内容正文:
无锡市普通高中2024年春学期高二期终调研考试试题
英 语 2024.06
命题单位: 无锡市教育科学研究院 制卷单位:宜兴市教师发展中心
注意事项及说明:
1. 试卷共150分,考试时间120分钟。
2. 答案一律写在答题卡上。考试结束时,上交答题卡。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5 分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where are the two speakers?
A. In a classroom. B. In a library. C. In a bookstore.
2. What does the woman usually use her phone for?
A. Watching films. B. Playing games. C. Learning languages.
3. When will the speakers watch the film together?
A. This Wednesday. B. This Friday. C. This Saturday.
4. What is the conversation mainly about?
A. Where to buy a gift.
B. What kind of gift to buy.
C. How to make a gift.
5. What does the man advise the woman to do?
A. Push herself a little.
B. Get herself relaxed.
C. Concentrate on her lessons.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5 分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why does the man call the waitress?
A. To order dishes. B. To pay the bill. C. To make complaints.
7. What will the waitress do with the soup?
A. Check it. B. Replace it. C. Heat it.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. What will the two speakers do on the phone?
A. Book a table for dinner. B. Order a food delivery. C. Locate a restaurant.
9. What food might the speakers finally order?
A. Chinese food. B. Indian food. C. Italian food.
10. What does the man think of the woman?
A. She is particular about food.
B. She often changes her mind.
C. She likes trying different foods.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. Why does the woman make a phone call?
A. To change tickets. B. To sell tickets. C. To book tickets.
12. What time will the woman’s flight take off?
A. At 6:55 a.m. B. At 2:50 p.m. C. At 6:50 p.m.
13. What is the woman’s destination?
A. Shanghai. B. Singapore. C. Guangzhou.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
14. When did Jessica graduate from university?
A. Six months ago. B. Two years ago. C. Six years ago.
15. What position is Jessica applying for?
A. A college teacher. B. An institution trainer. C. A big data researcher.
16. Why did Jessica quit her last job?
A. She wanted a more challenging job.
B. She’d like to improve her English and German.
C. She couldn’t get along well with former colleagues.
17. What might Jessica talk about next?
A. Her expected salary. B. Her desired start date. C. Her strengths.
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
18. What is the speaker?
A. A librarian. B. A guide. C. A teacher.
19. Where can we print and copy materials?
A. On the first floor. B. On the second floor. C. On the third floor.
20. What can the big room next to the fiction shelves be used for?
A. Having meetings. B. Storing art collections. C. Providing reading space.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5 分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Online activity can be riddled with cyberbullying (网络霸凌). To find out which app is the best to keep your kids safe online, we tested four apps over five weeks.
· Mobicip Premium
$8 per month (billed annually at $96) for 20 managed devices at Mobicip
Mobicip Premium’s social media and screen time monitoring were all strong. We found its app blocking, website content monitoring, and location tracking capabilities to be powerful as well.
· Net Nanny
$130 $90 per year (billed annually) for 20 managed devices at Net Nanny
The user interface (界面) of this app is family-friendly and visually engaging, featuring cartoons of parents and casual language. The web filtering, screen time allocation (分配), and app management functions are all capable.
· OurPact Premium+
$100 per year (billed annually) for 20 managed devices at OurPact
This app requires that we pair our child’s device to our computer with a cable and download the OurPact Jr. app. The Screen Time capability is personalized to fit our child’s schedule.
· Qustodio Premium Small
$55 per year (billed annually) for 20 managed devices at Qustodio
The thoughtfully designed web interface makes Qustodio Premium Basic easy to operate. Its web filtering and game blocking features were powerful. This app is available for Android, Chromebook, iOS, Kindle, macOS and Windows, though not all features are supported across all platforms.
21. Who are the target readers of this passage?
A. Teachers. B. Parents.
C. Students. D. Employers.
22. Which app is the cheapest for 20 managed devices annually?
A. Mobicip Premium. B. Net Nanny.
C. OurPact Premium+. D. Qustodio Premium Small.
23. What is special about Net Nanny?
A. Location tracking. B. Game blocking.
C. Content storage. D. Cartoon interface.
B
French artist and photographer Augustin Lignier has taught a pair of rats to take selfies (自拍). The creatures’ photographic training was part of an art project commenting on social media use in the modern world.
There are 56 known species of rats, which live on every continent except Antarctica. They are intelligent and adaptable, and can learn to complete many different tasks. Partly for these reasons, rats are often used in scientific and medical research.
For his project, Lignier took inspiration from B. F. Skinner, a famous psychologist (someone who studies the mind and behavior). Skinner was known for conducting behavior research with animals such as rats and pigeons. He developed a device called an operant (可操作的) conditioning chamber (also called a Skinner box). This box features a bar or lever that can provide a reward, such as food, to animals when they press it.
Lignier bought two rats from a pet store and named them Augustin and Arthur, after himself and his brother. He placed them in a tall, transparent (透明的) tower similar to a Skinner box with a camera attached to it. When a rat pressed a button inside the tower, the camera took a picture of the rat and the animal received a bit of sugar as a reward. Each photo was immediately displayed on a screen in front of the rats, “but honestly I don’t think they understood it,” Lignier told The New York Times.
Then Lignier changed the device setup so it would not always release sugar on command, instead providing the reward only occasionally. Still, the rats kept pressing the button, and the camera kept snapping pictures. Sometimes the rats received sugar but ignored it to keep pushing the button. Lignier said this was because the excitement of pressing the button had become its own sort of reward. “Every time they push the button, they have pleasure inside their brain,” he told CBC Radio.
Lignier said he designed the project to represent the way social media platforms encourage people to keep posting by providing unpredictable rewards such as comments, likes, and attention. As for Augustin and Arthur, Lignier said, “They’re really like performers, you know?”
24. Why did Augustin Lignier teach rats to take selfies?
A. To show the wisdom of the rats. B. To do research on animal behavior.
C. To make money by selling the photos. D. To carry out a project.
25. What did Lignier base his project on?
A. A famous psychologist’s research. B. His own experience with rats.
C. The behavior of pigeons. D. The design of a Skinner box.
26. Why did the rats keep pressing the button even when they didn’t get a reward?
A. They wanted more sugar.
B. They enjoyed taking pictures.
C. They liked the attention they received.
D. They took pleasure in pressing the button.
27. Which of the following can best describe Lignier?
A. Patient. B. Honest.
C. Creative. D. Responsible.
C
The eyes are more than a window to the soul — they’re also a reflection of a person’s cognitive (认知的) health. Research has been exploring how the eyes may help in diagnosing (诊断) Alzheimer’s disease before symptoms (症状) begin.
“Alzheimer’s disease begins in the brain decades before the first symptoms of memory loss,” said Dr. Richard Isaacson, an Alzheimer’s preventive neurologist at the Institute for Neurodegenerative Diseases. If doctors are able to identify the disease in its earliest stages, people could then make healthy lifestyle choices and control their “risk factors, like high blood pressure, high cholesterol and diabetes,” Isaacson said.
Then how early can we see signs of cognitive decline? To find it out, a recent study examined donated tissue from the retina (视网膜) and brains of 86 people with different degrees of mental decline. “Our study is the first to provide in-depth analyses of the protein profiles and the molecular, cellular, and structural effects of Alzheimer’s disease in the human retina and how they correspond with changes in the brain and cognitive function,” said senior author Maya Koronyo-Hamaoui, a professor of neurosurgery and biomedical sciences at Cedars-Sinai in Los Angeles.
Researchers in the study collected retinal and brain tissue samples over 14 years from 86 human donors with Alzheimer’s disease and mild cognitive damage — the largest group of retinal samples ever studied, according to the authors. Researchers then compared samples from donors with normal cognitive function to those with mild cognitive damage and those with later-stage Alzheimer’s disease.
The study, published in February in the journal Acta Neuropathologica, found significant increases in beta-amyloid, a key marker of Alzheimer’s disease, in people with both Alzheimer’s and early cognitive decline.
“These findings may eventually lead to the development of imaging techniques that allow us to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease earlier and more accurately,” Isaacson said, “and monitor its progression by looking through the eyes.”
28. What can eyes help do according to the recent study?
A. Convey people’s feelings.
B. Show people’s lifestyle choices.
C. Indicate people’s physical decline.
D. Reflect people’s cognitive function changes.
29. What is paragraph 2 mainly about?
A. The reason for the study. B. The process of the study.
C. The plan for the study. D. The method of the study.
30. How was the study conducted?
A. By conducting a detailed survey about human retina.
B. By asking and answering questions about the changes in the brain.
C. By making a comparison between samples from different donors.
D. By keeping track of participants to collect their data within a decade.
31. What do Isaacson’s words imply in the last paragraph?
A. Alzheimer’s disease can be cured by reducing risk factors.
B. Scientists have developed imaging techniques to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease.
C. Alzheimer’s disease begins in the brain years after the first symptoms of memory loss.
D. Alzheimer’s disease can be spotted before symptoms start by examining the eyes.
D
If you happen to be in Hollywood and see a car go by with no driver at the wheel, don’t be alarmed. After more than a year of testing, around 50 driverless robotaxis are debuting (首次亮相) to the public across Los Angeles on Thursday.
The autonomous vehicles are run by Waymo, which is owned by Google’s parent company Alphabet. Waymo started giving driverless rides to passengers in San Francisco last year and also operates them in Phoenix. In the coming weeks, Waymo will change to a paid service.
The Southern California debut comes as controversy and mistakes have troubled self-driving cars in San Francisco. Both Waymo and its competitor Cruise, which is owned by GM, have been blamed for running red lights, blocking public buses and getting in the way of emergency responders.
Cruise was involved in an incident that left a pedestrian (行人) severely injured in October — causing the company to stop operations and lose its operating permit in the state. It hasn’t necessarily been a smooth ride for Waymo in Los Angeles. In the run-up to its debut in the city, there have been complaints by Los Angeles’s mayor Karen Bass and protests by local residents. “Autonomous vehicles like the ones that Waymo wants to launch in our communities, have been causing chaos wherever they go.” Yvonne Wheeler, president of the Los Angeles County Federation of Labor said. “It’s clear that this technology is not ready to be introduced into our roads and our cities.”
However, both Cruise and Waymo say their vehicles are safer than human drivers and that they’ve had relatively few incidents. “Once an unimaginable future, autonomous driving is now a real-world way of getting around for tens of thousands of people each week,” said Tekedra Mawakana, co-CEO of Waymo. He also mentioned that Waymo is already setting its sights on its next robotaxi debut. It says it plans to start offering rides in Austin, Texas, later this year.
32. What is the function of paragraph 1?
A. To introduce a topic. B. To explain a phenomenon.
C. To share an experience. D. To state an opinion.
33. What does the underlined word “controversy” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. Praise. B. Alternative. C. Priority. D. Argument.
34. What’s Yvonne Wheeler’s attitude towards autonomous vehicles run by Waymo?
A. Negative. B. Favorable. C. Unconcerned. D. Uncertain.
35. What is the best title of this text?
A. Waymo’s robotaxi service set to expand into Los Angeles
B. Cruise and Waymo made the Hollywood imagination come true
C. Waymo’s robotaxi service removed public concern across Los Angeles
D. Cruise and Waymo ensured the safety of robotaxi despite controversy
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Have you been feeling stuck lately? If so, it may be because you haven’t found your life’s purpose. Your life’s purpose can help guide you toward the person you want to be. Check out these easy and efficient ways to find your purpose in life and be the best version of yourself.
36 Interviewing yourself can help you identify what matters to you. Take a few moments to think about questions such as “When have you been happiest in your life?” “What has made you truly proud of yourself?” to learn more about yourself.
Explore your passions. More often than not, your passions are activities that you often lose track of time while doing. 37 Perhaps you like singing, working out, writing, or performing well at work. Diving head first into hobbies you enjoy can help you find meaning in life.
Think about your future. Imagining yourself 30 years from now can help you determine your goals. Backward planning is the idea of thinking ahead to plan for the present. Take a moment to imagine yourself at 50, 70, or 80 years old. What’s your job? Where are you living? 38
Read more. Reading is a great way to discover more about yourself. 39 A fiction book can bring you to fantastic worlds and inspire your imagination, whereas a nonfiction book can open your eyes to new perspectives. 40 You may resonate with (产生共鸣) a character’s drive and find your own purpose within the pages.
It’s never too late to start looking for a purpose. Identify what matters most to you, and the best lessons for self-discovery are in the journey rather than the destination.
A. Make time for self-care.
B. Ask yourself questions.
C. So, grab a book and dive in.
D. Think about what you enjoy spending the most time doing.
E. It can help you explore your curiosities and learn new things.
F. Trying new things can help you understand what brings you joy.
G. Think about what you can do to reach that point right now.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I had a job I loved as a case manager and my duties involved arranging home services for the low-income elderly. Yet, as with most social-service jobs, it 41 paid a living wage.
Although I managed to pay the electric bill each month, it was the 42 costs that kept me up at night. If something 43 in our home, it was probably going to stay broken. What if we needed a new roof? What if the car needed repairs? I was fortunate that I didn’t need any government assistance, 44 I knew one catastrophe (灾难) would financially destroy me.
I thought I was doing a good job keeping my 45 from my children, but I wasn’t. Children are very 46 to their parents’ moods, and they are often listening when we’re not aware. A neighbor had been pressuring me to 47 the cost of a new fence, and I was talking about it with my sister on the phone, wondering how I could 48 to cover the cost. After I got 49 the phone, my six-year-old daughter approached me and said, “Mom, please don’t worry. We may not have everything we want, but we have everything we 50 .”
That statement, made by an innocent but very wise child, forever changed my 51 . I’m so 52 to my little girl who was smart enough to 53 me that we often confuse wants with needs. I would focus on being grateful for 54 over our heads and food on our table. We did, 55 , have everything we need!
41. A. properly B. barely C. completely D. eventually
42. A. unexpected B. unavoidable C. unnecessary D. unbelievable
43. A. happened B. came C. broke D. arrived
44. A. and B. while C. until D. but
45. A. sorrows B. secrets C. worries D. tears
46. A. blind B. close C. open D. sensitive
47. A. cut B. change C. share D. consider
48. A. pretend B. refuse C. manage D. choose
49. A. off B. up C. down D. on
50. A. like B. know C. hope D. need
51. A. duty B. opinion C. mood D. dream
52. A. helpful B. thankful C. cheerful D. delightful
53. A. remind B. inform C. motivate D. promise
54. A. shelter B. shade C. sky D. cloud
55. A. instead B. therefore C. however D. indeed
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Guiyang, capital city of Southwest China’s Guizhou province, has a rich history and culture. It has undergone continuous betterment and now 56 (attract) a steady stream of visitors. Breathtaking 57 (landscape), tea culture, and energetic ethnic (民族的) minorities are the three main features that define Guiyang and wider Guizhou, and visitors can enjoy them all in Qingzhen city, west of Guiyang.
AJ Donnelly, a British vlogger, visited Qingzhen to explore its characteristic customs and
58 (invite) scenery.
In this video trip, AJ showed us around the Hongfeng Lake, which 59 (surround) by beautiful red leaves in autumn, and China’s newest social media hit, the Yangpi Cave Waterfall, which is famous 60 its breathtaking Karst landforms.
In the Ludishao Tea Expo Garden, AJ buried 61 (he) in tea aroma (芳香) and tried hand-picking his own tea.
AJ also visited the Maige Miao and Bouyei ethnic township, 62 mainly live the “Four Seals Miao”, 63 branch of the Miao people. Their characteristic clothing made a surprise 64 (appear) in Milan Fashion Week and served the world a visual feast.
Charming Qingzhen is just a glimpse (一瞥) of “Cool Guiyang”, and there are more splendid views the city has 65 (choose) from. Come and see for yourselves, will you?
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
假如你是李华,你校英语报打算举办一次主题为 “弘扬中国传统文化”的海报设计大赛,请你写一则征稿启事。内容包括:
1. 活动目的;
2. 活动要求。
注意:
1. 写作词数应为80左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
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第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
My dad was more than a father to me; he was my friend and one of the most amazing people in my life. So when he passed away suddenly from a stroke at the age of 51, my world fell apart. I was lost, along with my mother who had been with my father since age 16, two brothers, and everyone who knew him. We were thrown into a thick haze of anger, sadness, and shock.
I cried every night and tried to hold onto all my memories of him. I replayed every moment I could remember — jotting down thoughts, printing out old e-mails, reading old birthday cards — anything I could hang on to because I didn’t want to forget. As I was going through all these old memories, I began to wonder about all the things I had missed.
My dad was a quiet man who was known for his listening skills, his patience and his smile. He was often the one listening instead of telling stories. I wanted to know what stories I had missed by losing him so soon. So I decided to compile (汇编) a memory book as a surprise Christmas gift for my mom and brothers.
I started my project in November, contacting everyone I knew who was close to my dad. I sent e-mails and letters asking for friends to send me their thoughts and memories of him. I asked them specifically to share funny stories about my dad and the stories that maybe no one had ever heard. I told them to respond no later than one week prior to Christmas.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Before long, the responses started pouring in.
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I gave it to my family as a gift on Christmas Day.
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高二英语试卷 第 1 页 (共 12 页)
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
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无锡市普通高中2024年春学期高二期终调研考试
英语参考答案及评分标准 2024.06
第一部分 听力(共20小题,满分30分)
1-5 BCCBB 6-10 CBBAA 11-15 CABBC 16-20 ABABA
第二部分 阅读(共两节,20小题;每小题2.5分,满分50分)
第一节
21-23 BDD 24-27 DADC 28-31 DACD 32-35 ADAA
第二节
36-40 BDGEC
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
41-45 BACDC 46-50 DCCAD 51-55 BBAAD
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
56. attracts 57. landscapes 58. inviting 59. is surrounded 60. for
61. himself 62. where 63. a 64. appearance 65. to choose
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
One possible version:
Aimed at raising students’ awareness of promoting Chinese traditional culture, a poster design competition themed Chinese Traditional Culture will be held in our school.
The requirements are as follows. Firstly, your poster should include messages with brief description and appealing pictures. Secondly, less than 50 words and an English slogan are preferred. Lastly, please send your work to postercompetition@qq.com before August 15, 2024.
Everyone can join in the competition. It’s time to spread Chinese traditional
culture and show your creativity.(80 words)
第二节(满分25分)
Before long, the responses started pouring in. Handwritten letters and old photographs piled on my desk. I was amazed and moved by what people had written about my dad. Almost all the stories were new to me, from my dad’s first job, how he met my mom, to his love for his family and friends. Every story was a precious gift. In the end, my compilation was up to 85 pages long. I had the book printed at a local copy store.
I gave it to my family as a gift on Christmas Day. My mom bawled her eyes out while looking at the thickness of the book. My brothers hugged me. They were both moved beyond words and it took them hours to go through the book. This book was more than just a book of memories. It was a healing process. I felt happier knowing that he had led a great life and touched so many people. I am so proud to have him as my father.(150 words)
无锡市普通高中2024年春学期高二期终调研考试
英语书面表达评分参考标准
一、应用文写作评分标准
(一)内容要点
1. 活动目的(4分)
2. 活动要求(8分)
3. 结束语(欢迎参加等)(2分)
4. 卷面、词数(1分)
(二)评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分,按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时,可先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的
要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 词数少于60词,从总分中酌情减去1-2分。
4. 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、运用词汇和语法结构的数量和准
确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5. 拼写和标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程
度予以考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
(三)各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 (13-15分)
1、完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2、覆盖所有内容要点。
3、应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
4、语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇
所致,具备较强的语言运用能力。
5、有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
6、完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 (10-12分)
1、完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2、虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3、应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4、语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结
构或词汇所致。
5、应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
6、达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 (7-9分)
1、基本完成了试题规定的任务。
2、虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3、应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4、有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
5、应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
6、整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 (4-6分)
1、未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
2、漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
3、语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
4、有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
5、较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
6、信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 (1-3分)
1、未完成试题规定的任务。
2、明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
3、语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
4、较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
5、缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
6、信息未能传达给读者。
不得分 (0分)
未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
二、读后续写评分标准
(一)评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 词数少于130的,从总分中减去1-2分。
4. 评分时,应主要从内容、词汇语法结构和篇章结构等方面考量,具体为:
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2)全文的连贯性;
(3)创造内容的质量,续写的完整性,以及与原文情境的融洽度;
(4)所使用的词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影 响程度予以考虑。
6. 如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
(二)各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21—25)
1、与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
2、内容丰富,所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不 影响意义表达。
3、有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档(16—20)
1、与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
2、内容比较丰富,所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误, 但不影响意义表达。
3、比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档(11—15)
1、与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
2、写出了若干有关内容,应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些 错误,但不影响意义表达。
3、应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档(6—10)
1、与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
2、写出了一些有关内容,语法结构单调,词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇 方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
3、较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档(1—5)
1、与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
2、产出内容较少,语法结构单调,词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方 面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。
3、缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
不得分(0分)
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
无锡市普通高中2024年春学期高二期终调研考试
英语听力录音稿
这是无锡市普通高中2024年春学期期终调研考试高二英语听力部分,该部分分为第一第二两节。注意,回答听力部分时,请先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。听力考试现在开始。
(停顿 00’02”)
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
(停顿 00’05” 叮咚铃声)
Text 1
M: Good afternoon! May I help you?
W: I’m looking for the book named Pride and prejudice written by Jane Austin.
M: You can check it out at the self-service machine over there and borrow it with your reader’s card.
(停顿 00’10” 叮咚铃声)
Text 2
M: It’s so convenient to have a cell phone. I usually watch movies and play games on it.
W: Well,I often download some apps for language study.
(停顿 00’10” 叮咚铃声)
Text 3
M: The film Pegasus 2 returns this Wednesday. Would you like to go with me this Friday night?
W: I’d like to, but I can’t make it this Friday. What about the day after Friday?
M: That’s OK.
(停顿 00’10” 叮咚铃声)
Text 4
M: Mother’s birthday is coming. I can’t decide whether I should get my mother something expensive or just meaningful.
W: Definitely the latter. Actually, she’ll like whatever you choose for her.
(停顿 00’10” 叮咚铃声)
Text 5
M: Lucy, you look upset. What’s wrong?
W: Well, I’m having difficulty in concentrating on my lessons in class and I often can’t fall asleep until midnight due to the heavy workload.
M: Don’t push yourself too hard. Just relax.
(停顿 00’05” 叮咚铃声)
第一节到此结束。
第二节
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
(叮咚铃声)
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
Text 6
M: Excuse me, waitress, could you come here for a minute?
W: Yes, sir. What can I do for you?
M: I’m afraid you’ve made a mistake about my order. This dish isn’t what I ordered.
W: Sorry. I’ll check the order for you right away.
M: And also this soup is cold.
W: Terribly sorry. I’ll bring you a bowl of hot soup at once.
(停顿 00’02” 重复)
(停顿 00’10” 叮咚铃声)
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(停顿 00’15” 叮咚铃声)
Text 7
W: I’m getting a bit hungry. Anything to eat?
M: Sorry, there is nothing left. Let’s order something on the phone. How about Indian food?
W: It’s usually too strong. I need something mild.
M: Then what about Pizza?
W: It’s really tasty, but I’m trying to keep a slim figure, you know.
M: Oh, you’re really difficult to please. Well, there’s a nice Chinese restaurant.
W: Wow! Chinese food is my cup of tea. Let me see. Oh, it’s only 5 kilometers away.
M: That’s great! It’s usually healthy and delicious.
(停顿 00’02” 重复)
(停顿 00’15” 叮咚铃声)
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(停顿 00’15” 叮咚铃声)
Text 8
M:Good afternoon! This is China Southern Airlines. What can I do for you?
W: Good afternoon! I’d like to book two tickets from Shanghai to Singapore.
M: For what day, Madam?
W: Next Saturday, if possible.
M: That’s the 6th of July. Let me check ... We have flights at 6:55 a.m., 2:50 p.m. and 6:50 p.m.
W: I prefer a morning flight. By the way, is that a direct flight?
M: No, it will stop in Guangzhou for an hour.
W: That’s OK.
M: So two seats on Flight CZ3549 from Shanghai to Singapore at 6:55 a.m. next Saturday. Is it right, Madam?
W: Yes. Thank you.
(停顿 00’02”重复)
(停顿 00’15” 叮咚铃声)
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(停顿 00’20” 叮咚铃声)
Text 9
M: Hi Jessica. Nice to meet you.
W: Nice to meet you, too. I’m very honored to get this opportunity.
M: Let’s get started. When did you graduate from university? And what department were you in?
W: I graduated 2 years ago. And I was in the Department of Artificial Intelligence.
M: Great. As an Internet technology company, we’re looking for a big data researcher.
W: That’s exactly the position I’m looking for.
M: And can you tell me what your last job was?
W: Certainly. I taught at a university and six months ago I also took a part-time job in a training institution.
M: And why did you leave that job?
W: Because I want to look for a more challenging job.
M: OK. And what are your strengths?
W: I am an easygoing person with critical thinking ability. And I can get along well with my colleagues. Besides, I have a good command of English and German.
M: Well, you look like the person we need. So when would you expect to start working?
W: Erm, let me see ...
(停顿 00’02”重复)
(停顿 00’20” 叮咚铃声)
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(停顿 00’15” 叮咚铃声)
Text 10
W: Hello, everyone. Here we are at the entrance to the library. My name is Ann, and I’m the chief librarian here. I’d like to tell you how the library is organized. The room on the first floor has an excellent collection of reference books. On the second floor there is a room where we have up-to-date newspapers and magazines and it also has a photocopier in case you want to copy any of the articles. If you keep going upstairs, you then come into the main library area. There are fiction and non-fiction materials on the shelves, and there is also an excellent collection of books relating to local history. Next to the fiction shelves is a big room, which can be booked for meetings or talks, and next door to that is the children’s library, which has a good collection of stories and picture books for the under elevens. It was originally the art collection but that’s been moved to another building. And that’s all about the whole library. OK, now does anyone have any questions?
(停顿 00’02” 重复)
(停顿 00’15” 叮咚铃声)
第二节到此结束,现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
(停顿 02’00” 叮咚铃声)
听力测试到此结束。
高二英语答案 第 页(共8页)1
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
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