内容正文:
2023-2024学年度下学期期末学业水平质量调研试题
七年级英语 2024. 07
(时间 90 分钟 总分100分)
注意事项:
1.本试卷共8页。答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号填写在答题纸和答题卡规定的位置。考试结束后,将答题纸交回。
2.非选择题答在答题纸上,答在本试卷上不得分。
一、听力测试(共20小题,计20分)
注意:听力测试分四部分,共20小题。做题时,请先将答案画在试卷上,录音内容结束后,将所选答案转涂到答题卡上。
(一)听对话,选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每组对话读两遍。
A B C
D E F
1. __________ 2. __________ 3. __________ 4. __________ 5. __________
(二)听对话,根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。对话和问题读两遍。
6. What club is the girl in?
A. The art club. B. The sports club. C. The dancing club.
7. What is Cindy doing?
A. Watching movies. B. Doing homework. C. Practicing the guitar.
8. Where is the dining hall?
A. Next to the library. B. Behind the library. C. In front of the library.
9. What does Eric think of the police artists’ job?
A. Exciting. B. Interesting. C. Difficult.
10. What does Peter eat on his birthday?
A. Birthday cake. B. Long noodles. C. Candies.
(三)听短文,根据短文内容,判断下列句子正误,正确的用“A”表示,不正确的用“B”表示。短文读两遍。听短文前,你们有20秒钟的时间阅读下列句子。
11. Mary and her classmates went to a farm on foot yesterday.
12. Mary saw horses and cows on the farm.
13. Mary’s teacher picked some apples and strawberries.
14. Mary bought some flowers for her parents.
15. Mary had a fun class trip.
(四)听对话,根据对话内容完成下列句子,每空词数不限。对话读三遍。听对话前,你们有20秒钟的时间阅读下列句子。
16. What’s Ben’s grandmother good at?
She is good at ________________________.
17. What does Ben’s mother look like?
She has a ________________________ face with long curly hair.
18. Where does Ben’s father work?
He works in a ________________________.
19. What did Ben’s family do last weekend?
They ________________________ in the park.
20. What does Lily think of Ben’s family?
It’s a ________________________ family.
二、阅读理解(共15小题;21—23每小题1分,24—35每小题2分,计27分)
(一)阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。
A
Ruth is a student of Grade 7. This is the map of her neighborhood. It is a quiet neighborhood. Ruth loves it. Her friends Ariana, David and Catherine live here too. They go to the same school, but they are not in the same class.
21. Whose house is across from the park?
A. Ruth’s. B. Ariana’s. C. David’s.
22. If Ruth goes to school from her house, she needs to __________.
A. walk along Berry Drive and it’s on the right
B. go along Fifth Street and then turn right
C. walk to the end of Main Street and turn left
23. What can we know from the passage (短文)?
A. Ruth loves her neighborhood.
B. Catherine lives in a noisy neighborhood.
C. There is a post office next to the supermarket.
B
Do you know a “China burger”? China burgers are getting popular. Take Roujiamo (肉夹馍) as an example. It is a street food and is also known as the Chinese hamburger or meat burger. A lot of people in China love eating it.
Now there are many restaurants with China burgers, such as Tastien (塔斯汀), JiaGuoLong Burger (贾国龙汉堡), Ranxiong and so on. They are like McDonald’s, KFC or Burger King, but more Chinese. Now many people want to try them.
A few days ago, I wanted to try something special from Tastien. So I ordered a Beijing roast duck (北京烤鸭) burger and orange juice. When I got my food, I loved the packaging. The paper bag and boxes came in red, white and blue colors. They also had the words “Made in China” on them. The burger is really good. It has the Beijing roast duck meat with some vegetables and plum sauce (梅子酱). But it still has its problems. The roast duck did not have thin and crispy skin (脆皮) like it does in the Beijing duck restaurants. Even so, I have to say it’s really delicious food. It opens the door for me to try more different burgers.
24. What does the writer order from Tastien?
A. A Beijing roast duck and orange juice.
B. A burger and a drink.
C. A Roujiamo and orange juice.
25. What does the underlined (下划线) word “packaging” mean in Chinese?
A. 包装 B. 味道 C. 形状
26. Why does the writer think the Beijing roast duck burger has problems?
A. Because the duck meat is not delicious.
B. Because it has no vegetables and sauce.
C. Because the skin of the roast duck is not crispy.
27. What does the passage mainly (主要地) talk about?
A. Chinese fast food. B. Chinese restaurants. C. Chinese street food.
C
On weekends, schools are always quiet. But at Furong School in Changsha, Hunan, it’s noisy. Are people building new houses? Are students having classes? No, children are doing different kinds of activities (活动) here. Why don’t they go home on weekends? They are left-behind (留守的) children. Their parents are not at home. So the school lets them stay here on weekends.
There are clubs for painting, table tennis and others. Students can join clubs they like. They think these activities are relaxing and interesting.
A student named Haohao liked playing phone games in his free time. “Every time I went back home, my son was playing games on his phone. I worried about him, but I didn’t know how to stop him,” the boy’s father says. But now Haohao is interested in playing sports after he joined the school basketball club. “Trying to win the game makes me happy,” he says.
Sun Rong, a student of Grade 8, thanks the school very much. He joined the model plane club. The club makes him feel closer to his dream.
Huang Ying joined the table tennis club. He often watches table tennis games on TV. For him, the sport is cool. So when he plays in the club at school he feels happy. Now he is a good table tennis player.
28. Why is Furong School in Changsha, Hunan always noisy on weekends?
A. Because children are having classes.
B. Because there are interesting activities.
C. Because people are building new houses.
29. Haohao’s father worried that __________.
A. his son was not good at studying at school
B. his son was not interested in playing sports
C. his son couldn’t stop playing phone games
30. Huang Ying thinks it is cool to __________.
A. play table tennis B. be a tennis player C. watch games on TV
31.Which is the best structure (结构) of the passage?
(二)阅读下面短文,根据短文内容,从文后选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
D
School trips are very popular these days, but are they really helpful for students? The American Travel Association (协会) made a study and found out school trips are good to students. 32 Here are some tips (建议).
First of all, make a plan. 33 We can talk about them with our teachers and classmates. During the trip, focus on our goals (目标).
Then, be careful. A school trip should be many days off. Safety (安全) is the most important. We need to listen to our guide carefully. 34 Try to learn some first aid knowledge (急救知识).
Finally, write it down. When we come back, we can write down our favorite things or people on the trip. 35
School trips can open our eyes and help us learn more about the world. They can also do good to our homework. So, do you want to have a school trip?
A. It can help us remember the trip well.
B. What is a good trip?
C. Don’t go to dangerous places.
D. How can we have a great school trip?
E. We need to think about where we want to go and what we will do there.
三、语言运用(共20小题;每小题1分,计20分)
A. 阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从方框中选出恰当的单词或短语填空,使语意通顺完整。第一个方框供36—40小题选用,第二个方框供41—45小题选用。每个选项只能使用一次,每框有一项剩余。
A. to see B. farming C. stay D. joined E. flowers F. watching
Sarah’s grandparents live in the countryside. Sarah visits them every month. She likes to 36 on her grandparents’ farm and help them. Last year, she 37 a gardening club in her school and it brought her a lot of happiness.
In the gardening club, Sarah learned a lot about 38 . She enjoyed getting her hands dirty. She planted seeds (种下种子) and watered the plants there. She spent many afternoons in the school garden 39 the plants. Every time she saw the small seedlings grow into beautiful 40 , she felt very happy.
A. problems B. very C. used D. surprises E. really F. made some friends
Sarah also 41 in the club.They often worked together and learned farming knowledge (知识). When they met 42 in the garden, they helped each other.
The garden often gave teachers and students 43 . They can eat fresh tomatoes and other vegetables in the garden. Sometimes, they 44 their flowers to make beautiful bouquets (花束) and gave it to their teachers.
“We 45 love our small garden. It makes our school days interesting. I hope more students can join us.” Sarah said.
B. 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
There are four seasons in a year. They 46 (be) spring, summer, autumn and winter. I have many friends. They like different seasons. It’s warm and 47 (sun) in spring. Some friends like spring. They often fly kites. It’s hot in summer. Some friends like swimming, so they like summer. Some people like autumn 48 it is cool. I like winter and I like making 49 (snowman) very much.
I had 50 interesting dream last night. It was about the snowman. When I played with the snow, I 51 (see) a snowman. It was white and beautiful. It said to me, “Hello, 52 (I) friend. Can you help me?” “Sure. What can I do for you?” I asked. “I am sick (生病的). Can you take me to see a doctor?”
I started 53 (move) it. But it was too big, and I couldn’t move it at all. “I can take a coat for you, and then you will be warm.”
“Good!” the snowman said. I 54 (dress) it. After a few minutes, it was still very cold. I said, “I can give you some hot water. My mother 55 (usual) asked me to drink it when I was sick.” I gave it some hot water. It melted (融化) after drinking the hot water. I was very sorry.
The next morning, I told my family about the dream. They all laughed (大笑).
四、阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,计10分)
阅读短文,根据短文内容回答问题。
The Greens move into the neighborhood in July. It is very hot. They see the notice about the community (社区) club. Mrs. Green says, “That is good. I want to live in a safe community.”
The next day, Jimmy Green and Tony Green are on the street. They are playing baseball. Adam comes to play with them. He says, “I’m happy to have someone to play ball with.” He lives just across from the street.
Jimmy hits (打) the ball hard. It goes into the neighbor’s garden. He says, “I’ll go to get it. Wait for me here.”
“No, don’t go there.” says Adam, “That’s where Mr. James lives. He is the head of the community club. He will be angry. We mustn’t play baseball on the street. We should go to the park to play baseball.”
“But my mother will be angry if I lose our ball.” Jimmy says. So he goes to the neighbor’s garden to get the ball.
A tall man comes out of the house just as he gets to the ball. “Who are you and what are you doing here?” he asks.
“I’m Jimmy Green, and I come to get my baseball. I’m sorry I hit it here. I don’t know the rule.”
“OK. You can get it this time. But remember, we all need to follow the rules in this community. The rules help us have a good and safe place to live. If you want to play ball, go to the park!”
Jimmy runs back with the ball. Adam and Tony are happy to see him. Just then their mother comes outside. “Mr. James calls me. He says he wants to help us learn the rules of the community.”
56. How’s the weather when the Greens move into the neighborhood in July?
_________________________________________________________________________
57. Where do the three children play baseball?
_________________________________________________________________________
58. Does Jimmy get his ball back from the neighbor’s garden?
_________________________________________________________________________
59. Why do people all need to follow the rules in this community?
_________________________________________________________________________
60. What do Jimmy and Tony possibly (有可能地) do next?
_________________________________________________________________________
五、补全对话(共4小题,计8分)
阅读下面对话,在每个空白处填入一个适当的句子,使对话完整,合乎情境。
(Tony and Jeff are talking about their last weekends in the hallway.)
A: Good morning, Tony!
B: Hello, Jeff!
A: 61. ?
B: It was great! I went fishing in the countryside.
A: Wow! Is it far from here?
B: Yes, it’s about 20 kilometers from here. So I went there by bus with Steve.
A: Steve? 62. ?
B: He is tall with short curly hair. And he wears glasses.
A: I think I may know him. 63. ?
B: Yes, we did. We got quite a lot of fish. Fishing was so much fun.
A: Did you do other things in the countryside?
B: Yes. 64. .
A: Sounds interesting.
B: We will go there again next week. Would you like to go there with us?
A: Sure. I am happy to join you. Oh, it’s time for class. See you then!
B: See you!
六、书面表达(计15分)
假如你是李华,下面是你的英国好友Linda给你发来的邮件。请仔细阅读她的邮件内容,并用英语写一封邮件回复她。
Dear Li Hua,
Happy birthday! I saw the photo on your Wechat Moments (微信朋友圈). It looks like you had a great time. I want to know how you celebrated (庆祝) your birthday.When is your birthday? With whom did you celebrate this special day? What did you do? What about your birthday gifts? Please e-mail me soon.
Yours,
Linda
注意:1. 语言通顺,条理清楚,书写规范。
2. 文中不要出现任何真实人名、校名及其它相关信息, 否则不予评分。
3. 词数80左右,信的开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Linda,
I’m glad to receive your e-mail. __________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours,
Li Hua
七年级英语试题 第1 页 共8页
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2023-2024学年度下学期期末学业水平质量调研试题
七年级英语参考答案 2024. 07
一、听力测试(1—20小题)
(一)答案:
1—5 EBDAF 6—10 ACBCB 11—15 BBBAA
16. cooking 17. round 18. hospital 19. camped 20. lovely
(二)评分说明:
1. 1 — 15小题, 共15分,每小题1分,凡与答案不符者不得分。
2. 16 — 20小题, 共5分,每小题1分,每小题只能写一个答案,如果写了两个或两个以上答案,即使其中一个是对的,也不得分;有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误,该小题不得分; 有与答案不符者,只要符合本题要求,句意和语法正确,也可得分。
二、阅读理解 (21—35小题)
(一)答案:
21 — 23 CBA 24 — 27 BACA 28 — 31 BCAB 32 — 35 DECA
(二)评分说明:
1. 21 — 23小题,每小题1分;24 — 35小题,每小题2分。
2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
三、语言运用(36—55小题)
(一)答案:
36 — 40 CDBFE 41 — 45 FADCE
46. are 47. sunny 48. because 49. snowmen 50. an
51. saw 52. my 53. to move 54. dressed 55. usually
(二)评分说明:
1. 本大题共20分,每小题1分。
2. 每小题只能写一个答案,如果写了两个或两个以上答案,即使其中一个是对的,
也不得分;有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误,该小题不得分;有与答案不符
者,只要符合本题要求,句意和语法正确,也可得分。
四、阅读表达 (56—60小题)
(一)答案:
56. It is very hot.
57. They play ball on the street. / On the street.
58. Yes, he does.
59. Because the rules help people/them have a good and safe place to live.
60. They may learn the rules of the community. /
They may play ball in the park.
(二) 评分说明:
1. 本大题共10分,每小题2分。
2. 有与答案不符者,只要符合本题要求,句意和语法正确,即可得分;有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误,可酌情扣分;所写的句子虽无语法错误,意思通顺,但与题意不符者,不得分。
五、补全对话(61—64小题)
(一)答案:
61. How was your last weekend?
62. What does Steve / he look like?
63. Did you get a lot of fish there?
64. We went boating / played badminton / fed chickens / ...
(二) 评分说明:
1. 本大题共8分,每小题2分。
2. 与所给答案不符,只要意义正确,且符合情景交际要求,也得分。
3. 语法、单词拼写错误,评分时视其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分;标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时应视其对交际的影响程度酌情考虑。
六、书面表达(计15分)
(一)答案:略
(二) 评分说明:本大题共15分, 请按以下四档标准进行评分。
第一档:(15分) 符合题意要求,表达完整,条理清晰,语句通顺,语言正确无误。
第二档:(11—14分) 符合题意要求,表达基本完整,条理较清晰,语句较通顺,语言基本无误。
第三档:(6 — 10分) 基本符合题意要求,表达基本完整,条理较清晰,语句较通顺,语言有部分错误。
第四档:(0 — 5分) 不符合题意要求,表达不够清楚,逻辑关系混乱,语言错误很多。
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