内容正文:
硚口(经开)区2023-2024学年度第二学期期末学业质量检测
八年级 英语试卷
区教研室命制 2024. 6. 28
第I部分 选择题 (80 分)
一、听力测试 (本题共25分,每小题1分)
第一节 (共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5个问题,每个问题后有三个答语,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后,你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Sun Wukong. B. Sha Wujing. C. Zhu Wuneng.
2. A. Qomolangma. B. The Sahara. C. The Caspian Sea.
3. A. He is 19 B. In 2023. C. She likes country music.
4. A. A small market. B. It’s Monday. C. With my friends.
5. A. It’s 2: 45. B. By bike. C. For about three years.
第二节 (共7题,每小题1分,满分7分)
听下面7段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. What is the girl’s favorite sport?
A. Running. B. Skating. C. Swimming.
7. What will the girl do this weekend?
A. Climb mountains. B. Go camping. C. Visit friends.
8. Where did Mike go last winter holiday?
A. To Shanghai. B. To Wuhan. C. To Beijing.
9. What’s the weather like today?
A. Cloudy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
10. What will the man do this afternoon?
A. Go shopping. B. Take a class C. Buy a piano.
11. Who will have a birthday party?
A. Mia. B. Mike. C. Sarah.
12. Where did James go during the holiday?
A. Africa. B. America. C. Australia.
第三节 (共 13 小题,每小题 1分,满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,根据所听材料内容,从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段材料,回答 13-15题。
13. How does the girl look today?
А. Happy. B. Busy. C. Tired.
14. What did the girl do last night?
A. She watched movies. B. She worked late. C. She learned English
15. What is the boy’s opinion?
A. One should to bed early.
B. It’s fine to stay up late to get ready for the test.
C. The best way to relax is to watch an English movie.
听下面一段材料,回答 16-18题。
16. What is needed to borrow books from the library?
A. A teacher’s note B. A student I D. C. A report card.
17. How many books can a student borrow at a time?
A. Five. B. Seven. C. Ten.
18. What should you do if you need the books for longer?
A. You have to go to the library.
B. You don’t need to do anything.
C. You need to renew them online.
听下面一段材料,回答 19-22 题。
19. When is the conversation taking place?
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.
20. Who is the woman?
A. The man’s friend. B. A chef. C. A waitress.
21. What does the man want?
A. A cup of coffee. B. A fruit pizza. C. A special salad.
22. What else does the man need to order?
A. Some drinks. B. Some noodles. C. Some meat.
听下面一段材料,回答 23-25题。
23 Who is Linda?
A. A PE teacher. B. A Chinese teacher. C. A new student.
24. Where is Linda. from?
A. The US. B. Britain. C. China.
25. What is Linda good at?
A. Giving a speech. B. Speaking Chinese. C. Playing badminton.
第二部分 笔试部分
选择填空 (共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分10分)
从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。
26. —My English has been improving ever since I took the course two years ago.
— ____________!
A. No problem B. That’s all right C. Glad to hear that D. Thanks a lot
27. — ____________! We have to go now!
—Please come over whenever you have time.
A. That’s OK B. Sorry to trouble you
C. Never mind D. Thanks for inviting us
28. —Dale, remember to check your paper for mistakes before you hand it in.
— ____________!
A. Thanks a lot B. Sure, I will C. Sorry, I won’t D. I have no idea
29. —I have a terrible ____________ for names.
—Never mind. You could write them down in case (以防) you’ll forget them.
A. memory B. head C. taste D. skill
30. —How was the party last night?
—It was ____________! Everyone had a really great time singing and dancing.
A. free B. typical C. boring D. wild
31. —I haven’t been to Hubei Science Museum yet. What about you?
—Me ____________. Shall we go there this weekend?
A. neither B. either C. too D. also
32. —Lily, do you like ____________ model cars?
—Harry, it’s for boys, not for me.
A. comparing B. introducing C. driving D. collecting
33. As we know, doing sports can ____________ us against illnesses and keep us fit.
A. lead B. remind C. protect D. provide
34. —My best friend Grace didn’t talk to me after we argued last week.
—Don’t worry. Things will ____________ quite well.
A. help out B. work out C. hang out D. run out
35. —I like to go shopping there ____________ it’s a little far from my home.
—Me too. I think it provides better service than any other shops.
A. even though B. as long as C. since D. unless
三、完形填空 (共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Qixi Festival is also known as Chinese Valentine’s Day. The story of Qixi 36 like this.
Once upon a time, there was a fairy (仙女) named Zhinv. She came from the 37 of the Jade Emperor (玉皇大帝) in Heaven. She was 38 at weaving (纺织). One day, she went down to Earth with her friends. There, she 39 a cowboy named Niulang. Although Niulang was poor, he was hardworking and 40 . The two soon 41 in love. Zhinv decided to stay on Earth. She 42 Niulang without telling her family. They lived together for several years and gave 43 to two kids.
Unluckily, Zhinv’s family 44 about their secret marriage. The Jade Emperor got very 45 because fairies could not marry humans. He brought Zhinv back to Heaven. To stop her from running away, he 46 the Milky Way (银河) between Heaven and Earth. Zhinv couldn’t 47 the Milky Way. She was heartbroken and spent her days 48 by the Milky Way.
Her cries 49 humans and animals. Every year on the 7th day of the 7th lunar month, thousands of magpies (喜鹊) would get together. They would use their bodies to build a 50 over the Milky Way, so that Niulang and Zhinv could meet each other!
36. A. goes B. feels C. realizes D. imagines
37. A. house B. home C. family D. team
38. A. clear B. magic C. usual D. good
39. A. hid B. met C. collected D. invented
40. A. caring B. typical C. classical D. challenging
41. A. dropped B. took C. returned D. fell
42. A. depended B. married C. allowed D. beat
43. A. treasure B. gold C. birth D. achievement
44. A. found out B. worked out C. checked out D. tried out
45. A. nervous B. angry C. sweet D. crazy
46. A. offered B. provided C. changed D. created
47. A. swim B. cross C. fly D. walk
48. A. laughing B. smiling C. crying D. calling
49. A. touched B. hated C. compared D. shocked
50. A. boat B. tower C. island D. bridge
四、阅读理解 (共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
A 3D printer helped to make this house in Germany. It made the walls. They are 54 meters long. The printer spent about 140 hours. After that, workers built the roof and doors. The house is the largest 3D printed building in Europe. It attracts a large number of tourists.
Spain’s Barcelona (巴塞罗那) is a city of amazing buildings. The designer of these buildings was Gaudi (高迪). He lived in the 1800s. He was super creative. Gaudi’s houses don’t look like the houses we live in. They are colorful and have amazing shapes. Some houses look like waves in the sea. Some look like castles in fairy tales.
This group of buildings is in Zhangjiagang, Jiangsu. Does it look like a flower? The designer got ideas from the famous painting Water Lilies (睡莲) by French artist Claude Monet (莫奈). People can read books, enjoy performances and do sports here.
51. In which section of the newspaper can you read these reading materials?
A. Around the World B. Amazing Building C. Cool Technology D. Fun Time
52. What is the right order of pictures to match the reading materials?
A. ①②③ B. ①③② C. ②③① D. ③②①
53. Which of the following statements is FALSE about Gaudi?
A. Gaudi was a talented designer.
B. Gaudi’s houses have amazing shapes.
C. Gaudi never lived in a house he designed.
D. Gaudi’s houses seem to come from fairy tales.
54. According to the reading materials, it’s clear that ____________.
A. Gaudi designed all the buildings in Barcelona
B. Monet designed the group of buildings in Zhangjiagang
C. the house is the largest 3D printed building in the world
D. the 3D printer made all of the walls except the roof and doors
55. What do the three reading materials have in common?
A. The art in the buildings is special. B. The buildings are all colorful.
C. The designers are all great artists. D. The buildings all face the sea.
B
My older daughter came home yesterday complaining (抱怨) about the “month of tests”. “Today, we had a music test,” she said. “We each sang a song and got graded.”
“How did it go?” I asked.
“I sang Coco Lee’s” Thinking of You 365 Days’ and got an A, but it felt strange to judge a musical performance only by pitch (音高), tempo (节奏) and memorization of the lyrics (歌词),” my daughter said. “Some of my classmates sang like robots.”
I’ve heard similar complaints about school music tests online. Some students have to memorize pages and pages of facts about music. They might never have listened to “Song of the Phoenix (《百鸟朝凤》),” but they have to remember that it’s performed with suona (唢呐). Luckily, my daughter didn’t have to deal with that.
My wife and I both love music, and so do our daughters. We often have music playing in the background at home. Most of the time, it’s pop music. We enjoy listening to them and singing along.
But I also love classical (古典的) music—Mozart, Beethoven and the like. Unlike pop songs, many classical pieces are not catchy at all. However, these works can grow on you if you listen to them again and again. As with a fine cup of tea, their beauty is felt overtime.
Music classes should be about more than facts and tests. Through art, we are introduced to many different ideas. And as we discuss these different ideas, our minds slowly open up.
56. What did the writer’s older daughter do yesterday?
A. She had a music test and got an A. B. She listened to classical music.
C. She performed Song of the Phoenix. D. She complained her classmates.
57. According to the passage, students just ____________ for music tests in many schools.
A. play a music instrument B. memorize many facts about music
C. sing a pop song with robots D. tell the pitch and tempo of a song
58. What does the underlined word “catchy” probably mean?
A. easy to perform B. easy to create C. easy to grade D. easy to follow
59. Readers can infer from the passage that ____________.
A. Mozart wasn’t a classical musician
B. the writer’s family like pop music best
C. robots can sing Thinking of You 365 Days
D. Song of the Phoenix is performed with suona
60. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To remind students to learn some music skills.
B. To show that different music is like different tastes of life.
C. To call on schools to improve students’ musical quality in deed.
D. To tell that classical music should be listened to again and again.
C
①Nature is a great musician. The sounds of rain, birdsong or leaves in the wind are all part of its music. These sounds make us feel different emotions (情绪). For this reason, they have been used in many songs. One good example is Blackbird by The Beatles (披头士乐队) . About halfway through the song, a blackbird’s sweet singing adds color to the melody (旋律) .
②Nature, however, has never received any royalties (版税) for its important role in music. Now, with Sounds Right, things are beginning to change.
②Sounds Right is a new project of the Museum for the United Nations. The project looks at nature as a special artist. Many musicians from different countries have joined the project. They add nature sounds to their songs and share the royalties with nature.
④Sounds Right is expected to attract more than 600 million listeners within the first four years. It will earn about 40 million U. S. dollars. The money will be used in two main ways. One is to save endangered animals and plants. ★
⑤Brian Eno is a British singer. He is proud to be part of this project. “When you click on a song from Sounds Right, you can enjoy the beautiful sounds from nature,” he said. “You also get to hear the possibilities of a better world! “
61. The structure of the passage should be ____________.
A. ①--②③④--⑤ B. ①--②③--④⑤
C. ①②--③④--⑤ D. ①②--③--④--⑤
62. The Paragraph 3 focuses on ____________.
A. what the new project is B. money the project can get
C. what the project will do D. the ways to join the project
63. Which of the following can be put in ★ ?
‘ A. Another one is to save the musicians.
B. The other is to protect the environment.
C. Others think it’s a great idea to help the world.
D. People haven’t thought of a better way to develop the project.
64. In the last paragraph, you can find the answer to the question”
A. What is the meaning of the project? B. How can listeners pay for the songs?
C. When can people save the world together? D. Where can members enjoy the songs?
65. Which can be the best title for the passage?
A. Nature Needs New Right B. Nature Is in Danger
C. Nature Is a Great Musician D. Nature Sounds Right
第Ⅱ部分 非选择题 (40分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题,每小题 2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,用方框中所给的单词或短语填空,使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。 (提示:方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
brings / instead of / home / reminds / free / such as / introduces
Country is a traditional kind of music from the southern states of America. Nashville, Tennessee is the ____________ (66) of country music. Many songs these days are just about modern life in the US, ____________ (67) the importance of money and success, but not about belonging to a group. However, country music ____________ (68) us back to the “good old days” when people were kind to each other and trusted one another. It ____________ (69) us that the best things in life are ____________ (70) ---laughter, friends, family, and the beauty of nature and the countryside.
六、综合填空 (共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,根据上下文或括号内单词等提示,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
Blue Origin (蓝色起源) is a space tourism project. It was set up by Jeff Bezos. He is also the CEO of Amazon, a ____________ (71) (tame) online shopping platform. The project’s rocket, New Shepard, is reusable. On May 19, the rocket ____________ (72) (complete) its seventh manned space flight. It sent six ____________ (73) (customer) up just past the edge (边缘) of space. About ten minutes after takeoff (升空), it landed ____________ (74) (safe) on Earth. ____________ (75) this short trip, the people on board got to look back at the curve (弧线) of the Earth. They also experienced floating (漂浮) ____________ (76) the craft (飞行器) .
Ed Dwight was one of the six people on board. The African-American is 90 years old. He became the ____________ (77) (old) person to go to the edge of space. In fact, he was selected by NASA (美国国家航空航天局) ____________ (78) (train) as an astronaut in the 1960s. In the end, however, he wasn’t chosen for the team. Instead, he became an ____________ (79) (art). Although he missed out when he was younger, he ____________ (80) (make) it to space now!
七、书面表达 (共1大题,满分20分)
你校外教 Bill 想通过问卷了解亲子间的旅游经历。问卷中有曾去过哪里、旅游的经历和旅游的感受等方面的问题。请你根据以下问卷问题用英文向他作详细介绍。
Where have you been with your family?
What did your family do there?
How did you feel about the trip?
Something more about it.
注意:文中不得透漏个人真实信息;篇幅 100 词左右;开头已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Bill,
I’d like to tell you about my traveling experiences. _____________________________________________
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硚口(经开)区2023-2024学年度第二学期期末学业质量检测
八年级 英语试卷
区教研室提供 2024. 6. 28
一、听力测试 (每小题1分,满分10分)
1-5: ACBAC 6-10: CBACB 11-15: ACCAA 16-20: BACCC 21-25: BACAC
二、选择填空 (每小题1分,满分10分)
26-30: CDBAD 31-35: ADCBA
三、完形填空 (每小题1分,满分15分)
36-40: ACDBA 41-45: DBCAB 46-50: DBCAD
四、阅读理解 (每小题2分,满分30分)
51-55: BCCDA 56-60: ABDBC 61-65: CABAD
五、词与短语填空 (每小题2分,满分10分)
66. home 67. such as 68. brings 69. reminds 70. free
六、综合填空 (每小题1分,满分10分)
71. famous 72. completed 73. customers 74. safely 75. During
76. inside 77. oldest 78. to train 79. artist 80. has made
七、书面表达 (共1大题,满分20分)
Dear Bill,
I’d like to tell you about my traveling experiences. My family and I love traveling a lot, so we’ve already been to many places in China. The trip to Changsha, the capital city of Hunan province, is the most unforgettable for me. During the pleasant trip, we visited some places of interest. We enjoyed the beautiful sights at the top of Yuelu Mountain. Also, we rode bikes and had a picnic on Orange Island. Besides, we tasted popular local foods like Stinky Tofu and Sugar Oil Cake. To learn more about the history and culture there, we visited the Hunan Museum. In my opinion, the trip in Changsha impressed us with its rich history and delicious foods. There are so many wonderful places to visit in China. Which one is your favorite?
档次得分 评卷维度标准
内容切题,准确表达观点;结构合理,表意流畅;无人称、时态问题,
第五档|17~20分基本无句式和拼写等错误;书写整洁、整齐、清晰。这一档需要关注丰
富性、多样性、文学性。
内容切题,能够表达观点;结构完整,表意清晰;无人称、时态问题
第四档 13~16分少量句式和拼写等错误;书写整洁、整齐、清晰。
内容相关,尝试表达观点;结构缺失,表意模糊;有人称、时态问题,
第三档9~12分句式和拼写错误影响表意;书写不太规范。
第二档5~8分内容相关,试图用句子表意;各个维度都有问题,书写不规范。
第一档0~4分有少量相关词汇或抄写内容提示问题得4分。抄写无关内容可评为零分。附:书面表达评卷标准
2
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