湖南省株洲市攸县2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题

2024年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英 语 时量：100分钟 满分：100分 第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 (     ) 1. How do they go to the library? A. By bus B. By train C. By bike (     ) 2. What’s Sam’s mother doing now? A. Reading a book B. Making dinner C. Cleaning the house (     ) 3. What time does the boy usually get up? A. At 6:45 am. B. At 7:15 am. C. At 7:30 am. ( ) 4. Where is the bank? A. Next to the library. B. In front of the library. C. Behind the library. (     ) 5. What would Jack like? A. Beef. B. Mutton. C. Fish. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第六段对话，回答第6至第7小题。 (     ) 6. Who likes salad for dinner? A. Jim. B. Jim’s sister. C. Jim’s mother. (     ) 7. What does Jim want to eat for the next dinner? A. Salad. B. Chicken. C. Ice cream. 听第七段对话，回答第8至第9小题。 ( ) 8. What can the boy do? A. Run in the hallways. B. Listen to music outside. C. Eat in the classroom. ( ) 9. What are they two speakers talking about? A. Food. B. Looks. C. Rules. 听第八段对话，回答第10至第11小题。 ( ) 10. What is Three Bears? A. A new movie. B. A storybook. C. A song. ( ) 11. Why does Bob like pandas? A. Because they are interesting. B. Because they are kind of cute. C. Because they are beautiful. 听第九段对话，回答第12至第14小题。 (     ) 12. Where are they? A. At school. B. At the office. C. At home. (     ) 13. What is Johnny doing? A. Reading a book. B. Speaking on the phone. C. Cleaning the room. (     ) 14. Who can help Tony’s mother? A. Tony and his father. B. Tony. C. Johnny. 听第十段对话，回答第15至第17小题。 (     ) 15. Where did Jack go last weekend? A. To a city. B. To a town. C. To a village. (     ) 16. What does Jack’s uncle look like? A. He’s very tall. B. He’s of medium height. C. He wears glasses. (     ) 17. What would Kate like to do next time? A. Go camping. B. Play games. C. Go to movies. 听下面一段独白，回答第18至第20小题。 (     ) 18. What was the weather like last Sunday？ A. It was hot. B. It was rainy. C. It was sunny. (     ) 19. Where did they pick fruit? A. On a farm. B. In a forest. C. Near a lake. (     ) 20. What did they do in the afternoon? A. They fed animals. B. They rode a horse. C. They went fishing. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 （共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分） 阅读下面的材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳答案回答问题或完成句子。 A Rule One You can come into the room only with your teacher. Don’t eat or drink in the room. Don’t listen to music. Be quiet in computer class. Don’t talk to each other. Rule Two Here are the rules for Tom’s family. You must get up before ten to six in the morning. Don’t listen to music in the room. You can’t meet friends if you don’t finish your homework. Clean your bedroom yourself. ( )21．Rule One may be for a ________. A．computer room        B．classroom         C．bedroom ( )22．When does Tom have to get up in the morning? A．Before 6:10. B．Before 7:10. C．Before 5:50. ( )23．Which of the following is NOT true (正确)? A．Students have to be quiet when you have a computer class. B．Tom’s parents clean his bedroom. C．Tom can’t listen to the music in the room. B My dear friends， I'm writing to invite（邀请） you to my new house in the country. You know，my family and I moved into our country house one month ago. The kids are planning to give a party at our new house. I hope all of you can come. The party will begin at 11：00 am on Saturday. There will be lots of food and drinks. Together with this letter is a map to our house. After you get off the train，take the road in front of the station. Follow it and you'll see a chicken farm. Don't make any turns. Keep going and you'll see a bridge. Cross the bridge and there will be a big tree on your left. Walk past the tree，turn right at the first turning，and then walk for five minutes. You'll see several houses. My house is at the end of the road，next to the river. Linda ( )24.When did Linda and her family move into the country？ A. Ten days ago. B. One month ago. C. Two months ago. ( )25.Linda wrote to her friends to 　　. A. invite them to the party B. give them a map C.tell them good news ( )26.Linda's friends need to 　　at the chicken farm. A. take turns B. keep going C. cross the bridge ( )27.Which of the following is NOT true？ A. The party will begin at 11：00 a m on Saturday. B. There's a chicken farm on the way to Linda's house. C.It will take Linda's friends five minutes to arrive at her house. C Look! Here comes a cute bus. It looks like a panda with black ears and big eyes. It can take 22 people and is about 12 meters long. A group of Chinese people made it. People call it Smart Panda Bus. The Smart Panda Bus can do many things. It uses AI technology (科技). The bus can drive by itself. Don’t worry! It’s very safe (安全的). When you get on the bus, you can swipe (刷) your face. The bus will read your face and know who you are. There are also robots on the bus. You can talk to them and ask them for help. If there is a thief (小偷) on the bus, the bus will call the police. On the bus, there is a vending machine. You can buy food and drinks here. This can save you much time. People in some cities, such as Changzhou in Jiangsu, Wuhan in Hubei and Deyang in Sichuan, can take the bus. Do you want to take the bus? More cities in China will put the bus into use. I think soon you can take the bus in your city. ( )28. The Smart Panda Bus comes from ________. A. China B. India C. America ( )29. The “vending machine” can ________ on the bus. A .sell food B. tell stories C. make a wish ( )30. Paragraph 2 tells us ________. A. who made the bus B. what the bus can do C. how the bus drives ( )31. What can we know from the text? A. There is a panda on the bus. B. The bus can read your hand. C. We can take the bus in some cities now. 第二节 （共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。其中有一项为多余项。 Willow Phelps is a ten-year-old girl. 32 She goes swimming to raise (募集) money for some animals. These animals are not healthy or don’t have a home. In Willow’s home, there are three cats and two dogs. All of them are from Animal Center. Willow and her family bring them home and treat them very well. “ 33 . I must talk for them.” the little girl says. “Some children are afraid of animals. 34 ” Willow says. “In fact, animals are smart. When you are nice to them, they are nice to you.” 35 . She wants to be an animal doctor. She hopes animals can always be healthy with her help. A．Animals can’t talk. B．What is Willow’s dream? C．She likes to go to the zoo to watch animals. D．They think animals are too big or look scary. E．She loves helping animals and is doing her best to help them. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 It's Sunday today. The weather is good. It is 36 ． When I wake up at 8：00 a．m., I see many animals in my 37 . The elephant is drinking water. He is too big and sometimes I am afraid of him. The koala is still 38 . Some say he is cute, 39 I think he is lazy! The lion 40 next to me. He says “good morning” to me every morning. I also see many people are walking 41 . Some are 42 to see me, but some are scared to see me. What am I doing? I am waiting for my breakfast 43 I am hungry. One minute, two minutes, three minutes... My food still doesn't come! I am really hungry! At last, my breakfast comes. I can eat my delicious food: 44 ，beef and pork(猪肉). I don't like vegetables or fruit. Where am I? I am in a zoo. Who am I? I am a 45 ． ( )36. A. cloudy B. rainy C. sunny ( )37. A. house B. country C. neighborhood ( )38. A. sleeping B. driving C. skating ( )39. A. and B. but C. or ( )40. A. lives B. teaches C. visits ( )41. A. inside B. outside C. into ( )42. A. free B. happy C. hard ( )43. A. if B. so C. because ( )44. A. chicken B. tomatoes C. strawberries ( )45. A. giraffe B. panda C. tiger 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 I am Li Ying, a student in Grade Seven. Linda is one of my good 46． 　(friend) at school. We are in the same class. She is 47． 　English girl. She is from London. Linda and I live in the same neighborhood. My house is across 48． 　Linda's. After school, we often ride 49._______(us) bikes home. We talk about many things 50. (happy) on our way home. Yesterday, she 51． 　(tell) me something about London and asked me to visit it in the summer vacation. Linda is good at 52. （sing) and she also practices playing the piano often. She wants to be a 53. (music) when she grows up. I think it is not difficult for her 54. (make) her dream come true 55. anything is possible(可能的) if we work hard. 46. _______ 47. _______ 48. ________ 49. ________ 50. _______ 51. ________ 52. ________ 53. ________ 54. ________ 55. _______ 第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 阅读表达（共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容完成下列任务。 I’m Aybol, a fourteen-year-old boy from Xinjiang. 59. 我经常早上六点醒来。Dad puts the cows and sheep onto the trucks(卡车). Mom puts my favorite milk food and dried meat into the bag. Then, we’ll start driving to another place. We won't forget to take our tents with us! My family moves like this four times（次数） every year. It’s a tradition(传统) of Kazak(哈萨克) people in Altay(阿勒泰),Xinjiang. We have about 100 sheep and 40 cows. We move to different places as the seasons change. So, our animals can always have fresh（新鲜的) grass to eat. Kazak people have been traveling this way for thousands of years. Many years ago, people had to ride camels(骆驼), and the sheep and cows followed. It took about 10 days to get from one place to another. If it rained or snowed, traveling was even harder. Luckily, now we have trucks. It only takes us five hours on the road! Kazak people travel the most roads in the world, and we move the most often. As we move from place to place, our lives keep getting better and betterr（越来越好).60.I feel very lucky to live in Altay. I really love my town. 56. How old is Aybol? 57. Why does Aybol’s family travel four times every year? 58. How are people’s lives in Altay now? 59. 将划线句子翻译成英语。 60. 将划线句子翻译成中文。  第二节 书面表达（共 1题；满分15分） 61. 时光飞逝，七年级学生生活已接近尾声。你的班级将在英语课上推选本班的年度优秀学生.假如你是李华，你将推荐你班同学Henry参加评选。请根据以下提示，完成这篇英语推荐信。 注意：（1）词数80 词左右（开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数） （2）适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 （3）文中不能出现可能透露考生真实身份的任何信息。 姓名 Henry 外貌 中等身材，黑色短发，戴眼镜...... 爱好 打篮球，听音乐，阅读...... 性格 外向友好,乐于助人… 优秀事例 努力学习，各门功课优秀； 上个月去敬老院，给老人打扫卫生、讲故事...... 你对他的评价 ..... recommend v. 推荐 the Old People's Home 敬老院 外向：outgoing Dear Sir, I'd like to recommend my classmate Henry to be a Shining Star in our school. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Thank you for considering my recommendation. Yours, Li Hua ( 2024年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英语 第 7 页 共 7 页 ) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英语 第 1 页 共 8 页 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英 语 时量：100 分钟 满分：100 分 第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分 20分） 第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分） 听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个 选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小 题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 ( ) 1. How do they go to the library? A. By bus B. By train C. By bike ( ) 2. What’s Sam’s mother doing now? A. Reading a book B. Making dinner C. Cleaning the house ( ) 3. What time does the boy usually get up? A. At 6:45 am. B. At 7:15 am. C. At 7:30 am. ( ) 4. Where is the bank? A. Next to the library. B. In front of the library. C. Behind the library. ( ) 5. What would Jack like? A. Beef. B. Mutton. C. Fish. 第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分） 听下面 6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话或独白前，你将有 时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟作答时间。 每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第六段对话，回答第 6至第 7小题。 ( ) 6. Who likes salad for dinner? A. Jim. B. Jim’s sister. C. Jim’s mother. ( ) 7. What does Jim want to eat for the next dinner? A. Salad. B. Chicken. C. Ice cream. 听第七段对话，回答第 8至第 9小题。 ( ) 8. What can the boy do? A. Run in the hallways. B. Listen to music outside. C. Eat in the classroom. 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英语 第 2 页 共 8 页 ( ) 9. What are they two speakers talking about? A. Food. B. Looks. C. Rules. 听第八段对话，回答第 10至第 11小题。 ( ) 10. What is Three Bears? A. A new movie. B. A storybook. C. A song. ( ) 11. Why does Bob like pandas? A. Because they are interesting. B. Because they are kind of cute. C. Because they are beautiful. 听第九段对话，回答第 12至第 14小题。 ( ) 12. Where are they? A. At school. B. At the office. C. At home. ( ) 13. What is Johnny doing? A. Reading a book. B. Speaking on the phone. C. Cleaning the room. ( ) 14. Who can help Tony’s mother? A. Tony and his father. B. Tony. C. Johnny. 听第十段对话，回答第 15至第 17小题。 ( ) 15. Where did Jack go last weekend? A. To a city. B. To a town. C. To a village. ( ) 16. What does Jack’s uncle look like? A. He’s very tall. B. He’s of medium height. C. He wears glasses. ( ) 17. What would Kate like to do next time? A. Go camping. B. Play games. C. Go to movies. 听下面一段独白，回答第 18至第 20小题。 ( ) 18. What was the weather like last Sunday？ A. It was hot. B. It was rainy. C. It was sunny. ( ) 19. Where did they pick fruit? A. On a farm. B. In a forest. C. Near a lake. ( ) 20. What did they do in the afternoon? A. They fed animals. B. They rode a horse. C. They went fishing. 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英语 第 3 页 共 8 页 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 30分） 第一节 （共 11 小题；每小题 2分，满分 22分） 阅读下面的材料，从每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出最佳答案回答问 题或完成句子。 A ( )21．Rule One may be for a ________. A．computer room B．classroom C．bedroom ( )22．When does Tom have to get up in the morning? A．Before 6:10. B．Before 7:10. C．Before 5:50. ( )23．Which of the following is NOT true (正确)? A．Students have to be quiet when you have a computer class. B．Tom’s parents clean his bedroom. C．Tom can’t listen to the music in the room. B My dear friends， I'm writing to invite（邀请） you to my new house in the country. You know， my family and I moved into our country house one month ago. The kids are planning to give a party at our new house. I hope all of you can come. The party Rule One You can come into the room only with your teacher. Don’t eat or drink in the room. Don’t listen to music. Be quiet in computer class. Don’t talk to each other. Rule Two Here are the rules for Tom’s family. You must get up before ten to six in the morning. Don’t listen to music in the room. You can’t meet friends if you don’t finish your homework. Clean your bedroom yourself. 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英语 第 4 页 共 8 页 will begin at 11：00 am on Saturday. There will be lots of food and drinks. Together with this letter is a map to our house. After you get off the train，take the road in front of the station. Follow it and you'll see a chicken farm. Don't make any turns. Keep going and you'll see a bridge. Cross the bridge and there will be a big tree on your left. Walk past the tree，turn right at the first turning，and then walk for five minutes. You'll see several houses. My house is at the end of the road，next to the river. Linda ( )24.When did Linda and her family move into the country？ A. Ten days ago. B. One month ago. C. Two months ago. ( )25.Linda wrote to her friends to . A. invite them to the party B. give them a map C.tell them good news ( )26.Linda's friends need to at the chicken farm. A. take turns B. keep going C. cross the bridge ( )27.Which of the following is NOT true？ A. The party will begin at 11：00 a m on Saturday. B. There's a chicken farm on the way to Linda's house. C.It will take Linda's friends five minutes to arrive at her house. C Look! Here comes a cute bus. It looks like a panda with black ears and big eyes. It can take 22 people and is about 12 meters long. A group of Chinese people made it. People call it Smart Panda Bus. The Smart Panda Bus can do many things. It uses AI technology (科技). The bus can drive by itself. Don’t worry! It’s very safe (安全的). When you get on the bus, you can swipe (刷) your face. The bus will read your face and know who you are. There are also robots on the bus. You can talk to them and ask them for help. If there is a thief (小偷) on the bus, the bus will call the police. On the bus, there is a vending machine. You can buy food and drinks here. This can save you much time. People in some cities, such as Changzhou in Jiangsu, Wuhan in Hubei and Deyang in Sichuan, can take the bus. Do you want to take the bus? More cities in China will put the bus into use. I think soon you can take the bus in your city. 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英语 第 5 页 共 8 页 ( )28. The Smart Panda Bus comes from ________. A. China B. India C. America ( )29. The “vending machine” can ________ on the bus. A .sell food B. tell stories C. make a wish ( )30. Paragraph 2 tells us ________. A. who made the bus B. what the bus can do C. how the bus drives ( )31. What can we know from the text? A. There is a panda on the bus. B. The bus can read your hand. C. We can take the bus in some cities now. 第二节 （共 4小题；每小题 2分，满分 8分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。其中有 一项为多余项。 Willow Phelps is a ten-year-old girl. 32 She goes swimming to raise (募 集) money for some animals. These animals are not healthy or don’t have a home. In Willow’s home, there are three cats and two dogs. All of them are from Animal Center. Willow and her family bring them home and treat them very well. “ 33 . I must talk for them.” the little girl says. “Some children are afraid of animals. 34 ” Willow says. “In fact, animals are smart. When you are nice to them, they are nice to you.” 35 . She wants to be an animal doctor. She hopes animals can always be healthy with her help. A．Animals can’t talk. B．What is Willow’s dream? C．She likes to go to the zoo to watch animals. D．They think animals are too big or look scary. E．She loves helping animals and is doing her best to help them. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 25分） 第一节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空 白处的最佳选项。 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英语 第 6 页 共 8 页 It's Sunday today. The weather is good. It is 36 ． When I wake up at 8：00 a．m., I see many animals in my 37 . The elephant is drinking water. He is too big and sometimes I am afraid of him. The koala is still 38 . Some say he is cute, 39 I think he is lazy! The lion 40 next to me. He says “good morning” to me every morning. I also see many people are walking 41 . Some are 42 to see me, but some are scared to see me. What am I doing? I am waiting for my breakfast 43 I am hungry. One minute, two minutes, three minutes... My food still doesn't come! I am really hungry! At last, my breakfast comes. I can eat my delicious food: 44 ，beef and pork(猪肉). I don't like vegetables or fruit. Where am I? I am in a zoo. Who am I? I am a 45 ． ( )36. A. cloudy B. rainy C. sunny ( )37. A. house B. country C. neighborhood ( )38. A. sleeping B. driving C. skating ( )39. A. and B. but C. or ( )40. A. lives B. teaches C. visits ( )41. A. inside B. outside C. into ( )42. A. free B. happy C. hard ( )43. A. if B. so C. because ( )44. A. chicken B. tomatoes C. strawberries ( )45. A. giraffe B. panda C. tiger 第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1分，满分 10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 I am Li Ying, a student in Grade Seven. Linda is one of my good 46． (friend) at school. We are in the same class. She is 47． English girl. She is from London. Linda and I live in the same neighborhood. My house is across 48． Linda's. After school, we often ride 49._______(us) bikes home. We talk about many things 50. (happy) on our way home. Yesterday, she 51． (tell) me something about London and asked me to visit it in the summer vacation. 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英语 第 7 页 共 8 页 Linda is good at 52. （sing) and she also practices playing the piano often. She wants to be a 53. (music) when she grows up. I think it is not difficult for her 54. (make) her dream come true 55. anything is possible(可能的) if we work hard. 46. _______ 47. _______ 48. ________ 49. ________ 50. _______ 51. ________ 52. ________ 53. ________ 54. ________ 55. _______ 第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分 25分） 第一节 阅读表达（共 5个小题；每小题 2分，满分 10 分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容完成下列任务。 I’m Aybol, a fourteen-year-old boy from Xinjiang. 59. 我经常早上六点醒来。Dad puts the cows and sheep onto the trucks(卡车 ). Mom puts my favorite milk food and dried meat into the bag. Then, we’ll start driving to another place. We won't forget to take our tents with us! My family moves like this four times（次数） every year. It’s a tradition(传 统 ) of Kazak(哈萨克 ) people in Altay(阿勒泰 ),Xinjiang. We have about 100 sheep and 40 cows. We move to different places as the seasons change. So, our animals can always have fresh（新鲜的 ) grass to eat. Kazak people have been traveling this way for thousands of years. Many years ago, people had to ride camels(骆驼), and the sheep and cows followed. It took about 10 days to get from one place to another. If it rained or snowed, traveling was even harder. Luckily, now we have trucks. It only takes us five hours on the road! Kazak people travel the most roads in the world, and we move the most often. As we move from place to place, our lives keep getting better and betterr（越来越 好).60.I feel very lucky to live in Altay. I really love my town. 56. How old is Aybol? 57. Why does Aybol’s family travel four times every year? 58. How are people’s lives in Altay now? 59. 将划线句子翻译成英语。 60. 将划线句子翻译成中文。 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷 英语 第 8 页 共 8 页 第二节 书面表达（共 1题；满分 15分） 61. 时光飞逝，七年级学生生活已接近尾声。你的班级将在英语课上推选本 班的年度优秀学生.假如你是李华，你将推荐你班同学 Henry参加评选。请根 据以下提示，完成这篇英语推荐信。 注意：（1）词数 80 词左右（开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数） （2）适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 （3）文中不能出现可能透露考生真实身份的任何信息。 姓名 Henry 外貌 中等身材，黑色短发，戴眼镜...... 爱好 打篮球，听音乐，阅读...... 性格 外向友好,乐于助人… 优秀事例 努力学习，各门功课优秀； 上个月去敬老院，给老人打扫卫生、讲故事...... 你对他的评价 ..... recommend v. 推荐 the Old People's Home 敬老院 外向：outgoing Dear Sir, I'd like to recommend my classmate Henry to be a Shining Star in our school. __________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________ ______________ Thank you for considering my recommendation. Yours, Li Hua ID:3278280 第 1 页 共 2 页 2024年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷---英语答题卡 考号：班级：姓名： 考场： 座号： 注 意 事 项 1. 答题前请将姓名、班级、考场、座号和准考证号填写清楚。 2. 客观题答题,必须使用2B铅笔填涂,修改时用橡皮擦干净。 3. 主观题必须使用黑色签字笔书写。 4. 必须在题号对应的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写无效。 5. 保持答卷清洁完整。 正确填涂 缺考标记 贴条形码区 1 A B C 2 A B C 3 A B C 4 A B C 5 A B C 6 A B C 7 A B C 8 A B C 9 A B C 10 A B C 11 A B C 12 A B C 13 A B C 14 A B C 15 A B C 16 A B C 17 A B C 18 A B C 19 A B C 20 A B C 21 A B C 22 A B C 23 A B C 24 A B C 25 A B C 26 A B C 27 A B C 28 A B C 29 A B C 30 A B C 31 A B C 32 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 36 A B C 37 A B C 38 A B C 39 A B C 40 A B C 41 A B C 42 A B C 43 A B C 44 A B C 45 A B C 第一部分听力理解 (共两节，共20分) 第二部分阅读理解 (共两节，共30分) 第三部分 第一节 语言运用 (共两节，共15分) 第三部分 第二节 (共10小题，共10分) 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 ID:3278280 第 2 页 共 2 页 请使用2B铅笔填涂选择题答案等选项及考号 第四部分 综合技能 第一节 阅读表达(满分10分) 56 (2分) 57 (2分) 58 (2分) 59 (2分) 60 (2分) 第二节 书面表达 (满分15分) Dear Sir， I'd like to recommend my classmate Henry to be a Shinning Star in our school. Thank you for considering my recommendation. Yours, Li Hua 2024年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷答案 英 语 第一部分听力理解（共两节，满分20分） 1-5: ABBAC 6-10 BCBCA 11-15 BCBBC 16-20 AACAC 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） 21-23 ACB 24-27 BABC 28-31AABC 32-35 EADB 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 36-40 CCABA 41-45. BBCAC 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 46.friends 47.an 48. from 49. our 50.happily 51. told 52. singing 53. musician 54. to make 55. because 第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 阅读表达（共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分） （大小写、单词拼写、单复数、人称错误一处扣0.5分；三单错误、时态语法错误扣1分） 56.He is 14 years old./ Fourteen years old/ 14 57. Because it’s a tradition for them（1分） and their animals can always have fresh grass to eat. （1分） 58. Their lives are getting better and better They live a better life. 59.I often wake up at six/6 (o’clock) in the morning. 60.居住在阿勒泰我感到非常幸运。 第二节 书面表达（共 1题；满分15分） 61． Dear Sir, I'd like to recommend my classmate Henry to be a Shining Star in our school. He is of medium height. He has short black hair with glasses. He is not only good at playing basketball but also enjoys listening to music and reading. He works very hard and all his subjects are excellent. He often tries his best to help other students so he is very popular with his classmates. Last month, he visited the Old People's Home and spent time with the old. He cleaned the house for them and told stories to make them happy. In my opinion, Henry is a shining example of what it means to be a Shining Star. He is talented, kind, and always willing to help others. I believe he would be an excellent choice for this award. Thank you for considering my recommendation. Yours, Li Hua 评分标准： 1. 内容分： 五个要点：其中外貌、爱好、性格、 评价，每个要点2分。优秀事迹3分。 2. 语言分2分： （1）时态可以根据学生文章内容使用相应的时态，如优秀事迹可以用过去时态。 （2）标点、拼写、大小写、语法错误等每三个扣一分，同一个错误不重复扣分。 2. 结构分：未分段扣一分 3. 书写分：书写很差扣一分。 4. 分数段打分可以参照以下五档标准： A档（13-15）：能够围绕话题进行表述，语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚 B档（10-12）：能够围绕话题进行表述，语言有少量错误，表达基本连贯、清楚 C档（7-9）：能够基本围绕话题进行表述，语言表达有些错误，行文很不连贯，但不影响句意理解。 D档（4-7）：尚能围绕话题进行表述，语言错误较多，影响意思表达。 E档（1-3）：只能写出与话题相关的一些单词或一两个句子，只有个别句子可懂。 ( 2024年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷答案 英语 第 7 页 共 7 页 ) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷答案 英语 第 1 页 共 2 页 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷答案 英 语 第一部分听力理解（共两节，满分 20 分） 1-5: ABBAC 6-10 BCBCA 11-15 BCBBC 16-20 AACAC 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 30分） 21-23 ACB 24-27 BABC 28-31AABC 32-35 EADB 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 25分） 第一节（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分） 36-40 CCABA 41-45. BBCAC 第二节（共 10小题；每小题 1分，满分 10分） 46.friends 47.an 48. from 49. our 50.happily 51. told 52. singing 53. musician 54. to make 55. because 第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分 25分） 第一节 阅读表达（共 5个小题；每小题 2分，满分 10分） （大小写、单词拼写、单复数、人称错误一处扣 0.5 分；三单错误、时态语 法错误扣 1 分） 56.He is 14 years old./ Fourteen years old/ 14 57. Because it’s a tradition for them（1 分） and their animals can always have fresh grass to eat. （1分） 58. Their lives are getting better and better They live a better life. 59.I often wake up at six/6 (o’clock) in the morning. 60.居住在阿勒泰我感到非常幸运。 第二节 书面表达（共 1题；满分 15分） 61． Dear Sir, I'd like to recommend my classmate Henry to be a Shining Star in our school. He is of medium height. He has short black hair with glasses. He is not only good at playing basketball but also enjoys listening to music and reading. He works very hard and all his subjects are excellent. He often tries his best to help other 2024 年上学期七年级期末学业质量测试试卷答案 英语 第 2 页 共 2 页 students so he is very popular with his classmates. Last month, he visited the Old People's Home and spent time with the old. He cleaned the house for them and told stories to make them happy. In my opinion, Henry is a shining example of what it means to be a Shining Star. He is talented, kind, and always willing to help others. I believe he would be an excellent choice for this award. Thank you for considering my recommendation. Yours, Li Hua 评分标准： 1.内容分： 五个要点：其中外貌、爱好、性格、 评价，每个要点 2分。优秀事迹 3分。 2.语言分 2分： （1）时态可以根据学生文章内容使用相应的时态，如优秀事迹可以用过去 时态。 （2）标点、拼写、大小写、语法错误等每三个扣一分，同一个错误不重复 扣分。 2. 结构分：未分段扣一分 3. 书写分：书写很差扣一分。 4. 分数段打分可以参照以下五档标准： A档（13-15）：能够围绕话题进行表述，语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚 B档（10-12）：能够围绕话题进行表述，语言有少量错误，表达基本连贯、 清楚 C档（7-9）：能够基本围绕话题进行表述，语言表达有些错误，行文很不连 贯，但不影响句意理解。 D档（4-7）：尚能围绕话题进行表述，语言错误较多，影响意思表达。 E档（1-3）：只能写出与话题相关的一些单词或一两个句子，只有个别句子可懂。