lot.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
13. How many good friends does Mike have?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
14. Whose birthday did Mike forget?
A. Helen’s. B. Laura’s. C. Jamie`s.
15. What does Laura think is Mike’s answer to Question3?
A. Never. B. Once or twice. C. Quite often.
16. What’s the relationship between the speakers?
A. Brother and sister. B. Teacher and student. C. Friends.
【答案】13 B 14. B 15. A 16. C
【解析】
【原文】W: You have to look at this survey. The title is “Are you a good friend?” Are you brave enough to try, Mike?
M: Hmm, I have to pick up my sister in a minute. How many questions are there, Laura?
W: Only three. No 1. How many friends do you prefer to have? A. One or two. B. Three to five. C. As many as possible.
M: I would say I have four good friends. Next?
W: Right. No 2, when was the last time you forgot a friend’s birthday? A. I never have. B. Once, many years ago. C. I do it quite often.
M: Definitely first answer for me.
W: Oh, you liar, you forgot mine and that was only six months ago.
M: Emm, I forgot about that, but I didn’t forget Jamie’s.
W: No 3. Have you ever called a friend of yours at three o’clock in the morning just to chat? And the choices are “never”, “once or twice” and “quite often”. And the first one is definitely the one you should pick, sleepy head.
M: No way. I’ve spoken to Helen till the early hours on many occasions. Last year, when she had all those problems at college, it was me talking to her every night for a week.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
17. What does Dr. Baker say in Tip two?
A. Don’t do homework before bedtime.
B. Only do easier homework before bedtime.
C. Don’t get tired before bedtime.
18. What does Dr. Baker ask to turn off?
A. Music, phone, TV and computer. B. Phone, TV and computer. C. Phone and TV.
19. Why does Dr. Baker disagree with video games before bedtime?
A. It’s exciting. B. It’s time-wasting. C. It’s noisy.
20. What’s Dr. Baker’s advice on the phone?
A. Turn it down. B. Put it beside the bed. C. Leave it out of bedroom.
【答案】17. B 18. C 19. A 20. C
【解析】
【原文】W: At exam time it is important to sleep well. Today we have doctor Baker with us in the studio and he is going to give us five top tips for getting a good night’s sleep. Welcome to the show, doctor Baker.
M: Thank you. It’s great to be here. Let’s start with tip one, don’t go to bed with the television on. Some people think they can sleep well with the TV on, but the noise and lights mean you don’t really sleep well. So, turn it off. Tip two, don’t think too much before bedtime. Do your hardest homework earlier in the evening. Do easier homework later. If your brain is too busy and full of ideas, it takes longer to get to sleep. Tip three, don’t play video games an hour before you go to sleep. You may get excited. They can make your brain too busy and active. Tip four, turn off your cell phone when you go to bed. What is so important that it can’t wait until the morning? If possible, leave your phone in another room. Tip five, play music if you like, but don’t play it too loud. Turn the sound down low.
W: Thank you for the useful advice for our young listeners, doctor.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Discover exciting optional courses at our school and join us to explore your interests and develop new skills!
Podcasting 101
Dive into the active world of podcasting (播客) and improve your speaking and technical skills. This course offers hands-on training in making interesting videos on topics of your choice. A perfect stage to express yourself and learn the ropes of digital storytelling.
·Schedule: Fridays, 4:30 PM — 5:15 PM
·Requirements: Please bring a USB stick
Easy Carpentry
Release your creativity and manual skills with our Easy Carpentry (木工) workshop. Learn the basics of carpentry, including the safe use of tools, as you create functional and decorative items like tables, birdhouses and musical boxes.
·Schedule: Mondays, 3:30 PM — 4:30 PM
·Requirements: Safety glasses required
Show Choir
Explore the art of singing performance and dance routines in our Show Choir program. Take part in singing and dancing to a variety of lively songs. Work together with other members to stage an impressive end-of-term performance. This program is a fantastic opportunity to make new friends.
·Schedule: Thursdays, 1:00 PM — 1:45 PM
·Requirements: No items necessary
Yoga and You
Start a journey of self-discovery and relaxation with our Yoga and You class. Practice standing and balancing like trees and mountains to become more flexible and feel happier. Yoga promotes better sleep and a healthier figure.
·Schedule: Wednesdays, 4:00 PM — 5:00 PM
·Requirements: Please bring a towel and a yoga mat
21. What skill will students develop in Podcasting 101?
A. Performing first aid. B. Giving speeches on stage.
C. Creating short films. D. Debating on heated topics.
22. When can a student learn to make a hand-made decoration?
A. Fridays, 4:30 PM—5:15 PM. B. Mondays, 3:30 PM—4:30 PM.
C. Thursdays, 1:00 PM—1:45 PM. D. Wednesdays, 4:00 PM—5:00 PM.
23. Which course suits those who enjoy both physical activity and teamwork?
A. Podcasting 101. B. Easy Carpentry.
C. Show Choir. D. Yoga and You.
【答案】21. C 22. B 23. C
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了四门令人兴奋的选修课程,包括其课程内容、上课时间和要求等信息。
【21题详解】
细节理解题。根据Podcasting 101中“This course offers hands-on training in making interesting videos on topics of your choice. (本课程提供实践培训,让你根据自己选择的主题制作有趣的视频)”可知,在播客课中,学生将培养创作短片的技能。故选C项。
【22题详解】
细节理解题。根据Easy Carpentry中“Learn the basics of carpentry, including the safe use of tools, as you create functional and decorative items like tables, birdhouses and musical boxes. (在你创造一些功能性和装饰性的物品,如桌子、鸟舍和音乐盒时,学习木工的基础知识,包括工具的安全使用)”和“Schedule: Mondays, 3:30 PM—4:30 PM (时间安排:周一下午3:30至4:30)”可知,在木工课中,学生可以学习制作手工装饰,上课时间为周一下午3:30至4:30。故选B项。
【23题详解】
细节理解题。根据Show Choir中“Take part in singing and dancing to a variety of lively songs. Work together with other members to stage an impressive end-of-term performance. (配合各种活泼的歌曲,参与歌舞表演。与其他成员合作,上演令人印象深刻的期末表演)”可知,在艺术表演团课中,学生需要表演歌舞,和其他成员合作,因此它适合那些既喜欢体育活动又喜欢团队合作的人。故选C项。
B
Anne of Green Gables is ideally meant for children — one might think so when seeing the cover or reading through the back page of the masterpiece. It was first published in the year 1904, authored by Lucy Maud Montgomery, but it still connects to today’s world where we forget to live in the present.
It tells of the adventures of Anne Shirley, an 11-year-old orphan (孤儿)girl who is mistakenly sent to Matthew and Marilla Cuthbert, a middle-aged brother and sister who had intended to adopt a boy to help them on their farm in the fictional town of Avonlea. The novel describes how Anne makes her way with the Cuthberts, in school, and within the town.
The book teaches me a lot of things, the most important being — to be who you are. Why do we need to pretend to be somebody else and project a false image of ourselves to look better? We need to realize that we are all different in our own way and accept ourselves first. As is described in the book, Anne is a colorful and ever-growing character. She “has as many shades as a rainbow and every shade is the prettiest while it lasts.” Each aspect of her personality is beautiful, which makes her unique and interesting.
Another important concept that is illustrated remarkably well is the importance of taking joy in the world around us. Anne’s obvious wonder-struck appreciation of life made me truly appreciate the small things. Here is my favourite quote (引言) from Chapter 19:
I believe the nicest and sweetest days are not those on which anything very splendid or wonderful or exciting happens but just those that bring simple little pleasures, following one another softly, like pearls slipping off a string.
Anne’s influence has deeply shaped who I am today. This classic novel truly highlights the importance of self-love and gratitude. With its uplifting and refreshing story, it is a wonderful read for people of all ages seeking a joyful and enriching literary journey.
24. What do we know about Anne of Green Gables?
A. It is a recent release. B. It covers real events.
C. It is a timeless classic. D. It features world history.
25. What can we learn about Anne from paragraph 3?
A. She is true to herself. B. She achieves her goal.
C. She is talented in drawing. D. She cares about others.
26. Which of the following best matches the quote from Chapter 19?
A. Time waits for no man. B. Do one thing at a time.
C. Fortune favours the brave. D. Stop and smell the roses.
27. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To tell a story. B. To remember a writer.
C. To teach a lesson. D. To recommend a book.
【答案】24. C 25. A 26. D 27. D
【解析】
【导语】这是一篇说明文。作者向读者介绍了《绿山墙的安妮》这一本小说。介绍了安妮的成长,处事态度,感恩精神,以及这本书对作者的影响。
【24题详解】
推理判断题。文章第一段讲到“Anne of Green Gables is ideally meant for children — one might think so when seeing the cover or reading through the back page of the masterpiece. It was first published in the year 1904, authored by Lucy Maud Montgomery, but it still connects to today’s world where we forget to live in the present. (《绿山墙的安妮》是儿童的理想之作——当人们看到封面或翻阅这部杰作的封底时,可能会这么认为。它于1904年首次出版,作者是露西·莫德·蒙哥马利,但它仍然与我们忘记生活在当下的当今世界联系在一起。)”可知,《绿山墙的安妮》是一部永恒的经典之作。故选C。
【25题详解】
推理判断题。文章第三段讲到“The book teaches me a lot of things, the most important being — to be who you are. Why do we need to pretend to be somebody else and project a false image of ourselves to look better? We need to realize that we are all different in our own way and accept ourselves first. (这本书教会了我很多东西,最重要的是——做你自己。为什么我们需要假装成别人,给自己树立一个虚假的形象,让自己看起来更好?我们需要意识到,我们在自己的方式上都是不同的,并首先接受自己。)”可知,第一句是本段的主旨句,告诉我们本段主旨是:做你自己。下文用安妮的例子来证明这一观点。从第三段我们可以了解到安妮忠于自己。故选A。
【26题详解】
推理判断题。文章倒数第二段讲到“I believe the nicest and sweetest days are not those on which anything very splendid or wonderful or exciting happens but just those that bring simple little pleasures (我相信,最美好、最甜蜜的日子并不是那些发生了任何精彩、美妙或激动人心的事情的日子,而是那些带来简单小快乐的日子)”可知,生活中的点滴小事情就是最美好、最甜蜜的日子,因此最符合第19章的引文的是:停下来闻一闻玫瑰花。故选D。
【27题详解】
推理判断题。文章最后一段讲到“With its uplifting and refreshing story, it is a wonderful read for people of all ages seeking a joyful and enriching literary journey. (它以其振奋人心、令人耳目一新的故事,为寻求一段快乐而丰富的文学之旅的各个年龄段的人们提供了一本精彩的读物。)”可知,作者写这篇文章的目的是推荐一本书。故选D。
C
Sending human travelers to Mars would require scientists and engineers to overcome a range of technological and safety obstacles. One of them is the serious risk posed by particle radiation (辐射) from the sun, distant stars and galaxies (星系).
Answering two key questions would go a long way toward overcoming that difficulty: Would particle radiation pose too serious a threat to human life throughout a round trip to the red planet? And, could the very timing of a mission to Mars help shield astronauts and the spacecraft from the radiation?
In a new article published in the journal Space Weather, an international team of space scientists, including researchers from UCLA, answers those two questions with a “no” and a “yes.” That is, humans should be able to safely travel to and from Mars, only if the spacecraft has enough protection and the round trip is shorter than approximately four years. And the timing of a human mission to Mars would indeed make a difference: The scientists determined that the best time for a flight to leave Earth would be when solar activity is at its peak (高峰期), because, during this period, the most dangerous and energetic particles from distant galaxies are deflected (偏转) by the enhanced solar activity.
A trip of that length would be imaginable. The average flight to Mars takes about nine months, so depending on the timing of launch and available fuel, it is reasonable that a human mission could reach the planet and return to Earth in less than two years, according to Yuri Shprits, a UCLA research geophysicist and co–author of the paper.
“This study shows that while space radiation impose (强加) strict limitations on how heavy the spacecraft can be and the time of launch, and it presents technological difficulties for human missions to Mars, such a mission is possible,” said Shprits, who also is head of space physics and space weather at GFZ Research Centre for Geosciences in Potsdam, Germany.
28. What’s the function of the first paragraph?
A. To list human’s achievements in space.
B. To show a possible way to travel to Mars.
C. To introduce scientists’ effort to travel to Mars.
D. To present one of the difficulties of the trip to Mars.
29. What does the underlined word “shield” in paragraph 2 mean?
A. Escape. B. Approach. C. Protect. D. Separate.
30. What is the longest duration (持续时间) of a round trip to Mars for the safety of humans?
A. About 9 months. B. Less than 4 years. C. Less than two years. D. One year.
31. What can be the best title for the text?
A. Will It Be Safe for Humans to Fly to Mars?
B. Humans Will Travel to Mars in the Near Future.
C. The Timing of a Trip to Mars Is Planned.
D. Particle Radiation Changes for the Solar Activity.
【答案】28. D 29. C 30. B 31. A
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文,主要讲的是前往火星的旅程中,人类将会受到太空中的粒子辐射的影响。科学家认为,恰当的启程时间和合理的旅行周期将能确保宇航员的安全。
【28题详解】
推理判断题。根据第一段的“One of them is the serious risk posed by particle radiation(辐射) from the sun, distant stars and galaxies (星系).(其中之一是来自太阳、遥远恒星和星系的粒子辐射带来的严重风险)”和第二段的“Answering two key questions would go a long way toward overcoming that difficulty(回答两个关键问题将对克服这一困难大有帮助)”可推知,第一段的作用是介绍人类前往火星需要克服的一个难题。故选D项。
【29题详解】
词句猜测题。根据划线词后的“from the radiation(从辐射)”可知,此处作者提出疑问:前往火星的恰当时机能否保护宇航员和宇宙飞船免受辐射的伤害。由此可知,shield意为“保护;保卫”,与protect意思相近。故选C项。
【30题详解】
细节理解题。根据第三段的“That is, humans should be able to safely travel to and from Mars, only if the spacecraft has enough protection and the round trip is shorter than approximately four years.(也就是说,人类应该能够安全地往返火星,前提是宇宙飞船有足够的屏蔽,往返时间不超过大约4年)”可知,人类安全地往返火星是可行的,前提是宇宙飞船有足够的保护,而且往返时间少于四年。故选B项。
【31题详解】
主旨大意题。通读全文,尤其是第二段“Answering two key questions would go a long way toward overcoming that difficulty: Would particle radiation pose too serious a threat to human life throughout a round trip to the red planet? And, could the very timing of a mission to Mars help shield astronauts and the spacecraft from the radiation?(回答两个关键问题将对克服这一困难大有帮助:粒子辐射是否会在往返火星的过程中对人类生命构成太严重的威胁?而且,前往火星的时间是否能够帮助宇航员和宇宙飞船免受辐射的伤害?)”和第三段的“That is, humans should be able to safely travel to and from Mars, only if the spacecraft has enough protection and the round trip is shorter than approximately four years.(也就是说,人类应该能够安全地往返火星,前提是宇宙飞船有足够的屏蔽,往返时间不超过大约4年)”可知,本文主要讲的是人类前往火星将会受到太空中的粒子辐射的影响。科学家认为合适的启程时间和合理的旅行周期将能确保宇航员的安全,故A项“Will It Be Safe for Humans to Fly to Mars?(人类飞往火星会是安全的吗?)”可作本文标题,故选A项。
D
Unless you’ve been faithfully bringing reusable shopping bags to the store, you probably grab the plastic bags waiting for customers at the checkout. You’re not alone.
About 100 billion plastic bags are used in the U. S. each year. Unfortunately, single-use plastic bags have serious consequences once our trip to the store is over. Less than 10% of plastic bags used in the U. S. are recycled, leaving the rest to end up in landfills (垃圾填埋场), and polluting soil, oceans and other natural habitats.
To fight pollution and other environmental problems, major companies are taking steps to get rid of the use of plastic shopping bags. If you’re a frequent customer at Walmart, don’t be surprised if you notice the plastic bags disappearing over the next few months. Last summer, Walmart announced its goal to be a zero-waste company — meaning no more plastic bags.
But Walmart has announced its Beyond the Bag, an initiative (倡议) working to explore reusable options and “reimagine” the plastic bag. Target and CVS are also on board as founding partners of Beyond the Bag, and so far, the three brands have invested $15 million to come up with a brand-new bag design.
The initiative also started the Beyond the Bag challenge, giving innovators (创新者) a chance to share their ideas. The challenge ran throughout the summer of 2020, and nine winners from over 450 submissions were selected. From a station supplying reusable bag in-store to a new and improved paper bag, the winning designs cover a lot of bases. Each product now has the chance to be tested with funding from the initiative.
While a final replacement for plastic bags at Walmart has yet to be decided, there’s a more sustainable future on the horizon. And if you want to start reducing your use of plastic bags right now, check out our list of reusable bags to bring on your next shopping trip.
32. What does the author mean by saying “You’re not alone” in the first paragraph?
A. Reusable shopping bags are becoming more popular.
B. Customers need to wait for long at the checkout.
C. Some people are waiting in the line with you.
D. Many people use plastic bags when shopping.
33. What does the author want to tell us in Paragraph 2?
A. Single-use plastic bags cause severe environmental problems.
B. Supermarkets should stop providing single-use plastic bags.
C. Single-use plastic bags should be more widely recycled.
D. More landfills should be built to deal with plastic bags.
34 Why does Walmart want to start Beyond the Bag?
A. To attract more customers. B. To provide more plastic bags.
C. To set a good example to Target and CVS. D. To make shopping more environmentally friendly.
35. What is the main idea of the text?
A. People pay more attention to environmental protection.
B. Walmart is getting rid of single-use plastic bags.
C. Reusable paper bags are becoming more popular.
D. Free plastic bags have become a thing of the past.
【答案】32. D 33. A 34. D 35. B
【解析】
【导语】这是一篇新闻报道。文章主要讲述了为了对抗塑料购物袋带来的污染和其他环境问题,以沃尔玛为代表的大公司正在采取措施摆脱塑料购物袋的使用。沃尔玛公司提出了“超越袋子”计划,并在积极的实施中。
【32题详解】
词义猜测题。根据该句的前文“Unless you’ve been faithfully bringing reusable shopping bags to the store, you probably grab the plastic bags waiting for customers at the checkout.(除非你一直忠实地把可重复使用的购物袋带到商店,否则你很可能会在结账时拿走等待顾客的塑料袋。)”可知,只有可重复使用购物袋的忠实者会在购物时使用自备的购物袋,商店的结账台还是有供顾客使用的塑料袋的。由此推知,如果你不是可重复使用购物袋的忠实者,那么你会和其他人一样使用塑料袋。因此,“You’re not alone”应是表达“你和其他人一样在购物时使用塑料袋,即,还是有很多人在购物时选择使用塑料袋”。故选D项。
【33题详解】
主旨大意题。通过阅读可知,“Unfortunately, single-use plastic bags have serious consequences once our trip to the store is over.(不幸的是,一旦我们去商店购物,一次性塑料袋就会产生严重的后果。)”为第二段的核心主旨句,因此可知,作者在第二段想要告诉读者的是一次性塑料袋产生的严重后果,尤其是对环境造成严重的后果。故选A项。
【34题详解】
细节理解题。根据文章第三段内容“To fight pollution and other environmental problems, major companies are taking steps to get rid of the use of plastic shopping bags.(为了对抗污染和其他环境问题,大公司正在采取措施摆脱塑料购物袋的使用。)”,以及第四段内容“But Walmart has announced its Beyond the Bag, an initiative working to explore reusable options and ‘reimagine’ the plastic bag.(但沃尔玛已经宣布了其“超越袋子”计划,该计划致力于探索可重复使用的选择,并“重新构想”塑料袋。)”可知,为了对抗污染和其他环境问题,大公司在采取措施摆脱塑料购物袋的使用,沃尔玛是其中之一,因此沃尔玛提出了“超越袋子”计划。由此可知,沃尔玛提出“超越袋子”计划是为了使购物更加环保。故选D项。
【35题详解】
主旨大意题。通读文章内容可知,文章的第一二段是背景介绍,第三段内容“To fight pollution and other environmental problems, major companies are taking steps to get rid of the use of plastic shopping bags. If you’re a frequent customer at Walmart, don’t be surprised if you notice the plastic bags disappearing over the next few months.(为了对抗污染和其他环境问题,大公司正在采取措施摆脱塑料购物袋的使用。如果你是沃尔玛的常客,在接下来的几个月里,如果你发现塑料袋消失了,不要感到惊讶。)为文章的核心主旨,即,文章主要讲述了沃尔玛正在进行摆脱塑料袋的环保方式,并在后文以其提出“超越袋子”计划进行了详细介绍。选项B“Walmart is getting rid of single-use plastic bags.(沃尔玛正在淘汰一次性塑料袋。)”贴合文章主旨。故选B项。
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Walking has been considered as one of the best possible exercises. For many people, daily walking offers many and long-term physical and mental benefits. ___36___ A Stanford University study found that participants were more creative when walking as opposed to sitting.____37____You’ve probably heard the phrase “exercise your innovation (创新)”. Our creative mindset is caused by physical movement, which is exactly why walking with your dog, a friend, or alone feeds creative thinking.
But the scenery is almost as important as the sweat. Just by going outside, you are stepping out of your habitual surroundings and your comfort zone, which is necessary if you want to open your mind to new possibilities. You can walk through a tree-filled neighborhood. ___38___
Walking outside develops our ability to collect new ideas and take in new sights, sounds, smells, and flavors. Shinrin-yoku, a common form of relaxation in Japan, suggests that being in the forest and walking among the trees there can lower your stress levels___39___ Research has shown that immersion (沉浸) in nature around your neighborhood or the disconnection from multimedia increased performance on a creative problem-solving task.
So instead of setting a fitness goal, why not set a creativity goal that starts with walking outdoors? ___40___ For example, you can turn off your phone and give yourself the chance to be present in the world, to hear conversations and natural sounds, and to notice the way people move and the way the sun reflects in a lake.
Walk not just for exercise. Walk for wonder.
A. Unfortunately, you often fail to do it.
B. Engage more closely with your surroundings.
C. The movement aspect of walking is obviously key
D. Without enough energy, you cannot wonder or create.
E. But to receive the benefits, you do not have to live in a forest.
F. This habit, however, isn’t just improving your health but an element of creativity.
G. You can also wander around a park and observe people relaxing or birds singing.
【答案】36. F 37. C 38. G 39. E 40. B
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了步行作为最佳锻炼方式之一,不仅对身体和心理健康有益,还是创造力的一个元素。
【36题详解】
根据空前“Walking has been considered as one of the best possible exercises. For many people, daily walking offers many and long-term physical and mental benefits. (散步被认为是最好的运动之一。对许多人来说,每天散步对身体和精神都有长期的好处。)”以及空后“A Stanford University study found that participants were more creative when walking as opposed to sitting.(斯坦福大学的一项研究发现,参与者在走路时比坐着时更有创造力。)”可知,上下文讲述的是散步的好处,空前讲述的是散步对身心健康有益,空后讲述的是散步的人更有创造力。选项F“This habit, however, isn’t just improving your health but an element of creativity.(然而,这个习惯不仅能改善你的健康,而且是创造力的一部分。)”承上启下,与上下文内容一致。故选F。
【37题详解】
根据空前内容“A Stanford University study found that participants were more creative when walking as opposed to sitting.(斯坦福大学的一项研究发现,参与者在走路时比坐着时更有创造力。)”可知,上文提到步行和创造力之间的关系。选项C“The movement aspect of walking is obviously key(步行的运动方面显然是关键)” 与上文的“walking as opposed to sitting”相呼应,并强调了运动(特别是步行)在激发创造力方面的重要性。故选C。
【38题详解】
根据上文内容“But the scenery is almost as important as the sweat. Just by going outside, you are stepping out of your habitual surroundings and your comfort zone, which is necessary if you want to open your mind to new possibilities. You can walk through a tree-filled neighborhood.(但风景几乎和汗水一样重要。只要走出去,你就走出了你习惯的环境和你的舒适区,如果你想打开你的思想,接受新的可能性,这是必要的。你可以穿过绿树成荫的社区。)”可知,上文提及当我们散步时可以做些什么。选项G“You can also wander around a park and observe people relaxing or birds singing.(你也可以在公园里闲逛,观察人们放松或鸟儿唱歌。)”与上文内容相符,指的是散步时我们可以在公园里闲逛,观察人们放松或鸟儿唱歌。故选G。
【39题详解】
根据空前内容“Shinrin-yoku, a common form of relaxation in Japan, suggests that being in the forest and walking among the trees there can lower your stress levels(Shinrin-yoku是日本一种常见的放松方式,它表明,在森林里,在树中间散步可以降低你的压力水平。)”可知,在森林中散步可以缓解压力。选项E“But to receive the benefits, you do not have to live in a forest.(但是要得到这些好处,你不一定要住在森林里。)”承接上文内容,同时引出下文“Research has shown that immersion (沉浸) in nature around your neighborhood or the disconnection from multimedia increased performance on a creative problem-solving task.(研究表明,沉浸在你周围的大自然中,或者脱离多媒体,可以提高你在创造性问题解决任务中的表现。)”,指出,只需要沉浸在周围大自然之中我们就可以得到散步的好处。故选E。
【40题详解】
根据空后内容“For example, you can turn off your phone and give yourself the chance to be present in the world, to hear conversations and natural sounds, and to notice the way people move and the way the sun reflects in a lake.(例如,你可以关掉手机,给自己一个机会活在这个世界上,听对话和自然的声音,注意人们移动的方式和太阳在湖中反射的方式。)”可知,下文所举例子建议人们走进大自然。选项B“Engage more closely with your surroundings.(更密切地与周围环境接触。)”与下文内容一致,都是与周围环境多接触。故选B。
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分 15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Afraid to have a start, I was walking slowly into my first school in America. I had ___41___ a long way from India in order to join my parents. My father decided that I would go to school here, so I ___42___ a local high school in my new town.
With ___43___ and fear, I arrived at the classroom. Everyone’s eyes were on me as I entered the classroom. I went straight to the ___44___ and asked him if it was the right class. With a ___45___ voice, he answered, “Yes.” His voice comforted me a little. Then he asked me to ___46___ where I would sit. I selected the ___47___ closest to the door instead of the corner where all of the boys were sitting. I spent the rest of the class taking notes from the ___48___ produced by the overhead projector (投影仪).
___49___ it was my first day, I was confused about which hallway to use, but I ___50___ to get to my classroom without asking anyone. I wasn’t quite sure when I would have ___51___. It was noon when I went to my next class and the bell rang as I entered. I went through the ___52___ process of asking the teacher if I was in the right class. Feeling surprised, she said, “That is the lunch bell.” I felt a little ___53___. Without another word, I headed for the cafeteria.
I realized that all the confusion on my first day was like the difficulty I had to ___54___ to reach my goal. When I got on my bus and sat down inside ___55___, I said to myself, “Today isn’t so bad.”
41. A. traveled B. lived C. felt D. suffered
42. A. explored B. found C. entered D. built
43. A. anger B. anxiety C. doubt D. sadness
44. A. foreigner B. teacher C. worker D. partner
45. A. deep B. familiar C. strict D. soft
46. A. find B. see C. choose D. discuss
47. A. area B. direction C. seat D. goal
48. A. movies B. pictures C. voices D. stories
49. A. Since B. If C. Though D. Before
50 A. feared B. refused C. hesitated D. managed
51. A. gifts B. chances C. fun D. lunch
52. A. interesting B. unexpected C. same D. easy
53. A. funny B. excited C. lonely D. awkward
54. A. put away B. get through C. build up D. show off
55. A. suddenly B. happily C. curiously D. actually
【答案】41. A 42. C 43. B 44. B 45. D 46. C 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D 51. D 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. B
【解析】
【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要介绍了作者在美国新学校的生活,虽然发生了一些尴尬的事,但是作者也交了一些朋友,开始喜欢上了新学校。
【41题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:为了和父母团聚,我从印度长途跋涉而来。A. traveled旅行;B. lived居住;C. felt感觉;D. suffered遭受。根据前文“Afraid to have a start, I was walking slowly into my first school in America.”以及下文“a long way from India”可推知,作者和父母团聚,从印度旅行了很远来到美国。故选A。
【42题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:我父亲决定让我在这里上学,所以我进入了我的新城镇的一所当地高中。A. explored探索;B. found找到;C. entered进入;D. built建造。根据上文“My father decided that I would go to school here”及下文“I arrived at the classroom.”可知此处指作者进入到这所学校上学。故选C。
【43题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:带着焦虑和恐惧,我来到了教室。A. anger愤怒;B. anxiety焦虑;C. doubt疑惑;D. sadness悲伤。根据下文“Everyone’s eyes were on me as I entered the classroom.”结合前文内容可知,作者第一天上学,每个人的眼睛都盯着他,结合实际,他应是焦虑和恐惧的。故选B。
【44题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:我径直走到老师面前,问他不是上对了班。A. foreigner外国人;B. teacher老师;C. worker工人;D. partner伙伴。根据下文“asked if it was the right class”可推知,作者是在询问老师自己是不是走对了班级。故选B。
【45题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意:他用柔和的声音回答说:“是的。”A. deep深的;B. familiar熟悉的;C. strict严格的;D. soft温柔的。根据下文“His voice comforted me a little”可推知,老师温柔的声音让作者感到了一点安慰。故选D。
【46题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:然后他让我选择坐在哪里。A. find发现;B. see看见;C. choose选择;D. discuss讨论。根据下文“where I would sit.”可知,此处指老师让作者选择坐在哪里。故选C。
【47题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:我选了一个离门最近的座位,而不是所有男孩都坐的那个角落。A. area区域;B. direction方向;C. seat座位;D. goal目标。根据上文“Then he asked me to 6 where I would sit.”可知,老师让作者选座位,所以此处指作者选择了最靠近门的座位。故选C。
【48题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:在剩下的时间里,我根据投影仪拍摄的图片做笔记。A. movies电影;B. pictures图片;C. voices嗓音;D. stories故事。根据下文“produced by the overhead projector (投影仪). ”可知作者是根据投影仪投射的图片做笔记。故选B。
【49题详解】
考查连词词义辨析。句意:因为这是我的第一天,我不知道该走哪条走廊,但我设法没有问任何人就到了教室。A. Since因为,自从;B. If 如果;C. Though虽然,尽管;D. Before在……之前。根据句意可知“我第一天上学”与“我不知道该走哪条走廊”之间是因果关系,应用since引导原因状语从句。故选A。
【50题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:因为这是我的第一天,我不知道该走哪条走廊,但我设法没有问任何人就到了教室。A. feared害怕;B. refused拒绝;C. hesitated犹豫;D. managed管理,设法。根据下文“get to my classroom without asking anyone.”可知没有任何人的帮助,是作者自己设法找到教室的。manage to do意为“设法做某事”。故选D。
51题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:我不太确定什么时候吃午饭。 A. gifts礼物;B. chances机会;C. fun乐趣;D. lunch午饭。根据下文“I went through the 12 process of asking the teacher if I was in the right class. Feeling surprised, she said, “That is the lunch bell.””可知,作者不知道午餐铃,所以是不太确定什么时候吃午饭。故选D。
【52题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意:我用同样的方法问老师我是否在正确的班级。A. interesting有趣的;B. unexpected出乎意料的;C. same相同的;D. easy容易的。根据前文“I went straight to the 4 and asked him if it was the right class.”可知此处指作者像刚开始一样问老师是否上对了课。故选C。
【53题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意:我觉得有点尴尬。A. funny有趣的;B. excited激动的;C. lonely孤独的;D. awkward尴尬的。根据上文“Feeling surprised, she said, “That is the lunch bell.””可知,作者对自己的误会感到尴尬,故选D。
【54题详解】
考查动词短语辨析。我意识到,在我的第一天,所有的困惑就像我必须克服的困难,以达到我的目标。A. put away放好;B. get through通过,到达,做完;C. build up增进,加强;D. show off炫耀,卖弄。根据前文“I realized that all the confusion on my first day was like the difficulty”及语境可知此处指经历并克服困难。故选B。
【55题详解】
考查副词词义辨析。句意:当我上了我的公共汽车,高兴地坐在里面,我对自己说,“今天不是那么糟糕。”A. suddenly突然地;B. happily快乐地;C. curiously好奇地;D. actually事实上。根据下文“I said to myself, “Today isn't so bad.””及语境可知经历一些困难并克服困难后,作者觉得这一天并不糟糕,故心情是开心的。故选B。
第II卷
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The giant panda is unique to China. ___56___ (cover) the areas of Sichuan, Shaanxi, and Gansu Provinces, Giant Panda National Park protects the pandas’ natural living space. This giant national park ___57___ (include) sixty seven panda reserves (保护区), which are home ___58___ about 1,340 wild giant pandas as well as many other endangered animals, such as Sichuan golden monkeys and snow leopards.
Among the panda reserves in the national park. we ___59___ (high) recommend Wolong Nature Reserve and Ya’an Bifengxia Giant Panda Protection and Research Centre, because of ___60___ (they) large numbers of pandas, beautiful natural environment, ___61___ being easy to reach from Chengdu. Right now, there are more than 100 pandas in the Wolong base and more than 60 at Bifengxia. Wolong Nature Reserve is the only place ___62___ you can see pandas at night.
Giant panda volunteer programs in the panda bases give you ___63___ unique experience with pandas and you will have a chance ___64___ (make) special cakes for them, etc. Contact us for details about these panda programs.
Giant Panda National Park is ___65___ (suit) for animal lovers, especially panda lovers, You can visit it all year round. Wolong is about a 2-hour drive from Chengdu; Bifengxia is about a 3-hour drive from Chengdu.
【答案】56. Covering
57. includes 58. to
59. highly 60. their
61. and 62. where 63. a
64. to make
65. suitable
【解析】
【导语】这是一篇说明文,文章介绍了中国大熊猫的保护情况。
【56题详解】
考查现在分词。句意:大熊猫是中国独特的物种,所以它们的分布主要覆盖在四川、陕西和甘肃省份。Giant Panda National Park与cover为逻辑上的主动关系,使用现在分词作状语,空格位于句首,故填Covering。
【57题详解】
考查时态和主谓一致。句意:这个巨大的国家公园包括67个大熊猫保护区,所以它保护了大熊猫的自然生存空间。句子描述的为客观事实,谓语动词使用一般现在时,主语national park为单数意义,故填includes。
【58题详解】
考查固定短语。句意:这些保护区是大约1340只野生大熊猫和其他濒危动物的家,所以它们起到了重要的保护作用。be home to:是某物的家园。故填to。
【59题详解】
考查副词。句意:在国家公园的大熊猫保护区中,我们强烈推荐卧龙自然保护区和雅安碧峰峡大熊猫保护与研究中心,因为它们有大量的熊猫数量。副词修饰动词recommend作状语,意为“高度地”,故填highly。
【60题详解】
考查代词。句意:这两个保护区拥有大量的熊猫,美丽的自然环境,并且从成都到达非常方便,所以它们值得推荐。使用形容词性物主代词作定语修饰numbers,故填their。
【61题详解】
考查并列连词。句意:现在,卧龙基地有100多只熊猫,碧峰峡有60多只,所以你可以看到很多熊猫。because of后面的内容为并列关系,使用并列连词and,故填and。
【62题详解】
考查定语从句。句意:卧龙自然保护区是唯一可以在夜间看到熊猫的地方,所以这是一个独特的体验。空格处引导定语从句,place是先行词,从句缺少状语,故填where。
【63题详解】
考查冠词。句意:大熊猫基地的志愿者项目为你提供与熊猫亲密接触的独特体验,所以你会有一个独特的经历。unique是辅音音素开头的单词,使用不定冠词,故填a。
【64题详解】
考查动词不定式。句意:你有机会为它们制作特殊的蛋糕等,所以你可以参与一些特殊的活动。have a chance to do:有做某事的机会,抽象名词后用不定式作后置定语。故填to make。
【65题详解】
考查形容词。句意:川西大熊猫国家公园非常适合动物爱好者,尤其是熊猫爱好者,所以你可以全年都访问。be suitable for:对某人或某物适合,形容词作表语,故填suitable。
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假设你是李华。你的英国朋友Jim在给你的邮件中提到他对中国历史很感兴趣,并请你介绍一位你喜欢的中国历史人物。请你给Jim回信,内容包括:
1、该人物是谁;
2、该人物的主要贡献;
3、该人物对你的影响。
注意: 1. 词数不少于100;
2. 开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Jim,
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
Yours
Lihua
【答案】Dear Jim,
It’s great to hear from you. I feel proud knowing your interest in Chinese history.
As for my favorite figure in Chinese history, it must be Wei Yuan, a great thinker in the late Qing Dynasty. He, in his book, Haiguo Tuzhi (Maps and Records of the World), introduced modern technologies and ideas to China, which opened our eyes to the world. So he and his works are still worthy of being respected by us now. In fact, he inspires me to major in English in college, to be a bridge between China and the world.
Interested in knowing more? I can find you some books! Just let me know.
Yours,
Li Hua
【解析】
【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文,要求考生给英国朋友Jim写封信,介绍一位你喜欢的中国历史人物,内容包括:1、该人物是谁;2、该人物的主要贡献;3、该人物对你的影响。
【详解】1.词汇积累
激励:inspire→motivate
至于,关于:as for→with regard to
值得做:be worthy of being done→be worth doing
事实上:in fact→as a matter of fact
2.句式拓展
简单句变复合句
原句:As for my favorite figure in Chinese history, it must be Wei Yuan, a great thinker in the late Qing Dynasty.
拓展句:As for my favorite figure in Chinese history, it must be Wei Yuan, who was a great thinker in the late Qing Dynasty.
【点睛】[高分句型1] So he and his works are still worthy of being respected by us now. (运用了动名词的被动式作宾语)
[高分句型2] He, in his book, Haiguo Tuzhi (Maps and Records of the World), introduced modern technologies and ideas to China, which opened our eyes to the world. (运用了which引导的非限制性定语从句)
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
No one is born a winner. People make themselves into winners by their own efforts. I learned this lesson from an experience many years ago. I took the head coaching job at a school in Baxley, Georgia. It was a small school with a weak football program. The school took part in the league matches every year. However, it never ended well. We were more of the audience, watching and cheering instead of sweating out in the fields.
Fortunately, the school held the tradition that the school’s old team was to play against the new team at the end of spring practice. For lack of resources, the old team bad no coach, and they didn’t even practice to prepare for the game.
I was assigned (指派) as the coach of the new team, which was why I was excited. I believed that we were going to win, but to my disappointment, we were defeated. I couldn’t believe I had got into such a situation. Thinking hard about it, I tried to figure out the reason and what I should do next.
It didn’t take long before I came to realize that my team was depending on me. Without proper guidance or previous experience, my team was at a loss what to do. I had to change my attitude so that I could bring out the best in them about their ability and potential.
I would let my action do the talking. First, I started doing anything I could to help them build a little pride. I could see their spirits lifted, with their head held high in great confidence. Most importantly, I began to treat them like winners. Only when they regarded themselves as winners could they willingly invest time and energy.
This summer, the other teams enjoyed their vacations.
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Six months later, football season started.
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【答案】
This summer, the other teams enjoyed their vacations. We met every day and practiced passing and kicking the football. At first, some complained that even the hardest practice couldn't change the fact that they were the last. The whole team was covered by the sense of depression and failure. What I could do at that time was to company them and try to cheer them up. Encouraged by my persistence, the team gathered the spirit of trying again and practiced even harder. This time, we sweated out in the fields instead of being the audience, watching and cheering. Every inch of the field has seen the effort of my team.
Six months later, football season started. After suffering our failure on the spring practice field, we won our first game and our second, and continued to improve. Finally, we faced the number one team in the state. I felt that it would be a victory for us even if we lost the game. But that wasn't what happened. My boys beat the best team in Georgia, giving me one of the greatest thrills of my life! From the game I learned a lot about how the attitude of the leader can influence the members of a team. Instead of seeing my boys as losers, I pushed and encouraged them. I helped them to see themselves differently, and they built themselves into winners. Winners are made, not born.
【解析】
【导语】本文以人物为线索展开,讲述了作者在巴克斯利一所学校作足球教练的经历,因为缺乏资源,球队没有教练,甚至也没有为比赛做准备,而作者临危受命,用自己的行动帮助球队进行训练,最终取得了很好的成绩。
【详解】1.段落续写:
①由第一段首句内容“今年暑假,其他的队伍都在享受他们的假期”可知,第一段可描写作者与队伍之间在暑假进行集训的情况。
②由第二段首句内容“六个月后,足球赛季开始了”可知,第二段可描写作者带领团队一路比赛以及最终获得的成绩。
2.续写线索:作者接受学校足球教练的工作——足球队面临的困境——作者激发队员的斗志——足球队一起进行集训——作者带领球队获得的成绩——作者感悟
3.词汇激活
行为类
见证:see/witness
尝试:try/make an effort to do sth.
继续:continue/carry on with
情绪类
激动:thrill /excitation
沮丧:depression/disappointment
【点睛】[高分句型1]What I could do at that time was to company them and try to cheer them up.(what引导的主语从句)
[高分句型2] My boys beat the best team in Georgia, giving me one of the greatest thrills of my life!(现在分词作状语)
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