英语（新高考通用）01-2024年秋季高一入学分班考试模拟卷

绝密★考试结束前 2024年秋季高一英语入学分班考试模拟卷（新高考通用）01 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分） 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 做题时，请先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．How much are two pairs of socks? A．3 dollars. B．5 dollars. C．6 dollars. 2．Who is talking to Peter? A．Maria. B．Emily. C．Alice. 3．What will they do this evening? A．Walk the dog. B．Take a walk. C．Eat out. 4．What’s the possible relationship between the two speakers? A．Father and daughter. B．Doctor and patient. C．Waiter and customer. 5．Which girl is the boy’s sister? A．The girl in the short skirt with curly hair. B．The girl in the dress with curly hair. C．The girl in the trousers with straight hair. 第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 　　听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6．What would Tom like to drink? A．Water. B．Tea. C．Juice. 7．What do they think of paper cutting? A．Easy. B．Boring. C．Difficult. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8．Which of the following doesn’t Lisa mention before leaving school? A．Taking some photos. B．Giving gifts to her teachers. C．Writing best wishes to her classmates. 9．When is Lisa going to have a party with her classmates? A．In five years. B．At their school’s 10th anniversary (周年纪念日) ceremony. C．At their school’s 20th anniversary ceremony. 10．What does Lisa’s father do? A．A nurse. B．A Western medicine doctor. C．A traditional Chinese medicine doctor. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11．Why doesn’t the boy prefer Blue Whale Restaurant? A．Its service is bad. B．Its food is expensive. C．It’s too far away from his home. 12．What will the boy do later? A．Buy some drinks. B．Call his classmate. C．Go to Moon Restaurant. 13．When will the speakers get to the restaurant? A．At 11. B．At 11:30. C．At 12. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14．How many flights to Paris are there every week? A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. 15．How will the man get to the airport? A．By car. B．By taxi. C．By bus. 16．How long does it take the man to get to the airport? A．About one and a half hours. B．About two and a half hours. C．About half an hour. 17．How much will the man pay for the ticket? A．$150. B．$200. C．$300. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18．When did George leave university? A．Three years ago. B．Four years ago. C．Five years ago. 19．What is George? A．A student. B．A writer. C．A scientist. 20．How often does George have a French class online? A．Every day. B． Twice a week. C．Once a week. 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A New MessageDear Headmaster, I am happy to recommend Jenny Thompson for the 2024 Youth Star Award. As president of the Community Service Club, Jenny led successful projects like helping younger students and raising over 10, 000 yuan for local shelters. She is always ready to help others. Jenny does well in her studies, especially in Science and Math, and often helps her classmates. She also volunteers at the local food bank and helps people in need. Jenny is a good student and leader. I highly recommend her for the 2024 Youth Star Award. Yours sincerely, David Harrison Community Service Coordinator Sunshine High School 21．This is ________. A．a recommendation letter B．a confirmation letter C．an application letter D．an invitation letter 22．Who is writing this letter? A．The headmaster. B．The president. C．Jenny Thompson. D．David Harrison. 23．What is Jenny like? A．Kind and careful. B．Kind and helpful. C．Energetic and careful. D．Energetic and helpful. B When I was young, I loved paper cutting and I was pretty good at it. As I grew up, I became busy and didn’t have much time for it. Later, I stopped doing it. However, the news I came across online touched my heart and changed my mind. A little girl from Jieyang, Guangdong was practicing lion dance when a professional lion dance performance team (专业舞狮表演队) passed by. As soon as they saw the girl practicing, they started to beat drums and gongs for her and quickly she did a lion dance in return. People around all cheered for her. Her love for the ancient Chinese culture evoked my strong memories of paper cutting. I remembered the happy times of making paper cuttings with my teacher and friends in the club. When I was ten, I joined the paper cutting club. Every Monday and Friday, I learned to make paper cuttings there. Our teacher, Ms. Li, was very talented. With a pair of scissors and a piece of paper, she could create lively works (作品). That amazed us. And we learned much from her. Together, we created lots of works. They covered many topics, including animals, flowers and things about Chinese history. Every time we held a paper cutting show, our works attracted many visitors. The girl in the news encouraged me to go on with paper cutting. I want to be an inheritor (继承者) of the ancient Chinese culture. Together with other inheritors, I hope to pass down our excellent culture. 24．What did the girl do after the team began to beat drums and gongs for her? A．She watched their show carefully. B．She did a lion dance in return. C．She cheered for the team. D．She made a paper cutting for the team. 25．The underlined word “evoked” means “________” in Paragraph 2. A．brought back B．took away C．cut off D．depended on 26．What is the main idea of Paragraph 3? A．The long history of paper cutting. B．The steps of making paper cuttings. C．The writer’s happy times of making paper cuttings. D．The writer’s plans for setting up a paper cutting club. 27．Which of the following is TRUE? A．The writer wasn’t good at paper cutting at a young age. B．Now the writer practices paper cutting twice a week. C．The writer hopes to be an inheritor of paper cutting. D．After watching the news, the writer decided to learn lion dance. C If you get angry many times in a day, it is time for you to think about how to deal with it. Here are some of my suggestions. When you are angry, try to tell yourself through another voice that you are angry and that it is not a bad thing. It just shows that you have different ideas. Accept that many things are not 100% right or wrong. In our communication with others, the final purpose is not to decide who is right and who is wrong, but to look for something in common. If you still feel strong anger, try taking a deep breath (呼吸) and let anger out of your body along with the breath. Don’t say angry words when you are very angry, for you will regret saying them when you cool down. Discussing with a third party is helpful. It is hard for the two parties in anger to understand each other, but the idea of an outsider can help both parties to get mutual (相互的) understanding. Anger is just one of the many emotions (情绪) that make us human, and to well manage it adds to our ability to truly understand the world. 28．What is the final purpose of communication with other people? A．To show different ideas. B．To look for something in common. C．To accept useful suggestions. D．To decide whether one is right or not. 29．What does the writer advise us to do when we can’t cool down? A．Say angry words. B．Try taking a deep breath. C．Control our voices. D．Stop talking with others. 30．What does the underlined word “party” in paragraph 4 mean? A．An activity. B．A visitor. C．A person. D．A meeting. 31．What is the text mainly about? A．How to manage anger. B．How to show feelings. C．How to deal with regrets. D．How to understand the world. D Think about how much time you spent outside last week. Really “outside.” Walking from the car into the mall doesn’t count. Now think about how much time you spent indoors—on the Internet or playing video games or watching TV. You may say, “I play inside more than outside and I like to play games on the computer.” If so, it’s likely that you spent more time inside four walls than outside in fresh air. Kids today spend two fewer hours per week on sports and outdoor activities than kids did 20 years ago. That’s according to a University of Michigan study. Non-moving activities are more popular. The costs “include overweight, greater stress, higher rates of physical and emotional illness and less joy…,” says Richard Louv, writer of Last Child in the Woods: Saving Our Children from Nature-Deficit Disorder. Play is important, even for adults. Outdoor activity betters your senses. The next time you sit down to message your friends, take note of your senses during and after your texting. Then do the same experiment after you’ve done something outside. You will find being outdoors brings the senses to life. “Hiking, exploring, and fishing help hone all of your senses,” says Betsy Keller. She’s a professor of exercise and sports sciences at Ithaca College in New York. “Smell, sight... all of your senses are in use when you’re outside.” Outdoor play frees your mind. Are you stressed out? Having trouble devoting your mind to what you’re doing? Too much time indoors — away from the natural world — may be a cause. Louv uses a term to describe the set of problems caused by too much time indoors: nature deficit disorder. He says, “I use it to describe the price we pay for being so separated from nature.” Spending time outdoors brings you closer to the environment. When you’re out, breathe in fresh air, hear the leaves crackle underfoot and search cool birds and plants in the woods. It can help you feel more connected to the natural world. No woods nearby? Nature can be found right outside your back door or in your local park. So the next time you sit down to spend quality time with a video game, consider treating yourself to a little outdoor play instead. 32．How does the writer first introduce the topic of outdoor play? A．By presenting the results of a recent study. B．By introducing different kinds of outdoor play. C．By inviting the reader to think about his or her own case. D．By telling the reader outdoor play is good for body and mind. 33．Which sentence should go in the empty box in Paragraph 5? A．Outdoor play helps form relationships. B．Just getting outdoors does wonders. C．Nature can remind us of life beyond our worries. D．The outdoors is the best place to practise physical skills. 34．Which word is closest to the meaning of “hone” in Paragraph 6? A．improve B．limit C．produce D．organize 35．Which of the following is a good way to enjoy outdoor play? A．Walking from your car into the mall. B．Spending your quality time with TV drama series. C．Playing a video game of making sandcastles by the beach. D．Watching in your local park how fast the clouds are moving. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 More than two billion tons of rubbish is created around the world every year. Rubbish influences not only the environment but human health. To mark the World Earth Day, let’s learn about the harm rubbish does and 36 A history of rubbish On the Greek island, waste was put in pits (坑) and covered with soil as far back as 5, 000 years ago. 37 However, in many countries, waste was once just left in the streets. In the 19th century, governments realized this caused air pollution and spread diseases. Environmental problems It is said that around one billion tons of waste are burned each year. 38 Burning waste can also produce chemicals that can make people ill. Landfill (废渣埋填法) also causes climate change and pollutes rivers where people get their drinking water. The role of recycling 39 Rubbish that is recycled for future use won’t go into landfills or be burned. Recycling allows the Earth’s natural resources (资源) to be reused to make new products. Natural resources include fuels (燃料) under the ground like gas and oil, and things like fresh water for drinking. 40 Reducing the rubbish and recycling are important for the environment and the planet’s future. World Earth Day 2024 pays attention to the problems caused by rubbish. It has an activity called the Great Global Cleanup to encourage people to pick up rubbish from beaches, parks, rivers and streets. A．Cleaning up B．how we can make a cleaner future. C．Any rubbish is harmful to our environment. D．Recycling is when something is used again. E．This is called “landfill” and is used widely today. F．Everyone should care for wild animals and plant more trees. G．Burning produces carbon dioxide (二氧化碳), causing climate change. 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Before Anne Frank went into hiding with her family, she was a carefree girl like any other. Anne Frank ran down the stairs as fast as she could. She was supposed to do her 41 , but it was so boring. Margot, her perfect sister, might be happy reading books all day, but Anne wasn’t. Other children were already out on the sunny Amsterdam streets. Some were rolling hoops, others doing handstands against the wall. Anne was 42 at handstands, but knew another way to get everyone’s attention. “ 43 this!” she cried, lifting her arm high in the air. Anne waited until everyone was looking at her, then she swung her arm around fast. All the boys 44 and cheered. Hearing the 45 of laughter, Anne’s mother, Edith, looked out the window. “I bet that girl hasn’t done her homework,” she thought. It was always hard with Anne. 46 , she was glad Anne had got used to Amsterdam life so easily. Anne was only seven. That night, Anne’s father, Otto, put Anne to bed as usual. “Tell me a story about Good Paula and Naughty (淘气的) Paula, Daddy!” Anne said, “ 47 I have one about Naughty Paula? She’s more fun.” “Margot 48 Good Paula,” Otto said. “Well she would,” Anne replied, angrily. It was 49 having Margot as an older sister. Otto 50 what she was thinking. “You could be good, too, Anne.” “I’ll try, Daddy, I promise,” Anne said. “ 51 to make you happy!” The next day, when Anne got back from school, Edith was preparing supper. “We have 52 tonight,” she said. “Who’s coming?” Anne asked eagerly. “Miep, from Daddy’s work and her friend Jan.” “Hooray!” Anne cried. 53 the doorbell rang, Anne rushed to let them in. The next moment, she was throwing them 54 . “How are you Miep? What’s it like working for Daddy? Hello Jan!” Then Anne stopped and looked at them 55 , her brown eyes shining with interest. “Ooh! Are you Miep’s boyfriend?” she asked. Edith cut in, “Quiet, Anne!” “Time for supper,” added Otto, gently. 41．A．cooking B．shopping C．homework D．sports 42．A．endless B．fearless C．meaningless D．hopeless 43．A．Watch B．Find C．Confirm D．Search 44．A．jumped B．whispered C．laughed D．rushed 45．A．order B．sound C．call D．voice 46．A．Moreover B．Otherwise C．Anyway D．So 47．A．Can B．Must C．Need D．Should 48．A．wounds B．hates C．surprises D．prefers 49．A．hard B．different C．dangerous D．impossible 50．A．doubted B．guessed C．believed D．proved 51．A．Nothing B．No one C．Anything D．Anyone 52．A．citizens B．hosts C．customers D．guests 53．A．Whenever B．Before C．While D．As soon as 54．A．questions B．dishes C．instructions D．suggestions 55．A．all B．both C．either D．any 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The Shenzhou-18 manned spaceship has been successfully launched (发射) from the Jiuquan Satellite Launch Center. It marks China’s 32nd manned flight into space. At 8: 59 p. m. on April 25, 2024, it 56 (send) three astronauts and nearly 100 experimental boxes (实验柜) to the Tiangong space station. The three astronauts 57 (be) Ye Guangfu, Li Cong and Li Guangsu. They were all born in the 1980s. Ye was one of the 58 (member) of the Shenzhou-l3 mission (任务) from October 2021 59 April 2022. This time, he works as the 60 (lead) of the three astronauts. Both Li Cong 61 Li Guangsu are newcomers to space. During 62 (they) time in space, they will care for the space station to make sure it can work 63 (safe). They will do over 90 experiments. A fish 64 (call) “the 4th member of Shenzhou-18” will be used for an experimental project. The Shenzhou-18 astronauts are planned to return to 65 earth in late October this year. So they will spend about six months on the space station. 第四部分 写作（满分20分） 我国义务教育阶段实施“双减”政策以来，学生拥有更多的课余时间。为了引导学生更好地利用课余时间，增强时间管理意识，学校英语社团以“Making Better Use of Time”为题向学生征文，请你根据下列写作要点写一篇短文投稿。 写作要点： 1．When do you have free time? 2．What do you often do in your free time?（Give 3 examples） 3．Do you think your free time is better used? Why or why not? 要求： 1．短文应包括所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥； 2．短文中不能出现真实的人名、校名、地名等信息； 3．词数80—120，短文开头已给出，不计入总词数。 Making Better Use of Time As a junior high school student, I have got more free time in recent years. ____________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ( 1 )原创精品资源学科网独家享有版权，侵权必究！ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 绝密★考试结束前 2024年秋季高一英语入学分班考试模拟卷（新高考通用）01 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分） 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 做题时，请先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．How much are two pairs of socks? A．3 dollars. B．5 dollars. C．6 dollars. 【答案】B 【原文】 W: I like the blue socks. How much are they? M: 3 dollars for one pair and 5 dollars for two pairs. 2．Who is talking to Peter? A．Maria. B．Emily. C．Alice. 【答案】A 【原文】 W: Hi, Peter! What are you doing? M: Hi, Maria! I’m reading a novel written by Emily Green. 3．What will they do this evening? A．Walk the dog. B．Take a walk. C．Eat out. 【答案】C 【原文】 W: Honey! What would you like to eat this evening? M: Let’s eat outside. I want to eat hot pot. How about you? W: Me, too. 4．What’s the possible relationship between the two speakers? A．Father and daughter. B．Doctor and patient. C．Waiter and customer. 【答案】C 【原文】 W: Welcome to our restaurant. What can I do for you? M: Can I have a look at the menu please? 5．Which girl is the boy’s sister? A．The girl in the short skirt with curly hair. B．The girl in the dress with curly hair. C．The girl in the trousers with straight hair. 【答案】C 【原文】 M: My younger sister starts school today. There she is! W: The girl in the short skirt with curly hair? M: Not her. My sister’s got trousers on. And her hair is straight. 第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 　　听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6．What would Tom like to drink? A．Water. B．Tea. C．Juice. 7．What do they think of paper cutting? A．Easy. B．Boring. C．Difficult. 【答案】6．A 7．C 【原文】 W: Hey, Tom! Please come in. What would you like to drink, tea or juice? M: Neither. Water is OK. W: OK. Here you are. M: Thanks. How beautiful the paper cutting is! Did your mother make it? W: No, my neighbor made it and gave it to me before the Spring Festival, and I put them up on windows, doors and walls as symbols of wishes for good luck. M: It seems to be a difficult job. W: That’s true. Paper cutting sounds easy but it can be difficult to do. I once learned it, but I could only make some easy patterns. M: Really? I want to learn it, too. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8．Which of the following doesn’t Lisa mention before leaving school? A．Taking some photos. B．Giving gifts to her teachers. C．Writing best wishes to her classmates. 9．When is Lisa going to have a party with her classmates? A．In five years. B．At their school’s 10th anniversary (周年纪念日) ceremony. C．At their school’s 20th anniversary ceremony. 10．What does Lisa’s father do? A．A nurse. B．A Western medicine doctor. C．A traditional Chinese medicine doctor. 【答案】8．B 9．C 10．C 【原文】 W: I’m going to take some photos with my teachers and classmates and write best wishes to my classmates. M: Will you miss them? W: Sure, and I’ll remember the past three years of my junior high school life forever. M: When are you going to have a party with your classmates? W: We’ll be back at our school’s 20th anniversary ceremony. M: What do you want to be when you grow up, Lisa? W: I want to be a traditional Chinese medicine doctor. M: But it’s very hard. W: My father is a doctor of traditional Chinese medicine. He has taught me many things. M: Really? That’s great. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11．Why doesn’t the boy prefer Blue Whale Restaurant? A．Its service is bad. B．Its food is expensive. C．It’s too far away from his home. 12．What will the boy do later? A．Buy some drinks. B．Call his classmate. C．Go to Moon Restaurant. 13．When will the speakers get to the restaurant? A．At 11. B．At 11:30. C．At 12. 【答案】11．B 12．B 13．A 【原文】 W: Let’s go out for lunch tomorrow. M: Sounds great. Which restaurant do you prefer? W: Blue Whale Restaurant. The service is great and the dishes are delicious. M: But it’s said the food there is expensive. How about Moon Restaurant? W: That’s OK. How about inviting our classmate Alice? M: Good idea. I will give her a call later. When will we meet? W: Let’s meet at 11:00 in front of the restaurant. There are always many people in the restaurant at weekends. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14．How many flights to Paris are there every week? A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. 15．How will the man get to the airport? A．By car. B．By taxi. C．By bus. 16．How long does it take the man to get to the airport? A．About one and a half hours. B．About two and a half hours. C．About half an hour. 17．How much will the man pay for the ticket? A．$150. B．$200. C．$300. 【答案】14．B 15．C 16．A 17．A 【原文】 M: Good morning. W: Good morning. Can I help you? M: I have to leave for France next week, so I’d like some information about flights to Paris. W: There are flights on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays. M: What time do they leave? W: At 10 am. M: OK. Wednesday is best for me. How can I get to the airport? W: You can take the six o’clock bus from the bus station on Main Street. M: How long does it take? W: About one and a half hours. M: How much is a ticket to Paris? W: It’s 300 dollars, but if you have a student card, you can pay only half of that. M: Yes, I’ve got a student card. Here it is. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18．When did George leave university? A．Three years ago. B．Four years ago. C．Five years ago. 19．What is George? A．A student. B．A writer. C．A scientist. 20．How often does George have a French class online? A．Every day. B． Twice a week. C．Once a week. 【答案】18．A 19．B 20．C 【原文】 George thinks the computer is the most important invention in the world. He got his own computer three years ago when he left university. It was a gift from his father. And the computer has been part of George’s daily life. George is a writer and he writes his articles on the computer most of the time. Sometime she watches movies on it. He also does some shopping on it. And he has an online French class every Sunday morning. George thinks the computer makes his life quite convenient. 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A New MessageDear Headmaster, I am happy to recommend Jenny Thompson for the 2024 Youth Star Award. As president of the Community Service Club, Jenny led successful projects like helping younger students and raising over 10, 000 yuan for local shelters. She is always ready to help others. Jenny does well in her studies, especially in Science and Math, and often helps her classmates. She also volunteers at the local food bank and helps people in need. Jenny is a good student and leader. I highly recommend her for the 2024 Youth Star Award. Yours sincerely, David Harrison Community Service Coordinator Sunshine High School 21．This is ________. A．a recommendation letter B．a confirmation letter C．an application letter D．an invitation letter 22．Who is writing this letter? A．The headmaster. B．The president. C．Jenny Thompson. D．David Harrison. 23．What is Jenny like? A．Kind and careful. B．Kind and helpful. C．Energetic and careful. D．Energetic and helpful. 【参考答案】 21．A 22．D 23．B 【语篇解读】 本文是一封推荐信，David推荐Jenny评选2024年青年之星奖，并对Jenny作出了介绍和评价。 【详情解析】 21．细节理解题。根据“I am happy to recommend Jenny Thompson for the 2024 Youth Star Award.”及“I highly recommend her for the 2024 Youth Star Award.”可知，本文是一封推荐信。故选A。 22．细节理解题。根据“Yours sincerely, David Harrison”可知，这封推荐信是David Harrison写的。故选D。 23．推理判断题。根据“like helping younger students and raising over 10, 000 yuan for local shelters. She is always ready to help others.”、“and often helps her classmates”、“She also volunteers at the local food bank and helps people in need.”可知，Jenny帮助年轻的学生，为当地避难所筹集资金，她还帮助同学等。故可知她是一个善良的且乐于助人的人。故选B。 B When I was young, I loved paper cutting and I was pretty good at it. As I grew up, I became busy and didn’t have much time for it. Later, I stopped doing it. However, the news I came across online touched my heart and changed my mind. A little girl from Jieyang, Guangdong was practicing lion dance when a professional lion dance performance team (专业舞狮表演队) passed by. As soon as they saw the girl practicing, they started to beat drums and gongs for her and quickly she did a lion dance in return. People around all cheered for her. Her love for the ancient Chinese culture evoked my strong memories of paper cutting. I remembered the happy times of making paper cuttings with my teacher and friends in the club. When I was ten, I joined the paper cutting club. Every Monday and Friday, I learned to make paper cuttings there. Our teacher, Ms. Li, was very talented. With a pair of scissors and a piece of paper, she could create lively works (作品). That amazed us. And we learned much from her. Together, we created lots of works. They covered many topics, including animals, flowers and things about Chinese history. Every time we held a paper cutting show, our works attracted many visitors. The girl in the news encouraged me to go on with paper cutting. I want to be an inheritor (继承者) of the ancient Chinese culture. Together with other inheritors, I hope to pass down our excellent culture. 24．What did the girl do after the team began to beat drums and gongs for her? A．She watched their show carefully. B．She did a lion dance in return. C．She cheered for the team. D．She made a paper cutting for the team. 25．The underlined word “evoked” means “________” in Paragraph 2. A．brought back B．took away C．cut off D．depended on 26．What is the main idea of Paragraph 3? A．The long history of paper cutting. B．The steps of making paper cuttings. C．The writer’s happy times of making paper cuttings. D．The writer’s plans for setting up a paper cutting club. 27．Which of the following is TRUE? A．The writer wasn’t good at paper cutting at a young age. B．Now the writer practices paper cutting twice a week. C．The writer hopes to be an inheritor of paper cutting. D．After watching the news, the writer decided to learn lion dance. 【参考答案】 24．B 25．A 26．C 27．C 【语篇解读】 本文作者介绍自己与中国传统文化的羁绊，希望和其他传承人一起，把中国优秀的文化传承下去。 【详情解析】 24．细节理解题。根据“As soon as they saw the girl practicing, they started to beat drums and gongs for her and quickly she did a lion dance in return.”可知，他们一看到女孩在练习，就开始为她敲锣打鼓，很快她就跳了一个舞狮作为回报。故选B。 25．词句猜测题。根据“People around all cheered for her. Her love for the ancient Chinese culture evoked my strong memories of paper cutting.”可知，周围的人都为她欢呼，她对中国古代文化的热爱……了我对剪纸的强烈回忆。作者回忆起自己以前剪纸，所以此处“evoked”的意思是“唤起”，故选A。 26．段落大意题。分析第三段内容可知，本段主要介绍作者剪纸时的快乐时光，故选C。 27．细节理解题。根据“The girl in the news encouraged me to go on with paper cutting. I want to be an inheritor (继承者) of the ancient Chinese culture.”可知，作者希望成为剪纸的传承人。故选C。 C If you get angry many times in a day, it is time for you to think about how to deal with it. Here are some of my suggestions. When you are angry, try to tell yourself through another voice that you are angry and that it is not a bad thing. It just shows that you have different ideas. Accept that many things are not 100% right or wrong. In our communication with others, the final purpose is not to decide who is right and who is wrong, but to look for something in common. If you still feel strong anger, try taking a deep breath (呼吸) and let anger out of your body along with the breath. Don’t say angry words when you are very angry, for you will regret saying them when you cool down. Discussing with a third party is helpful. It is hard for the two parties in anger to understand each other, but the idea of an outsider can help both parties to get mutual (相互的) understanding. Anger is just one of the many emotions (情绪) that make us human, and to well manage it adds to our ability to truly understand the world. 28．What is the final purpose of communication with other people? A．To show different ideas. B．To look for something in common. C．To accept useful suggestions. D．To decide whether one is right or not. 29．What does the writer advise us to do when we can’t cool down? A．Say angry words. B．Try taking a deep breath. C．Control our voices. D．Stop talking with others. 30．What does the underlined word “party” in paragraph 4 mean? A．An activity. B．A visitor. C．A person. D．A meeting. 31．What is the text mainly about? A．How to manage anger. B．How to show feelings. C．How to deal with regrets. D．How to understand the world. 【参考答案】 28．B 29．B 30．C 31．A 【语篇解读】 本文主要介绍了如何处理生气这种情绪。 【详情解析】 28．细节理解题。根据“the final purpose is not to decide who is right and who is wrong, but to look for something in common”可知，最终目的不是决定谁对谁错，而是寻找共同之处。故选B。 29．细节理解题。根据“If you still feel strong anger, try taking a deep breath (呼吸) and let anger out of your body along with the breath. ”可知，应该要深呼吸，故选B。 30．词义猜测题。根据“but the idea of an outsider can help both parties to get mutual (相互的) understanding.”可知，局外人的想法可以帮助双方获得相互理解，所以这里指的是第三方人，故选C。 31．主旨大意题。根据“If you get angry many times in a day, it is time for you to think about how to deal with it. Here are some of my suggestions.”可知，本文主要介绍了如何处理生气这种情绪。故选A。 D Think about how much time you spent outside last week. Really “outside.” Walking from the car into the mall doesn’t count. Now think about how much time you spent indoors—on the Internet or playing video games or watching TV. You may say, “I play inside more than outside and I like to play games on the computer.” If so, it’s likely that you spent more time inside four walls than outside in fresh air. Kids today spend two fewer hours per week on sports and outdoor activities than kids did 20 years ago. That’s according to a University of Michigan study. Non-moving activities are more popular. The costs “include overweight, greater stress, higher rates of physical and emotional illness and less joy…,” says Richard Louv, writer of Last Child in the Woods: Saving Our Children from Nature-Deficit Disorder. Play is important, even for adults. Outdoor activity betters your senses. The next time you sit down to message your friends, take note of your senses during and after your texting. Then do the same experiment after you’ve done something outside. You will find being outdoors brings the senses to life. “Hiking, exploring, and fishing help hone all of your senses,” says Betsy Keller. She’s a professor of exercise and sports sciences at Ithaca College in New York. “Smell, sight... all of your senses are in use when you’re outside.” Outdoor play frees your mind. Are you stressed out? Having trouble devoting your mind to what you’re doing? Too much time indoors — away from the natural world — may be a cause. Louv uses a term to describe the set of problems caused by too much time indoors: nature deficit disorder. He says, “I use it to describe the price we pay for being so separated from nature.” Spending time outdoors brings you closer to the environment. When you’re out, breathe in fresh air, hear the leaves crackle underfoot and search cool birds and plants in the woods. It can help you feel more connected to the natural world. No woods nearby? Nature can be found right outside your back door or in your local park. So the next time you sit down to spend quality time with a video game, consider treating yourself to a little outdoor play instead. 32．How does the writer first introduce the topic of outdoor play? A．By presenting the results of a recent study. B．By introducing different kinds of outdoor play. C．By inviting the reader to think about his or her own case. D．By telling the reader outdoor play is good for body and mind. 33．Which sentence should go in the empty box in Paragraph 5? A．Outdoor play helps form relationships. B．Just getting outdoors does wonders. C．Nature can remind us of life beyond our worries. D．The outdoors is the best place to practise physical skills. 34．Which word is closest to the meaning of “hone” in Paragraph 6? A．improve B．limit C．produce D．organize 35．Which of the following is a good way to enjoy outdoor play? A．Walking from your car into the mall. B．Spending your quality time with TV drama series. C．Playing a video game of making sandcastles by the beach. D．Watching in your local park how fast the clouds are moving. 【参考答案】 32．C 33．B 34．A 35．D 【语篇解读】 本文主要介绍了户外运动的好处。 【详情解析】 32．细节理解题。根据“Think about how much time you spent outside last week”可知作者通过让读者思考自己在户外待了多长时间来引出话题。故选C。 33．推理判断题。根据“Play is important, even for adults”以及“Outdoor activity betters your senses.”并结合下文内容可知玩很重要，所以此处引出户外运动的好处，选项B“只是到户外就有神奇的效果”符合语境。故选B。 34．词义猜测题。根据“You will find being outdoors brings the senses to life. ‘Hiking, exploring, and fishing help hone all of your senses’”可知户外活动给生活带来了感官，徒步旅行、探险和钓鱼有助于磨练你的所有感官，故此处划线部分和improve意义相近。故选A。 35．推理判断题。根据“Nature can be found right outside your back door or in your local park.”可知大自然就在你的后门外或你当地的公园里，所以在你当地的公园里观察云朵移动的速度有多快，这是享受户外运动的好方式。故选D。 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 More than two billion tons of rubbish is created around the world every year. Rubbish influences not only the environment but human health. To mark the World Earth Day, let’s learn about the harm rubbish does and 36 A history of rubbish On the Greek island, waste was put in pits (坑) and covered with soil as far back as 5, 000 years ago. 37 However, in many countries, waste was once just left in the streets. In the 19th century, governments realized this caused air pollution and spread diseases. Environmental problems It is said that around one billion tons of waste are burned each year. 38 Burning waste can also produce chemicals that can make people ill. Landfill (废渣埋填法) also causes climate change and pollutes rivers where people get their drinking water. The role of recycling 39 Rubbish that is recycled for future use won’t go into landfills or be burned. Recycling allows the Earth’s natural resources (资源) to be reused to make new products. Natural resources include fuels (燃料) under the ground like gas and oil, and things like fresh water for drinking. 40 Reducing the rubbish and recycling are important for the environment and the planet’s future. World Earth Day 2024 pays attention to the problems caused by rubbish. It has an activity called the Great Global Cleanup to encourage people to pick up rubbish from beaches, parks, rivers and streets. A．Cleaning up B．how we can make a cleaner future. C．Any rubbish is harmful to our environment. D．Recycling is when something is used again. E．This is called “landfill” and is used widely today. F．Everyone should care for wild animals and plant more trees. G．Burning produces carbon dioxide (二氧化碳), causing climate change. 【参考答案】 36．B 37．E 38．G 39．D 40．A 【语篇解读】 本文主要介绍了垃圾的危害以及如何创造一个更清洁的未来。 【详情解析】 36．根据“To mark the World Earth Day, let’s learn about the harm rubbish does and”可知，为了纪念世界地球日，让我们一起来了解垃圾的危害，故接下来是说应该如何做，选项B “我们怎样才能创造一个更干净的未来” 符合语境。故选B。 37．根据“On the Greek island, waste was put in pits (坑) and covered with soil as far back as 5, 000 years ago”可知，早在5000年前，希腊岛上的垃圾就被放入坑中，并被泥土覆盖，选项E “这被称为‘垃圾填埋场’，在今天被广泛使用”符合语境。故选E。 38．根据“It is said that around one billion tons of waste are burned each year”可知，据说，每年大约有10亿吨垃圾被焚烧，故接下来应介绍这样做带来的危害，选项G “燃烧产生二氧化碳，导致气候变化” 符合语境。故选G。 39．根据“The role of recycling”和“Rubbish that is recycled for future use won’t go into landfills or be burned”可知，此处在介绍回收利用，故空格处内容应与回收利用相关，选项D “回收是指某物被再次使用”符合语境。故选D。 40．根据“World Earth Day 2024 pays attention to the problems caused by rubbish. It has an activity called the Great Global Cleanup to encourage people to pick up rubbish from beaches, parks, rivers and streets”可知，2024年世界地球日关注垃圾造成的问题。它有一个名为“全球大清理”的活动，鼓励人们从海滩、公园、河流和街道上捡起垃圾，故本段与垃圾清理相关，选项A “清理” 符合语境。故选A。 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Before Anne Frank went into hiding with her family, she was a carefree girl like any other. Anne Frank ran down the stairs as fast as she could. She was supposed to do her 41 , but it was so boring. Margot, her perfect sister, might be happy reading books all day, but Anne wasn’t. Other children were already out on the sunny Amsterdam streets. Some were rolling hoops, others doing handstands against the wall. Anne was 42 at handstands, but knew another way to get everyone’s attention. “ 43 this!” she cried, lifting her arm high in the air. Anne waited until everyone was looking at her, then she swung her arm around fast. All the boys 44 and cheered. Hearing the 45 of laughter, Anne’s mother, Edith, looked out the window. “I bet that girl hasn’t done her homework,” she thought. It was always hard with Anne. 46 , she was glad Anne had got used to Amsterdam life so easily. Anne was only seven. That night, Anne’s father, Otto, put Anne to bed as usual. “Tell me a story about Good Paula and Naughty (淘气的) Paula, Daddy!” Anne said, “ 47 I have one about Naughty Paula? She’s more fun.” “Margot 48 Good Paula,” Otto said. “Well she would,” Anne replied, angrily. It was 49 having Margot as an older sister. Otto 50 what she was thinking. “You could be good, too, Anne.” “I’ll try, Daddy, I promise,” Anne said. “ 51 to make you happy!” The next day, when Anne got back from school, Edith was preparing supper. “We have 52 tonight,” she said. “Who’s coming?” Anne asked eagerly. “Miep, from Daddy’s work and her friend Jan.” “Hooray!” Anne cried. 53 the doorbell rang, Anne rushed to let them in. The next moment, she was throwing them 54 . “How are you Miep? What’s it like working for Daddy? Hello Jan!” Then Anne stopped and looked at them 55 , her brown eyes shining with interest. “Ooh! Are you Miep’s boyfriend?” she asked. Edith cut in, “Quiet, Anne!” “Time for supper,” added Otto, gently. 41．A．cooking B．shopping C．homework D．sports 42．A．endless B．fearless C．meaningless D．hopeless 43．A．Watch B．Find C．Confirm D．Search 44．A．jumped B．whispered C．laughed D．rushed 45．A．order B．sound C．call D．voice 46．A．Moreover B．Otherwise C．Anyway D．So 47．A．Can B．Must C．Need D．Should 48．A．wounds B．hates C．surprises D．prefers 49．A．hard B．different C．dangerous D．impossible 50．A．doubted B．guessed C．believed D．proved 51．A．Nothing B．No one C．Anything D．Anyone 52．A．citizens B．hosts C．customers D．guests 53．A．Whenever B．Before C．While D．As soon as 54．A．questions B．dishes C．instructions D．suggestions 55．A．all B．both C．either D．any 【参考答案】 41． C 42．D 43．A 44．C 45．B 46．C 47．A 48．D 49．A 50．B 51．C 52．D 53．D 54．A 55．B 【语篇解读】 本文是一篇记叙文，文章讲述了主人公安妮儿时在阿姆斯特丹生活时的趣事。 【详情解析】 41．句意：她本应该做家庭作业，但这太无聊了。 cooking烹饪；shopping购物；homework家庭作业；sports体育运动。根据“but it was so boring”及“I bet that girl hasn’t done her homework”可知，安妮应该做作业，但是她认为这很无聊。故选C。 42．句意：安妮不擅长倒立，但她知道另一种吸引大家注意的方法。 endless无止境的；fearless无畏的；meaningless无意义的；hopeless绝望的。根据“but knew another way to get everyone’s attention.”可知，安妮因为不擅长倒立，所以想到另一个可以吸引孩子们注意力的方法。be hopeless at“在……方面没有希望”。故选D。 43．句意：看这个！ Watch看；Find发现；Confirm确认；Search搜寻。根据“she cried, lifting her arm high in the air.”可知，安妮希望其他孩子看自己。故选A。 44．句意：所有的男孩都笑了起来，欢呼起来。 jumped跳；whispered低语；laughed笑；rushed冲向。根据下文“Hearing the…of laughter”可知，孩子们看到安妮的举动笑了起来。故选C。 45．句意：听到笑声，安妮的母亲伊迪丝向窗外望去。 order秩序；sound声音；call召唤；voice嗓音。根据“All the boys…and cheered.”可知，安妮的母亲听到了孩子们的笑声，应用sound。故选B。 46．句意：不管怎样，她很高兴安妮很容易就适应了阿姆斯特丹的生活。 Moreover而且；Otherwise否则；Anyway无论如何；So因此。根据“It was always hard with Anne. …, she was glad Anne had got used to Amsterdam life so easily”可知，做作业对安妮来说很困难，但是不管怎样，安妮的母亲还是很高兴女儿适应了在阿姆斯特丹的生活。故选C。 47．句意：我能听听淘气宝拉的故事吗? Can能够；Must必须；Need需要；Should应该。根据“…I have one about Naughty Paula?”可知，此处是安妮请求爸爸给自己讲淘气宝拉的故事，表示请求，用Can。故选A。 48．句意：“玛格特更喜欢好宝拉，”奥托说。 wounds使受伤；hates憎恨；surprises使惊讶；prefers更喜欢。根据“‘Well she would,’ Anne replied, angrily.”可知，安妮想听淘气宝拉的故事，但是玛戈特更喜欢好宝拉，所以安妮生气。故选D。 49．句意：有玛戈特这样的姐姐很难。 hard艰难的；different不同的；dangerous危险的；impossible不可能的。根据“It was…having Margot as an older sister.”可知，安妮认为姐姐玛戈特喜欢好宝拉，自己却喜欢淘气的宝拉，姐姐比自己好，故安妮认为有这样的姐姐相对比，自己情况很难。故选A。 50．句意：奥托猜到了她在想什么。 doubted怀疑；guessed猜测；believed相信；proved证明。根据“Otto…what she was thinking. ‘You could be good, too, Anne.’”可知，爸爸猜到了安妮的想法，于是安慰安妮。故选B。 51．句意：任何能让你快乐的事！ Nothing没有什么；No one没有人；Anything任何事情；Anyone任何人。根据“…to make you happy!”可知，爸爸安慰了安妮，安妮可以做任何事情来让爸爸开心。故选C。 52．句意：“我们今晚有客人，”她说。 citizens市民；hosts主人；customers顾客；guests客人。根据“Miep, from Daddy’s work and her friend Jan.”可知，爸爸的同事及同事的朋友会来安妮家做客，所以妈妈准备晚餐。故选D。 53．句意：门铃一响，安妮就冲过去让他们进来。 Whenever无论何时；Before在……之前；While当……时；As soon as一……就……。根据“…the doorbell rang, Anne rushed to let them in.”可知，此处指门铃一响，安妮就冲过去开门，用as soon as引导时间状语从句。故选D。 54．句意：下一刻，她向他们抛出了问题。 questions问题；dishes碟，盘；instructions指示；suggestions建议。根据“‘How are you Miep? What’s it like working for Daddy? Hello Jan!’”可知，安妮向客人问了很多问题。故选A。 55． 句意：然后安妮停下来看着他们两个，棕色的眼睛充满兴趣地闪闪发光。 all三者及以上都；both两者都；either两者中任一个；any任何。根据“How are you Miep? What’s it like working for Daddy? Hello Jan!”可知，安妮询问来做客的两位客人，问了他们问题，并且看着他们两个，表示两者都，应用both。故选B。 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The Shenzhou-18 manned spaceship has been successfully launched (发射) from the Jiuquan Satellite Launch Center. It marks China’s 32nd manned flight into space. At 8: 59 p. m. on April 25, 2024, it 56 (send) three astronauts and nearly 100 experimental boxes (实验柜) to the Tiangong space station. The three astronauts 57 (be) Ye Guangfu, Li Cong and Li Guangsu. They were all born in the 1980s. Ye was one of the 58 (member) of the Shenzhou-l3 mission (任务) from October 2021 59 April 2022. This time, he works as the 60 (lead) of the three astronauts. Both Li Cong 61 Li Guangsu are newcomers to space. During 62 (they) time in space, they will care for the space station to make sure it can work 63 (safe). They will do over 90 experiments. A fish 64 (call) “the 4th member of Shenzhou-18” will be used for an experimental project. The Shenzhou-18 astronauts are planned to return to 65 earth in late October this year. So they will spend about six months on the space station. 【参考答案】 56． sent 57．are 58．members 59．to 60．leader 61．and 62．their 63．safely 64．called 65．the 【语篇解读】 本文介绍了神舟十八号的航天员以及航天任务、行程等。 【详情解析】 56．句意：2024年4月25日晚8点59分，中国航天局将3名航天员和近100个实验柜送往天宫空间站。send“发送”，动词。根据“At 8: 59 p. m. on April 25, 2024”可知，时态是一般过去时，谓语动词用其过去式。故填sent。 57．句意：这三名宇航员分别是叶光富、李聪和李广苏。本句陈述事实，是一般现在时，主语是复数，be动词用are。故填are。 58．句意：叶是2021年10月至2022年4月神舟三号任务的成员之一。member“成员”，可数名词。one of the+名词复数，意为“……之一”。故填members。 59．句意：叶是2021年10月至2022年4月神舟三号任务的成员之一。from…to…“从……到……”，固定搭配。故填to。 60．句意：这一次，他是三名宇航员中的领导者。lead“领导”，动词。此处指叶光富是三人中的领导者。leader“领导”，可数名词，用其单数形式。故填leader。 61．句意：李聪和李广苏都是太空新人。both…and“两者都……”，固定搭配。故填and。 62．句意：在太空期间，他们将照顾空间站，确保它能安全工作。they“他们”，人称代词。此处应用形容词性物主代词their，作定语修饰time。故填their。 63．句意：在太空期间，他们将照顾空间站，确保它能安全工作。safe“安全的”，形容词。此处用其副词形式safely，修饰动词work。故填safely。 64．句意：一种名为“神舟十八号”的鱼将被用于一个实验项目。call“称为”，动词。此处用其过去分词形式called，作后置定语修饰名词fish。故填called。 65．句意：神舟十八号航天员计划于今年十月下旬返回地球。此处缺少冠词，earth“地球”是世界上独一无二的物体，其前应加定冠词the。故填the。 第四部分 写作（满分20分） 我国义务教育阶段实施“双减”政策以来，学生拥有更多的课余时间。为了引导学生更好地利用课余时间，增强时间管理意识，学校英语社团以“Making Better Use of Time”为题向学生征文，请你根据下列写作要点写一篇短文投稿。 写作要点： 1．When do you have free time? 2．What do you often do in your free time?（Give 3 examples） 3．Do you think your free time is better used? Why or why not? 要求： 1．短文应包括所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥； 2．短文中不能出现真实的人名、校名、地名等信息； 3．词数80—120，短文开头已给出，不计入总词数。 Making Better Use of Time As a junior high school student, I have got more free time in recent years. ____________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【参考答案】 Making Better Use of Time As a junior high school student, I have got more free time in recent years. I am always free on weekends. When I am free, I have many activities. I usually play the piano and football. I like playing football very much. If I have time, I often go to the park with my friends to play football on weekends. I have piano lessons twice a week. I also have plenty of time to exercise in the evening. Sometimes, my parents and I look at the stars outside. I think my free time is better used because I do what I want to do and I balance study and entertainment. 【详情解析】 [总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：时态为一般现在时； ③提示：根据提示内容介绍自己的课余时间活动，适当增加细节。 [写作步骤] 第一步，介绍自己什么时候有空闲时间； 第二步，介绍自己空闲时间的活动； 第三步，介绍自己是否利用好自己的空闲时间以及原因。 [亮点词汇] ①on weekends在周末 ②plenty of大量的 ③look at看 [高分句型] ①When I am free, I have many activities. (when引导的时间状语从句) ②I think my free time is better used because I do what I want to do and I balance study and entertainment. (because引导的原因状语从句，what引导的宾语从句) ( 1 )原创精品资源学科网独家享有版权，侵权必究！ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$null 2024年秋季高一英语入学分班考试模拟卷（新高考通用） 英语·答案及评分标准 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 B A C C C A C B C C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 B B A B C A A A B C 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A D B B A C C B B C 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A C B A D B E G D A 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 C D A C B C A D A B 51 52 53 54 55 C D D A B 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 55． sent 57．are 58．members 59．to 60．leader 61．and 62．their 63．safely 64．called 65．the 第四部分 写作（共一节，满分20分） 【参考范文】 Making Better Use of Time As a junior high school student, I have got more free time in recent years. I am always free on weekends. When I am free, I have many activities. I usually play the piano and football. I like playing football very much. If I have time, I often go to the park with my friends to play football on weekends. I have piano lessons twice a week. I also have plenty of time to exercise in the evening. Sometimes, my parents and I look at the stars outside. I think my free time is better used because I do what I want to do and I balance study and entertainment. 应用文写作评分标准 一、评分原则 1. 本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。 2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3. 词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。 4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 6. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 档次 描述 第五档 (17～20分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 - 覆盖所有内容要点。 - 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 - 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但因尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 - 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档 (13～16分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 - 虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 - 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 - 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 - 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档 (9～12分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 - 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 - 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 - 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 - 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档 (5～8分) 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 - 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 - 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 - 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 - 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档 (1～4分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 - 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 - 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 - 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 - 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 英语 答案及评分标准 第5页（共5页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$■■ ■ 2024年秋季高一入学分班考试模拟卷（新高考通用）01 峰在泽唐百)裤线内作行，型山时白知形指鼎是定民线的脊实毛教 英语·答题卡 第周图分作(20分】 斯条感列区 Making Retter Use af Time 3 3 3 0123 1 1 2 23 准考正号网填环清绝。料 3 直哈查亞考质所站的展两 4667 意是8境捷用迅相第请逢 4567 012345678 4 5 012345678 保色池的莲学写，学体顿 567 5 67 7 567 567 567 气请技题牛在各程的花题区内作苦，出着整区城班军 答案无效，在量凭：试非上作客无效 8 8 浪，妖刀。 9 9 9 9 正填涂 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 11a1HB11C1 IAjISIICI 口1A1H11C 161411B11Ct IAIBHCI IAIIBHCI 日IA111IC1 17141Hn11C ,【AHB时iC 多1AI[ItC1 1移1AIIC 18141HB11C 4IAIBHCI ，14I■IC1 MLAIIRIICI 191A1101HC 5 IAJI8IICI 1o 1AHIBIICI 51411B1C IAHB11C IIAI●1EC1IDI 2IAII■IC1IDI LAINIICIEDIIKIIFIGI 2214IIC11D (AIIIICIIRI 卫【4111IC1D1 IAHBIICHDIIKHIGI 231 AIIBIIC1ID网 2814111C111 g141111C1ID IAIIBIICIIDIIKIIFI1GI 4IAIIBIICHDI 31A1HHG1D时 34141II1C1tD1 81411B1CD11511F110 25IAIIBIICIIDI 301411s1C11D1 LAIIBIICILDILKIIFJIGI 4IAH每IC1HD可 格1A11s1IC11D叫 9【4111IC1D 经AHC1D P1s1iHCI时 1AIIBIICIIDI IAIIBIIC]IDI 移14甘CI IAJIBIICIIDI IAIIBHCHDI 象A1川C1 M【4 118IICHPI IAIIBIICHIDI 9141181C111 81A1111C1D 非选择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 第三分了写用《其背节，满分30分) 第二节（共10小圈：棒小湖15分，满分15分） 列 58 61 62 63 64 6 市在各题月的行足（城中行容。起量色形左以K线的炸溪七装： W正各题日的养划以1城内作带。桂出里色无死速4减弟养浆无效！ 动第1（共2风） 得第2互典1风■ ■ 2024年秋季高一入学分班考试模拟卷（新高考通用）01 请在养睡程的静理国适内作容。相法黑危使伤功修则定线的等室大着 英语·答题卡 第四能分可作(2如分) 姓 名 贴条形码区 laking Becter Us疑of Time 准考证可 标记 As a junice high school sadert.I hine pot more free line in reeent years 0 1 1 1 2 2 2 1。答到前。考生先河自己的性名，道号正写环写清明，作 3 3 3 真险香的考员所的条形。 4 4 汤怪见论质使用当格笔消涂：作试译影必质用红5甲 色字境的子填写，字体工 6 6 1.调拔最号深序在各题的馨题区内作落，易出需区城览国 6 6 6 6 的溶案无效，在，试整上作无 7 7 4.保持卡面清清，不和要折量、烫弄建，海糖不石使用津 g 9 9 9 9 天正确填烧 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂】 IAIIRIICI 61AIB1月e #1411811C1 w IAIIBIICI 21A1H41IC1 T IAIIRIICI 13EAiH得IiC1 131A1H量HC1 31A1I81HC1 多1AB1IC1 13 IAIIBITCI B1A1181IC1 数 41411a11e1 车1AH垂11e1 H IAIIBIICI 锌1A目量山C可 91A11n1C Ie【AIH年IICI I IAIIRIICI IAIIBIICI 211a害I1C1HB1 IAJIAJICIIRE 3月(AII得ILC110 IAIIRIICHNIIEIIFIIGI 柱1A1H11C1B 计【AHie11可 从【AIIRIIC1H 91A1181G110I8IG B IAJIBIICIIDI 2注AIC1IB1 IAIIBEICIIBI IAIIBIICJIDIIEIIFIIGI ￥4Af811e11e1 转A1C11非 4141肆0411# 样1A1141Ie111#F11e g.1A月c1HD 及【AIIBIIC1ID IAIIBIICIIDIEEEFIIGI A IAHBJICIIDI %AIE■IC11B1 写IAIIBIEC1HD 蜜 44As月七11s月 行1A1H#Ie11t 对1A11eHC11 g1A器e1iB 塘AH8小e11可 S IAIISIICIIDI 441a1计#1C1i1 4等1A11310110 41411atC10 g1AI事目C1HD1 第AH■11C11D1 5琴1A1In1IC11D 非迭择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 第三部滑雷高坛用（共雨下。满分对分》 第二节（共10小想：每小题15分。满分15分）》 57 50 62 65 请在各题目的容想以城内作形，县思色取易心虹电位区城的蓉家无效： 请在各超目的容超城内作落，植山制色电形山限建《域打许无七效： 笑语第1自（供2数） 首倍第2数（关1风）