山东省德州市平原县2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题

null 平原县2023-2024学年第二学期七年级期末测试 英 语 试 题 注意事项： 1.本试题共六个大题，有选择题和非选择题；选择题计80分，非选择题计70分；试卷总分150分。考试时间120分钟; 2.考生应将答案全部答在答题卡上，注意答题卡相关要求。考试结束后，将答题卡收回。 一、听力部分(共25小题, 1-20小题, 每小题1分; 21-25 小题, 每小题2分,总计30分; 每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间) (一)录音中有五个句子，每个句子听两遍，然后选出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图片。 (5分) (二)录音中有五个句子，每个句子听两遍，然后选择相应的答语。 (5分) 6. A. In a big city. B. In 2011. C.15 years old. 7. A. By bus. B. For a month. C. Twice a week. 8. A. Yes,I'd love to. B. Sorry, I can't. C. Yes, she can. 9. A. Say hello. B. I like them. C. Wave to say goodbye. 10. A.3,000 yuan. B. On the desk. C. I'd like a white one. (三)录音中有五组对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。 (5分) 11. What is Mr. Wang's telephone number? A. 622-6003. B. 622-0633. C. 622-6033. 12. Where does Mr. Zhang work? A. In a school. B. In a radio station. C. In a store. 13. Where can the girl eat? A. In the dinning room. B. In the hallway. C. In the classroom. 14. How long does it take Linda to go to school on foot? A. Five minutes. B. Ten minutes. C. Fifteen minutes. 15. When does the girl clean her room? A. Every day. B. On school nights. C. On weekends. (四)录音中有两段长对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。 (5分) 听第一段对话，回答第16、17小题。 16. What did the man do last weekend? A. He went to a party. B. He went to see his grandparents. C. He went to the park. 17. What did the man's friend do last weekend? A. He did housework. B. He did homework. C. He did some shopping. 听第二段对话，回答第18、19、20三小题。 18. Where did the girl go camping last weekend? A. China. B. Africa. C. India. 19. How many people went camping? A. Four. B. Five. C. Six. 20. What made the girl scared? A. A big tiger. B. A big snake. C. A big elephant. (五)听力填表。 (共5小题；每空一词，录音播放前，你有20秒钟的读题时间) (10分) Julie's school trip Time Place Activities 9a. m. The history museum Learned a lot about the history of(21)_. (22)_a. m. Children's Park Had (23)_ there and went boating in the lake. 2p. m. The (24)_ Took photos of the(25)_ 二、阅读理解(共20小题，每小题2.5分，计50分) 阅读下列短文，然后从每小题A、B、C、D 中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。 A Tomorrow is Saturday. What are the children going to do? Hi. I'm Melissa and I'm 11 years old. I'm going to have my favourite meal with my best friend Sally. After the meal, we are going shopping. I'm Pat and I'm 12. I'm going to watch the football match of my favourite team. I'm not going with anyone else. After that, I am going to take a walk in the park. I'm Mark and I'm 13. Our car is too dirty. Tomorrow I'm going to get up early and help my dad wash it. If the weather is fine, we are going to have a picnic. Or(否则) I will go to the library. I'm Cindy and I'm 12. Tomorrow is my brother's birthday. I'm going to make a chocolate cake for him. Then we are going to the zoo. I'm sure we can have a good time! 26. Melissa is going to have a me al with her . A. Parents B. sister C. brother D. friend 27. Pat is going to after the football match. A. go shopping B. have a picnic C. take a walk D. go to the zoo 28. The underlined word“dirty”means“ ”in Chinese. A. 脏的 B. 旧的 C. 坏的 D. 小的 29. If , Mark will go to the library. A. he gets up carly B. he gets up late C. the weather is good D. the weather is bad 30. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Melissa is going to see a movie after the meal. B. Pat is going to watch the football match alone. C. Mark is going to do some reading at home. D. Cindy is going to make a birthday card for her brother. B What will our life in the future be like? Different people have different ideas. Danny Children will not use pencils or books in the future. Each student will have a laptop(笔记本电脑) at school. Just go online and you will find 七 everything you are interested in. Peter Too many traffic jams(交通堵塞) make people angry and tired. More and more people will take a bike to work. It is also good for the environment (环境). Jenny People will work only four hours a day. In the future, robots will help do the dangerous jobs. People will have a lot of time to relax(放松). I will enjoy that. Lisa People will wear thin clothes in the future, because the weather gets warmer year by year. Using air conditioners(空调) is bad for the environment. I am worried about it. 31. thinks that children won't use pencils. A. Danny B. Peter C. Jenny D. Lisa 32. Peter thinks that more and more people will go to work by . A. bus B. car C. bike D. plane 33. People will work hours a day in the future. A. two B. three C. four D. five 34. What will the weather be like in the future? A. It's warmer. B. It's colder. C. It's cooler. D. We don't know. 35. Which of the following is NOT true? A. People won't have a lot of free time because they have lots of things to do in the future. B. Children will use laptops for studying at school in the future. C. Robots will help people do the dangerous jobs in the future. D. People will not wear thick clothes in the future. C Now many young people like shopping online. But for most people, they still like shopping in the market. Let's see some famous markets around the world. There is an unusual market at a place called Damnoen Saduak in Thailand. In this market, people sell fresh fruits on their boats. It's open from 6:00 in the morning to the noon every day. Many Belgians (比利时人) say that the Grand Place is the most beautiful square in the world. It is home of a colorful flower market. It's open every day except Mondays. On Mondays, instead of flowers, there's a wonderful bird market! One of the world's most famous markets is the Sonora Market in Mexico. You can buy toys, birds,herbs and medicine. There are all kinds of things. It's open every day from early in the morning till late at night. In England, every weekend, thousands of young people travel to the Camden Market to go for street fashion CDs and tapes. Many people also go there for fun. 36. How many markets are mentioned(提及) in the passage? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. 37. The Damnoen Saduak sells . A. flowers B. fresh fruits C. birds D. CDs and tapes 38. You can buy birds in the Grand Place. A. every day B. on Mondays C. on Weekends D. every day except Mondays 39. The Sonora Market is 1 A. in Thailand B. in Belgium C. in Mexico D. in England 40. Which is NOT true according to the passage? A. You can't buy any fresh fruits at 3:00 p. m. in Damnoen Saduak. B. The Grand Place sells flowers on Mondays. C. The Sonora Market is open almost all day. D. Thousands of young people travel to the Camden Market on Saturday s and Sundays. D My name is Sam. This is my neighborhood. There's a big supermarket-near my house. My mother often goes shopping there. Across from the supermarket is a school. It's my school. There is a library next to the school. I like reading books there. I am Peter. My neighborhood is busy. There are a lot of stores and restaurants in my neighborhood.My house is on a street corner. There is a post office near it. And next to the post office is a pay phone. My name is Linda. In my neighborhood there's a big park. Lots of people go there to have fun. I like to play there, too. There is a restaurant across from the park. A bank is next to the restaurant. And some clothes stores are near the bank. 41. There is a near Sam's house. A. restaurant B. library C. supermarket D. park 42. Peter's neighborhood is very . A. quiet B. busy C. dirty D. Clean 43. Peter's house is . A. on a street comer B. next to the post office C. across from the supermarket D. near the bank 44. In Linda's neighborhood, there is . ①a park ②a bank ③a restaurant ④a supermarket A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③④ D. ①③④ 45. Which of the followings is TRUE about Sam's school? A. 三、短文还原(共5空，每小题2分，计10分) 阅读短文，从下面方框中选择合适的句子还原到短文中，使短文通顺完整、衔接自然。 Helen Keller was born in America in June, 1880.(46) she had a high fever(发高烧). Then she became blind and deaf. (47) It was difficult for her to understand(理解) other people. In 1887. Anne Sullivan came to help Helen. Helen was a clever girl.(48) In 1899, she entered a university. Anne went to school with her. Anne listened to the professors' words.(49) After Helen finished university,(50) She was famous all over the world for her courage (勇气) and hard work. She did her best to help people who were deaf or blind. She died at the age of 88. A. She could not hear or see. B. But when she was 19 months old. C. She learned to read and write with Anne's help. D. and then wrote their words onto Helen's hand. E. she visited many countries and talked about her life. 四、 词汇(每题1.5分, 计15分) A.根据句意和提示写出单词，完成句子。 51. I'm going to see a in the afternoon.(电影). 52. I often help my mother do at home.(打扫卫生) 53. They can ask their teachers by Internet, telephone or email. (问题) 54. The sea level will rise as . (也, 又) 55. In Greece, it's not at all polite! In fact, it's very . (粗鲁的) B.根据句意用所给单词的适当形式填空。 56. She can play football. She can't (play) basketball. 57. He is going to (have) a piano lesson this weekend. 58. Students will study on the Internet. They won't (use) books. 59. I live in Beijing now, but I (live) in Shanghai three years ago. 60. I wrote some postcards and (send) some emails. 五、综合填空(共10空,每空1.5分, 计15分) 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从方框中选择合适的单词并用其正确形式填空。 at, so, be, purple, eraser, hundred, careful, whose, play, she This is the lost and found office at No.3 Middle School. There are (61) of things at the lost and found office. Students often lose their books, bags, pens, ID cards and many other things. Some students found them and sent them here. Look! There(62) a nice pen. The colour of the pen is (63) . Is it yours?There is also an English book. Oh, here is Kate's name on the book. I think it must be(64) .Look at the ID card. There is a girl's photo on it,(65) it must be a girl's. On the desk is a pencil case. There are three pens, two(66) and some crayons in it. If it's yours, come and take it. There are two basketballs under the table. They must be the boys',because they enjoy (67) basketball after class. Look(68) the black jacket. I don't know(69) it is. Everyone, if you want to find your things, you can call the office workers at 663-8835 and please be(70) with your things from now on. 六、阅读表达(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分) 阅读短文，根据题目要求完成各小题。 Young people use short-video apps like TikTok (抖音) and Kuaishou a lot now. Most of them think it is fun to share short videos about their lives, while others have different ideas. A 12-year-old girl named Elsa has up to 2.7 million fans on TikTok. The girl started to share videos about her dancing last July. (73) One of the videos won her about one million fans.“I feel really happy to share my daily life with other people through(凭借) short videos. I'm glad they like them,”said Elsa. As some video s are about the latest(最近的) news ,a group of users get information from them. To some other users, they have a different purpose(目的).“Because I don't like waiting for a program to end,I can't spend many hours watching a long video. I'd like to watch short videos of wonderful parts in a concert or a TV play,”said Wang Zhihao. However, some young people feel bored with some short videos.“Killing time is the main reason for me to watch the short videos, and many are almost the same. So I think it is a waste of time,”said Wen Nan, another college student. 71. Who thinks it is fun to share short videos about their lives? 72. How many fans does Elsa have on TikTok ? 73. Translate the underlined sentence (73) into Chinese. 74. 判断正误: (正确的填“T”错误的填“F”) All young people feel bored with some short videos. 75. Give a proper title (题目) to the passage. 七、书面表达(共1题，计20分) 请以 My past life 为题写一篇英语短文, 内容要点如下: 1. Where were you born? 2. What was the name of your primary school? 3. Who was your first teacher? 4. What was he/she like? 5. Who were your first friends? 6. What were they like? 7. What was your favourite subject? 8. How many students were there in your class? 要求： 1、短文须包含以上主要内容，70词左右； 2、结构完整，语句通顺正确，上下文连贯，书写认真. 3、开头已给出，不计入总词数。 My past life I was born in Pingyuan. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 七年级英语试题 参考答案及评分说明 2024年7月 一 ～ 二题 （一）答案： 1-5 CAAAA　6-10 BACAB 11-15 CBABC 16-20 CACAB 21. China 22. 11/eleven 23. lunch 24. zoo 25. animals 26-30 DCADB 31-35 ACCAA 36-40 DBBCB 41-45CBAAB （二）评分说明： 1. 1-20题，每小题1分；21-25题，每小题2分。 2. 26-45题，每小题2.5分。 3. 与答案不符，不得分。 三、短文还原（共5个空，计10分） （一）答案: 46-50 BACDE （二）评分说明： 1. 本题共5分，每空2分; 2. 与答案不符，不得分。 四、 词汇（每题1.5分，计15分） （一）答案: 51. movie/film 52. cleaning 53. questions 54. well 55. rude 56. play 57. have 58. use 59. lived 60. sent （二）评分说明： 1. 本题共15分，每空1.5分; 2.与所给答案不符，只要语法意义.拼写（含大小写）正确，也可酌情给分。 五、综合填空（共10个空，每小题1.5分，计15分） （一）答案： 61. hundreds 62. is 63. purple 64. hers 65. so 66. erasers 67. playing 68. at 69. whose 70. careful （二）评分说明： 1. 本题共15分，每空1.5分; 2.与所给答案不符，只要语法意义.拼写（含大小写）正确，也可酌情给分。 五、阅读表达（每题2分，计10分） （一）答案: 71. Most of young people think it is fun to share short videos about their lives. 72. Elsa has up to 2.7 million fans on TikTok. 73. 其中一个视频为她赢得了一百万粉丝。 74. F 75. Short-videos/Short-video apps/Something about short-videos / Some ideas about short-videos/About short-videos （二）评分说明： 1. 本题共10分，每小题2分。 2. 虽与答案表达方式不同，但与所给参考答案意思一致，无语言错误，也可酌情给分。 七、书面表达（20分） 参考范文： 略。 评分原则 1、总分20分，按5个档次给分。 2、评分时，先跟据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给出得分。 3、凡内容完整但总词数不足，可在本题总得分中扣去1-2分。 4、凡内容空白、抄袭阅读理解或所写内容根本与写作要求无关者一律得0分。 5、如与课本相关话题所提供例文相似度极高但书写认真规范者可得16-18分；与所提供例文相似度极高但书写不规范可内容尚能看清者可得10-12分；与所提供例文相似度极高但书写不规范且不能看清内容并有抄袭范文嫌疑者可得0-6分。 评分说明： 要求考生用适当的时态、语态、句式和词语，完整准确地表述所提示的内容，书写规范工整。分五档评分： １、很好的完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少，格式正确，书写规范。（18－20分） ２、较好的完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。（14－17分） ３、基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，格式基本正确，书写基本规范。（10－13分） ４、未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。（6－9分） 5、未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明。语法和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。（0－5分） 1 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$