内容正文:
2023-2024学年度第二学期期终考试
七年级英语试题
注意事项:
1.本次考试时间为100分钟,卷而总分为120分.考试形式为闭卷.
2.本试卷中所有试题必须作答在答题卡上规定的区城内,否则不给分.
3.答题前,务必将学校、班级、姓名和准考证号填写在答题卡上相应位置.
听力部分(共20分)
听力测试(共20小题,每小题1分,计20分)
第一部分听对话回答问题。本部分共有10道小题,每小题你将听到一段对话,每段对话读两遍。在听每段对话前,你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目;听完后,你将有5秒钟的时间从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1. Which animal are the two speakers talking about?
2. What outdoor activity would the man like to try?
3. What did the girl begin to play at the age of five?
4. Which pet does the girl have?
5. How can the woman get to the cinema?
A. Turn left and go straight on. B. Go straight on and turn left. C. Go straight on and turn right.
6. What's Suzy's mother doing now?
A. She is feeding the fish. B. She is cleaning the car. C. She is reading newspapers.
七年级英语试题第1页(共8页)
7. What will the volunteers do this weekend?
A. They will clean their classrooms.
B. They will grow wheat on the farm.
C. They will help the old people clean their flats.
8. How often docs the man go jogging?
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
9. Where is the bookshop?
A. On the 1^st floor. B. On the 2^m floor. C. On the 3^n floor.
10. Why didn't the man catch the plane?
A. Because he didn't start early.
B. Because the traffic was too busy.
C. Because he didn't know the way to the airport.
第二部分听对话和独白回答问题。本部分共有10道小题,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍.
听一段对话,完成第11至12小题。
11. Who will be the reporter of the Helping Hands Club?
A. Jim. B. Peter. C. David.
12. What will David do?
A. He will recommend Kitty for the job.
B. He will try his best to do the job well.
C. He will ask someone else to do the job.
听第一篇独白,完成第13至15小题。
A visit to my aunt's house
First
Aunt showed me around the 13.
Then
Aunt took me to see the horses.
After that
Aunt taught me how to 14 a horse.
In the end
We cleaned the horses' houses before we 15
13. A. town B. farm C. city
14. A. feed B. wash C. ride
15. A. had dinner B. said goodbye C. flew kites
听第二篇独白,完成第16至20小题。
16. When did the girl find the rabbit?
A. Last week. B. Last month. C. Last year.
17. Where did she find the rabbit?
A. In a box. B. Under a bridge. C. In the bushes.
18. Who would look after the rabbit?
A. Lucy's grandparents. B. Lucy's parents. C. Lucy.
19. How does she feel when she's with the rabbit?
A. Free. B. Happy. C. Busy.
20. What does the girl wish her parents to do with the rabbit?
A. To give it to others. B. To treat it kindly. C. To sell it.
笔试部分(共100分)
一、单项选择(共15小题,每小题1分,计15分)
A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
21. Yancheng is _____ city full of history, wonderful places and nice food.
A. a B. an C. the D./
22. Look! The traffic light is grecn. We can go _____ the road now.
A. above B. across C. below D. through
23. Your school library looks as modem as _____. Can you show me around?
A. we B. us C. our D. ours
24. Look at the picture on the right. How long is Yancheng Sea-salt Museum open on Friday afternoon?
A.3 hours.
B.3.5 hours.
C.4 hours.
D.5 hours.
25. Amy is _____ about what she eats. She never has junk food.
A. careful B. angry C. worried D. excited
26. Last weekend, David _____ a visit to his grandparents on the farm.
A. pay B. pays C. paid D. will pay
27. Sunshine Park is a good place to have fun and _____ people go cycling there.
A. thousand B. thousands C. two thousand of D. thousands of
28.--It's such a long way! - Don't worry. You ____ share a ride with me.
A. can B. must C. need D. should
29.Boys and girls,believe in yourselves and never let _____ take away your dreams.
A. somebody B. anybody C. nobody D. everybody
30.--How was your camping last weekend?
- Great. We _____ our tents at the foot of a hill and had great fun.
A. put up B. put out C. put down D. put on
31.-Is Mrs Green _____ mother? - Yes, and she is also our English teacher.
A. Jan and Jill B. Jan's and Jill C. Jan and Jill's D. Jan's and Jill's
32._____beautiful day!Why not take a walk along the beach?
A. What B. What a C. What an D. How
33. Millie wants to find information about keeping an e-pet on the Internet. Which keyword(s)
should she use?
A. Birds. B. E-pet. C. Pet care. D. Pet problems.
34. After this exam, you _____ a wonderful holiday next month. Take it easy!
A. have B. has C. had D. will have
35.--Dad,can I go swimming this weekend?
-_____. It's dangerous to swim alone in the lake.
A. Good luck B. Of course C. No, I'm afraid not D. No problem
二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
My name is Rebeca and I'm from beautiful Brazil. But my family live in a poor area and life wasn't 36. My parents work hard so my brother and I can go to school. We 37 com straight home after school to help with housework. But I have a deep love for football. And I want to tell you 38 football changes my life.
In March our team won the competition-it was amazing! From then on, we win a lot more matches. I become more confident (自信的). I also get to know some football stars. Among them, my 44 can both play well and speak English well. So in the near 45 I will study hard so that I can travel around the world and talk to people from different countries. That's my biggest dream in life.
36. A. easy B. busy C. funny D. different
37. A. sometimes B. always C. seldom D. never
38.A. how B. what C. when D. where
39. A. something B. anything C. nothing D. everything
40. A. dance B. sing C. play D. read
41. A. waited B. seemed C. decided D. remembered
42. A. once B. hard C. suddenly D. easily
43. A. interested B. worried C. excited D. tired
44. A. classmates B. reporters C. artists D. heroes
45. A. future B. house C. dream D. college
三、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,计40分)
(一)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
46. What kind of writing is this?
A. A poem. B. A story. C. A diary. D. A letter.
47. Which of the following can you put in "_____"?
A. what B. who C. when D. why
48. What can you learn from the text?
A.学问勤中得,萤窗万卷书 B.纸上得来终觉浅,绝知此事要躬行
C.学而不思则罔,思而不学则殆 D.少年易老学难成,一寸光阴不可轻
B
49. What is Water World?
A. A place above water. B. A place to see fish.
C. A place without pools. D. A place to watch birds.
50. When can you feed the animals?
A. At 9 a.m… B. At 10:40 a.m… C. At 1 p.m.. D. At 4:30 p.m…
51. What can children do on the Water World beach?
A. They can buy their favourite gifts. B. They can enjoy lots of special food.
C. They can swim and play with sand. D. They can watch different sea animals.
C
Long long ago,in a big hot desert(沙漠), there was a lonely tree. It wasn't like other trees with lots of leaves.This one was having a hard life.With little rain and long hours of hot sun, its leaves dried up from heat.
One sunny day, a hawk flew over the desert. He was very tired, hungry and thirsty, so he landed(降落)on the tree's tallest branch to take a rest. Looking around, the hawk asked the tree, "Hey, why do you keep on living here in this empty(空的), hot place? Why don't you stay with your family and friends? Who needs you here?"
The tree and answered, "You do."
"Me?" the hawk was surprised. "I don't need you. I can fly everywhere, any place is OK." The tree said, "You can fly away anytime, and that's true. But think about it. If not for me, you would have to sit on the hot sand instead of (而不是) my branches. Without me, someone might see you alone and wonder why you're here. When you are sitting on my branches, you think that I need you."
The hawk thought for a moment and agreed. Yes, without the tree, the hawk wouldn't have anyone to talk to, either.
52. Why did the tree have few leaves?
A. Because it felt sad and tired. B. Because of the heavy rain.
C. Because it got sick suddenly. D. Because of the hot weather.
53. Which of the following can show the branch of a tree?
54. What does paragraph 5 mainly tell us?
A. Where the hawk could stand. B. Why the hawk needed the tree.
C. When the hawk could fly away. D. What the hawk did in the desert.
55. What did the hawk understand after talking to the tree?
A. The tree was important to him. B. The tree needed nobody to talk to.
C. He needed another tree to rest on. D. He needed to bring water to the tree.
D
The phone rings. The phone never rings in our house. I have a bad feeling. I open my bedroom door and listen.
Mum (on the phone): Hello? … Yes, speaking … How are you? … Yes? ... Oh, really? … No, I don't… I understand … Yes, of course … No, I don't understand … Problems at home? … No … Yes … Tonight … Leave it with me … Thank you for telling me … Goodbye.
And then there's silence(寂静). I can see Mum downstairs. Now she's looking up at my bedroom door. Now she's thinking. And now she's walking into the kitchen.
Two minutes later the three of us are sitting at the table. Tonight we're having potatoes, a fried egg and a fried tomato. I don't like fried tomatoes but I don't tell Mum. She thinks I like them. Dad speaks first.
Dad: So … Eoin … How are things at school?
Me: Good, Dad.
Mum: Really? Mr Stirling doesn’t agree.
Mr Stirling is our History teacher. Now I understand.
The phone call + Mr Stirling = _____.
Dad: Do you know the result (结果) of your History test? Me: Oh …
Dad: 2 out of 100!
Mum: Don't get angry, Dad.
Dad: I'm not angry!
I never understand why Mum calls Dad "Dad". He isn’t her dad. Her dad lives in a flat in London. My dad's name is Martin. And Martin is angry.
Mum: You’re usually good at History, Eoin.
Me: I'm sorry, Mum.
Dad: Mr Stirling says you’re not doing well in any school subject.
Mum: Except (除了) sport.
Dad: You hate sport, Eoin. What's going on?
Me: I like sport now.
Dad: Do you know what I think?
Me: I can't read your mind (思想), Dad.
But this time I can read minds. I know clearly what Dad thinks.
Dad: I think your new friends-the twins next door are the problem. They are strange.
Me: They are special.
Mum: Maybe it's good if you don't see the twins for a while.
I can’t believe she's saying this.
Mum: Only if things get better at school.
I look at Mum and shout:
Me: I hate fried tomatoes!
I walk out of the door and run upstairs. I'm foolish.
56. Who is calling Mum?
A. Dad. B. Mr Stirling. C. The twins' parent. D. The twins.
57. Which of the following can you put in "_____"?
A. Great fun. B. Great dream. C. Big smile. D.Big trouble.
58. Why are Dad and Mum angry with Eoin?
A. Because he hates sport very much. B. Because he knows what they think.
C. Because he hates eating fried tomatoes. D. Because he fails most of his lessons.
59. Why does Eoin run upstairs at last?
A. Because he is going to do sport outside.
B. Because he will call his grandfather in London.
C. Because his parents don't understand him at all.
D. Because he has problems with his favourite subject.
60. Which is the best title of the passage?
A. A Bad History Test B. The Ability to Read Minds
C. A Surprising Phone Call D. The Strange Twins Next Door
(二)阅读下面短文,从所给选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,使短文通顺,结构完整,其中有一项是多余选项。
Amazing Facts about Bones
Bones are really amazing. When you grow, they grow, too. When some of your bones are broken, they can grow again. 61
Not everyone has 206 bones.
Most books say people have 206 bones, but this is not always true. 62 As they grow, some of their bones join together into one bone later.
Some bones make you tall or short.
There are some soft bones in your body. 63 After enough sleep, you will go back as usual in the morming.
64
The ear bones are three small bones. They are the smallest bones in your body. They help sound go into your ears fast.
How amazing bones are! 65 Why not read more and share what you know with us?
四、词汇(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
(一)根据句意和汉语提示写出单词,完成句子。
66.-Could you tell me the way to the nearest cinema ?
--well ,I’m going there. Just (跟随)me .
67. When my cat gets tired, she sleeps _____.(任何地方)
68. In these _____, each plant has its own story to tell. (花园)
69. When the man walked past our classroom, he _____ to us. (点头)
70. My hometown changes a lot. It doesn’t look the _____ as it did before. (相同的)
(二)根据句意用所给单词的适当形式填空。
71. There were doors all around, but they were all _____.(lock)
72. Stop _____ that mountain, Daniel. It's too dangerous. (climb)
73. Every year many _____ come here to see the milu deer. (visit)
74. I have no time to wait. If you want to come with me, get dressed _____. (quick)
75. We can watch the wonderful _____ Olympics(奥运会) on TV this summer. (thirty-one)
五、读写综合
(一)阅读并回答问题。(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
60 years ago, China built diplomatic ties (外交关系) with France. Over the years, people from the two countries have close exchange (交流) in different areas. Two students are telling their cultural (文化的) exchange stories.
回答下面5个问题,每题答案不超过6个词。
76. When did China build diplomatic ties with France?
77. Why is the museum so special to Jin Yu?
78. What is language to Jin Yu?
79. How many friends does Paul have on the app?
80. What will you do for the cultural exchange?
(二)书面表达(共1题,计15分)
81.暑期临近,为对外宣传家乡之美,某英文网站正在举行"最佳小导游"招募活动。
假如你是 Simon,你准备推荐自己,请根据以下提示,写一篇英文自荐信。
What are you like?
friendly,…
What can you do?
speak English well, tell Chinese stories in English, ...
What will you do?
注意事项:(1)文中不能出现真实姓名、校名等信息;
(2)文章必须包含所有要点,可适当发挥,使短文连贯、通顺;
(3)词数:80词左右(文章开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数)。
Dear Sir/Madam,
I would like to recommend myself to be the Best Travel Guide. ________________ I’m looking forward to hearing from you soon.
Yours faithfully,
Simon
七年级英语试题第8页(共8页)
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
$$七年级英语评分细则及听力材料 第1页(共 4页)
2023—2024 学年度第二学期期终考试
七年级英语参考答案
听力部分(共 20小题,每小题 1分,计 20分)
1~5 AACCB 6~10 ACCCB 11~15 CBBCA 16~20 ACCBB
笔试部分
一、单项选择(共 15小题,每小题 1分,计 15分)
21~25 ABDCA 26~30 CDABA 31~35 CBBDC
二、完形填空(共 10小题,每小题 1分,计 10分)
36~40 ABADC 41~45 CBCDA
三、阅读理解(共 20小题,每小题 2分,计 40分)
46~50 ADCBC 51~55 CDDBA 56~60 BDDCC 61~65 CBEAF
四、词汇(共 10小题,每小题 1分,计 10分)
66. follow 67. anywhere 68. gardens 69. nodded 70. same
71. locked 72. climbing 73. visitors 74. quickly 75. thirty-first
五、读写综合
(一)阅读并回答问题。(共 5小题,每小题 2分,计 10分)
76. 60 years ago.
77. Because of some great painters’ paintings.
78. A window into a new world.
79. Over 15,000 (friends). /More than 15,000 (friends).
80. I’ll learn Chinese culture well. /I’ll tell Chinese stories in English. /I’ll learn English well./ I’ll
tell Chinese culture to foreigners. /...
(二)书面表达(共 1 题,计 15 分)
81. Dear Sir/Madam,
I would like to recommend myself to be the Best Travel Guide.
I’m Simon. I’m friendly and helpful. When others are in need, I’m ready to help them. I’m
also clever and learn things quickly.
I can speak English well and I’m good at telling Chinese stories in English. I can plan
different activities. Most importantly, I know my hometown very well.
To show the beauty of my hometown, I will show visitors around and let them enjoy our local
food and culture. I’m sure I can be a great travel guide.
I’m looking forward to hearing from you soon.
Yours faithfully,
Simon
七年级英语评分细则及听力材料 第2页(共 4页)
七年级英语评分细则
回答问题
本题总分为 10分,每题 2分。
1. 每小题答案内容正确,表述语法正确,符合字数要求,得 2分;
2. 每题答案的关键词正确,但表述不规范,字数超出 6个字,得 1分;
3. 答案不正确,得 0分;
4. 第 80题开放题,回答符合文意逻辑,表述正确,得 2分。
书面表达
(一)书面表达评分原则
本题总分为 15分,按得分点分档给分。
(二)作文得分要点
1. 对表格中What are you like?给出的 1个要点进行阐述得 2分,有关性格省略号发挥的部分
得 2分,共 4分。
2. 对表格中What can you do?给出的两个要点进行阐述,一个要点得 2分,有关能力省略号
发挥的部分得 2分,共 6分。
3. 对表格中What will you do?提出自己合理的行动表述或发表感悟,得 2分。
4. 语言表达体现准确性、连贯性、得体性、优美性,得 2分。
5. 标点符号使用正确,书写清楚,卷面整洁。(1分)
6. 英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
7. 书面表达词数应在 80词左右,但对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
8. 对完全完成了试题规定的任务,语言地道、准确的书面表达,可给予满分。
(三)各档次作文的给分范围和要求
第五档 13—15分 能覆盖所有要点,能对主题和内容进行适当的深化和拓展。逻辑清晰,
语言流畅,表达手段多元,句子结构较为复杂,且语言基本无误或有
少数错误,但主要是由于使用较高级词汇或复杂结构所致。
第四档 10—12分 能写出所有要点,并能关注要点间的逻辑关系。文章结构完整,表达
较清晰,行文较流畅,有少量的语法、词汇或标点符号方面的错误,
但不影响理解。
第三档 7—9 分 能写出大部分要点,但多为罗列,未能关注要点间的联系。表达基本
清楚,但存在较多的语法和词汇错误,句子结构和衔接手段单调。
第二档 4—6 分 能写出少量内容要点,呈现少量孤立的句子,未关注上下文和句子间
的逻辑和连贯,未能构成完整语篇。
第一档 1—3 分 未能理解写作要求,只能写出一些孤立的单词和短语,基本上没有通
顺的句子,表达不清,结构混乱。
0分 未表达任何与本题内容有关的信息,抄写试卷中相关语篇、出现真实
的校名和学生姓名或只字未写。
七年级英语评分细则及听力材料 第3页(共 4页)
七年级英语听力材料
第一部分 听对话回答问题。本部分共有 10道小题,每小题你将听到一段对话,每段对
话读两遍。在听每段对话前,你将有 5秒钟的时间阅读题目;听完后,你将有 5秒钟的时间
从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1. W: What amazing things do you know, Tony?
M: The giraffe has a long neck but only with seven bones inside.
2. W: What outdoor activity would you like to try?
M: Let me see. Go riding, maybe. Oh, no, I’d like to go camping.
3. M: When did you begin to play the violin?
W: At the age of five.
4. M: What are you going to do?
W: I’m going to buy some bird food for my pet parrot.
5. W: Where is the cinema, please?
M: Go straight on and turn left. It’s next to the post office.
6. M: Suzy, is your mother reading newspapers now?
W: No. She is feeding the fish.
7. M: Will the volunteers help the old people this weekend?
W: Of course. They will help the old people clean their flats.
8. W: Do you often exercise?
M: Yes. I go jogging for one hour every Saturday and Sunday.
9. W: Excuse me, is the bookshop on this floor?
M: No. You are on the second floor now and the bookshop is on the third floor.
10. W: You mean you didn’t catch the plane, right?
M: Yes, I started early, but I didn’t know the way to the airport was too busy.
第二部分 听对话和独白回答问题。本部分共有 10 道小题,每段对话或独白后有几个
小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听一段对话,完成第 11至 12小题。
M: Hello, Kitty! This is David speaking.
W: Hello, David!
M: Thank you, Kitty. It’s so kind of you to recommend me as the reporter of the Helping Hands
Club.
W: It’s my pleasure, David. I think you’re good enough to be a great reporter.
M: Well, it’s exciting to be a reporter, but I’m worrying about my ability to do the work.
W: Believe in yourself. You’re good enough to take on the job.
M: It’s very nice of you. I’ll do my best. Goodbye!
W: Bye!
七年级英语评分细则及听力材料 第4页(共 4页)
听第一篇独白,完成第 13至 15小题。
This weekend, I visited my aunt. She lives on a farm in the countryside. She keeps horses and
teaches people how to ride them. First, she showed me around the farm. It’s very big! Then she
took me to see the horses. It was time for lunch, so she gave them some food. After that, my aunt
taught me how to ride a horse. Then we rode the horse across the fields! It was so exciting! When
we went back to the farm, we cleaned the horses’ houses before we had dinner. I really hope I can
visit my aunt again soon. I love horses.
听第二篇独白,完成第 16至 20小题。
Hello! Everyone. I’m Lucy. I’m the only child in my family, but always feel happy. I have a
friend. It’s a rabbit. Last week, I went to the park with my parents, I found a rabbit in the bushes. It
wasn’t in good health. It looked at me with its big red eyes. It was so poor and lovely that I wanted
to take it home. At first, my parents didn’t let me keep the rabbit. They didn’t want to make any
trouble with a wild animal. However, I decided to keep it and I asked my parents again and again.
In the end, they agreed. They told me that I have to look after it myself. I am very happy with the
rabbit. I wish my parents could treat it as a family member.