山东省章丘区章丘四中初中部章丘一中初中部2023-2024学年七年级下学期联考第二次月考英语试卷

2023一2024学年第二学期阶段考试二 七年级英语试题答题卡 [o] [o] [o] [o] [o] [o] [o] 出 学校 班级 E3E aa55 姓名 考号 9 ESE3EEEEE 岛 考生须知 1、考生答题前，在规定的地方准确填写考号和姓名，并用2B铅笔填涂考号。 2,选择题作答时，必须用B铅笔填涂，如需要对答案进行修改，应使用绘图橡皮轻擦干净，注意不要擦破答题卷。 3、非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔作答。严格按照答题要求，在答题卷对应题号指定的答题区城内答题，切 不可超出黑色边框，超出黑色边框的答案无效。 4、作图题可先用铅笔绘出，确认后，再用0,5毫米黑色墨水签字笔描清楚。 5,保持卷面清洁，不要将答题卷折叠，弄破。 1 [A][B][C][D] [A][B][CJ][D] 11 [A] [B] [C][D] 16 [A][B][C][D] [A] [B] [C][D [A][B] [c] [D] 12 [A] [B] [c] [D] 17 [A] [B] [c] [D] 3 [A] [B] [e] [D] CA][B] [c] [D] [A] [B] [c] [D] 18 [A][B][C] D [A] [B] [c] [D] CA][B] [c] [D] 14 [A] [B] [e] [D] 0 [A][B] [c] [D] 5 [A] [B] [c] [D] 10 CA] [B] [c] [D] 15 [AJ [B] [c] [D] 20 [A][B] [c] [D] 2 [A] B [c] [D] 26 [A] CB] c [D] 31 CA] CB] te] [D 36 [A][B][C] [D] 22 [A] [B] [c] [D] [A][B] EC] [D] CA][B] [c][D] 37 [A][B][C][D] [A] [B] [c] [D] 8 [A] [B] [ej [D] [A][B] [c][D] 38 [A][B] [c][D] 24 [A] CB] [c] [D] 29 [A] [B] tc] [D] 34 [A][B] [c][D] 39 [A][B][C]D] 25 [A] [B] [c] [D] [A][B][C] [D] [A] [B] [c] [A][B][C][D] 41 [A] [B] [c] [D] [E] [F] [G] 46 CA] [B] [c] [A][B][C] [D] [A][B][C] [D] [E] [F][G 47 [A][B] [c] [D] [A][B] [e] [D] 43 [A][B][C][D][E] [F][G CA] [B] [c [D] 3 [A][B] [cl [D] 44 [A][B][C] [D][E][F][G 49 [A][B] [c] [D] [A][B] [c] [D] 45 [A][B] [c] [D][E] [F][G] 5O[A][B][C][D] 55 [A][B][C]CD] 56 [A] [B][c [D] 61 [A][B][C][D] 57 [A][B][C] [D] 62 [A][B][C][D] 58 [A][B][C][D] 63 [A][B][C][D] 59 [A][B][C][DI 64 [A][B][C][D] 60 [A][B][C][D] 65 [A][B][C][D] V.阅读填空(15分)。 66 67. 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 七年级英语答题卡（第1页，共2页） .书面表达(35分)。 第一部分情境运用（每小题2分，共10分）。 76. 77 78 79 第二部分写作(25分)。 Dear Jeff. Yours, LiHua 七年级英语答题卡（第2页，共2页） 2023—2024学年第二学期阶段二测 七年级英语试题直升班20240604 注意事项： 1. 本试题分为选择题部分和非选择题部分，共10页。 2. 满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 选择题部分 共100分 I. 听力测试 （30分） A）听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子读一遍。（7.5分） 1. A. Everything tasted really good. B. Everyone had a good time. C. I did something special last week. 2. A. Are you free next week? B. How often do you drink milk? C. How many hours do you sleep every night? 3. A. I’m more outgoing than my sister. B. My good friend has longer hair than me. C. A good friend is like a mirror. 4. A. It has the best clothes. B.The DJs choose songs the most carefully. C. You can buy clothes the most cheaply there. 5. A. Why do you like watching the news? B. Do you plan to watch the news tonight? C. I watch the news every night. B）在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（7.5分） 6. Where did the woman go on her vacation? A. She went somewhere interesting. B. She went somewhere quiet. C. She went nowhere. 7. What do the speakers think of the supermarket? A. They like it. B. They don’t like it. C. They don’t mind it. 8. What’s Molly going to do tonight? A. Have a piano lesson. B. Have a guitar lesson. C. Have a swimming lesson. 9. What will the woman bring to the old people if she visits an old people’s home? A. Some fruit. B. Some vegetables. C. Some flowers. 10. Can Frank go to the birthday party? A. Yes, he can. B. No, he can’t. C. We don’t know. C）在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（听对话前，你将有40秒的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒的答题时间）（7.5分） 11. Did Lisa go to the school trip? A. Yes, she did. B. No, she didn’t. C. Yes, she does. 12. When did Lisa go to the movies? A. On Saturday afternoon. B. On Sunday afternoon. C. On Saturday morning. 13. Who did Lisa go to the movies with? A. Her mother. B. Her brother. C. Her sister. 14. Where did Tony go in the morning? A. To the science museum. B. To the movie theater. C. To the zoo. 15. What did Tony do in the afternoon? A. He cleaned his room. B. He saw a big science show. C. He went to the zoo. D）在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文读两遍。（听短文前，你将有40秒的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒的答题时间）（7.5分） 16. Where does Li Lei come from? A. America. B. China. C. Britain.     17. How old is Li Lei? A. 13.         B. 14. C. 30.              18. How does Li Lie feel about soap operas? A. He can’t stand them. B. He doesn’t mind them. C. He likes them a lot. 19. Who likes sitcoms? A. Li Lei.       B. Mary. C. Both.   20. How many of them like cartoons? A. One. B. Two. C. Neither. Ⅱ. 阅读理解 阅读下列短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（每小题2分,共40分） A Mr. Brown had much money. One day he went on a trip to the countryside with his 5-year-old son, Eric. He wanted to show his son how poor people lived, so they spent a day and a night on the farm of a very poor family. When they got back from their trip, Mr. Brown asked Eric, “My dear son, how was the trip?” “Very good, dad!” Eric said happily. “Did you see how the poor lived?” Mr. Brown asked. “Yeah!” Eric answered. “And what did you learn?” Mr. Brown asked. “We have a dog at home but they have four. We have a pool in the middle of the garden but they have a long river. We have expensive lamps in the garden but they have the stars.” Eric answered. When little Eric finished, Mr. Brown couldn’t say anything. 21. Why did Mr. Brown take Eric to the farm？ A. To show him how poor they were. B. To show him how rich they were. C. To show him where the poor lived. D. To show him how the poor lived. 22. What does the underlined word “lamps” probably mean? A. 钻石 B. 鲜花 C. 路灯 D. 小羊 23. What did Eric think of the trip？ A. Tiring B. Expensive C. Great D. Boring 24. What do you think of Eric? A. Serious B. Childish C. Outgoing D. Strict 25. What can we can infer from the story? A. Mr. Brown with Eric went to the farm for fun. B. Mr. Brown and Eric didn’t like the farm at all. C. Eric thought the farm family lived more happily. D. Eric lived happily with the poor family on the farm. B What will travel be like in the year 2070? In the year 2070, most of you will be more than 60 years old. The good news is that travel might become smarter by that time. Let’s take a look at some amazing ideas from The Future Travel Report. Heartbeat passport Paper passports（通行证）will be a thing of the past. You will use “heartbeat passports” instead. According to scientists, everyone’s heartbeat is different. So the data（数据）will be used to tell who you are. More comfortable flight The seats on the plane will no longer be “one size fits all”. You’ll be able to book a seat according to your body build. The seat might even be able to cool or warm you to your favourite temperature. There will also be no more screens on the back of your seats. A futuristic device（未来设备）could show movies straight in front of your eyes. Printed clothes and food If you hate taking clothes, you may not need to do it in the future. Before you fly, you will have a body scan（扫描）. And when you arrive, you’ll find a room filled with 3D-printed clothes in your size. When you leave, the clothes can be recycled and reprinted for the next person. You can also 3D print whatever you want to eat. Bring history back to life If you like to visit historic sites（历史古迹）, AR will change the game Wearing a headset, you can see what happened at a historic site, such as a famous war. You may even be able to sit among the cheering people at the first Olympic Games. 26. What will take the place of（取代）paper passports? A. Your heartbeat B. The futuristic device    C. The 3D-printed clothes   D. The flight ticket  27. Which of the following is True according to the passage? A. The size of the seats on the plane will be the same. B. You can see the movies on the screens on the plane. C. It’s possible for you to 3D print either clothes or your favorite food. D. The AI headset can really bring you back to the first Olympic Games. 28. Why don’t you need to take your clothes before flying? A. Because you dislike taking them. B. Because they can be printed after the scanning. C. Because they aren’t in the right size. D. Because you can get them from next person. 29. What can we infer（推断）about the travel according to the passage? A. Without your paper passport you can’t take the plane. B. You will feel too hot if you travel in summer. C. The 3D printed coat may be a little larger for you. D. You can enjoy watching the first Olympics in excitement.  30. What is the best title of the passage? A. Smart Future Travel B. Amazing Futuristic Device C. The Life in the Future D. Don’t Forget History C ChatGPT is an AI chatbot developed（开发）by San Franciso-based startup OpenAI. It is controlled by a large language model. What makes ChatGPT so amazing is that it can have human-like response(反应). It can talk with people, write songs, passages and even jokes. It’s one of the most greatest AI writers. ChatGPT can write things really fast. Many people began to use it. For example, Mo Yan asked ChatGPT for help in writing award words for the writer Yu Hua. Yu Hua, the writer of the popular novels “To Live” and “Brothers”, get another milestone in 2021. His latest novel, “Wen Cheng” won the top prize for novel rankings(排名). During the ceremony(典礼), as an award presenter（颁奖嘉宾）for Yu, Mo had to make a speech for giving award. “I spent several days trying to write one but failed, so I asked a student to make ChatGPT write one for me,” Mo said, after he put in the keywords such as “To Live”, “remove a tooth” and “Wen Cheng”, the chatbot created a citation(颁奖词) of over 1,000 words, written in a Shakespearean style. The reason for Mo to choose the three key points is “To Live” is one of Yu’s most popular novels. “remove a teeth” refers to the fact that Yu used to be a dentist before he became a writer, and “Wen Cheng” showed Yu’s latest novel, which won the prize at the ceremony. ChatGPT is very useful because it can help people work out the problem easily. However, every coin has two sides. 31. What does the underlined word “It” in Paragraph 1 refer to? A. the model B. ChatGPT C. the response D. OpenAI 32. Which of the following is True according to tha passage? A. One of Mo Yan’s students once asked him to use ChatGPT. B. Mo Yan disliked the citation written in a Shakespearean style. C. Mo Yan enjoyed using ChatGPT to write novels in his daily life. D. Mo Yan failed to write award words and asked ChatGPT for help. 33. Which is the correct order of the things below? a. Yu Hua’s latest novel won the top prize. b. MoYan spent several days on award words. c. Yu Hua wrote “To Live” and “Brothers”. d. Mo Yan turned to ChatGPT for help. A. c-a-b-d B. c-b-d-a C. b-d-c-a D. b-c-a-d 34. What will probably be talked about in the following paragraph? A. ChatGPT’s learning habits. B. People’s feelings about ChatGPT. C. Problems that may come with AI writing. D. The ways that ChatGPT learn to write. 35. In which part of the newspaper may the passage be from? A. Science B. Sports C. School Life D. Travel D There are some popular family videos that are being posted on Chinese social media（社交媒体）these days. In these videos, a young child calls out to his or her mother or father, the parent comes into the room smiling, turns around and calls out to his or her own parent; the grandparent then comes into the room smiling and calls out to his or her parent, the great-grandparent. This kind of family is called “four generation(四世同堂)” in China. It started on Tiktok and has been popular in social media in other countries. People from all over the world have talked much about the videos and even made their own. The videos also make some people remember their family members who have been dead. “Because of the video, I will visit my grandmother this weekend,” a Twitter user wrote. “I have to say that family love is usually a strong value in China,” wrote Justin. The “four generation” videos not only touched foreign viewers, but also gave them a deeper look into Chinese family values. In most East Asian cultures（文化）, it is common for many generations of a single family to live together. This is called a big family. In most Western countries, most families are small families, or families that are made up of just children and their parents. In Western culture, privacy（隐私）and independence（独立）are highly valued. Kids usually move out of the house after they turn eighteen. Many of them borrow money or work part-time jobs in order to pay for college. If they choose to keep living with their parents after growing up, it can be seen as a failure. Although family structures in the East and West may be different, the love between family members is common. That might be why the “four generation” videos have won so many hearts around the world. 36. What does Paragraph 1 mainly talk about? A. It tells popular families in China. B. It lists photos of Chinese families. C. It shows family videos on Chinese media. D. It tells some habits of families in China. 37. What can we infer from Paragraph 2? A. Foreigners also want to have their own big families. B. Foreigners would like to move their families to China. C. Foreigners should do something valuable for Chinese families. D. Foreigners realize they should love family members and what they have. 38. What does the underlined word “failure” probably mean in Paragraph4? A. 成功 B. 失败 C. 依恋 D. 荣耀 39. According to the passage, which of the following is True? A. Western people don’t value independence and privacy. B. It is a failure if people keep living with their parents in China. C. Many Western kids work part-time jobs to pay for their college. D. Kids in the West move out of the house before they turn eighteen. 40. What does the writer mainly want to tell us? A. The family love is common in different countries. B. “Four generation” is popular in Western countries. C. Big families are much better than those small ones. D. People in the West do not have family videos at all. Ⅲ. 阅读理解七选五（每小题2分，共10分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为 多余选项。 Have you ever dreamed of enjoying the beautiful countryside and listening to the wind on a cold night? 41 But before you go, you really need to know where to start. Let’s see what US middle school students always do to get ready for their camping. First of all, 42 They often choose lakes, mountains, the forest or the seaside. Camping grounds are all over the US. When they make their decision, they will tell their parents where they will go. Safety is the most important thing. If they are going to a far-away area, they will take something like a knife, flashlight and other tools to keep themselves away from danger. They also take enough food and water. If they can’t find their way, a good map is always necessary. 43 Most tents are light and easy to put up. They come with a groundsheet, which stops water from getting in, as well as a fly screen, so that bugs don’t fly into the tent at night. Depending on different activity they plan to do, 44 For example, if they want to go hiking, they will take a sun hat, a strong pair of walking boots, some lightweight trousers, and a waterproof（防水的）coat. Do you know all the things US students do when they go camping? Summer vacation is right around the corner. 45 Go and have a good time! A. Why not go camping with your parents or friends? B. US students need to plan differently. C. Then you need to go camping. D. they decide which place to camp. E. US students bring different clothes. F. One of the most important things is a tent. G. they need help from their parents. Ⅳ. 补全对话 从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。（5分） W: I want some students for the class show. What can you do, Bill? 46 M: Sorry, I can’t. 47 W: Really? That’s good. 48 M: She can sing, and she can dance, too. W: Great. 49 M: Victor. He started to play the violin at the age of seven, so he does well in it. W: OK! 50 M: Let’s go. 46. A. What can you do? B. Can you sing? C. Can you sing or dance? D. Are you good at singing? 47. A. But I can play the piano. B. I can’t sing. C. I don’t like singing. D. What about you? 48. A. Is Lucy good at it or not? B. Do you know who can sing well? C. How about Lily? D. Who can sing well? 49. A. Do you know that boy? B. Do you know who can play the violin? C. How difficult it is to find Mr. Right. D. Do you know who can play the piano? 50. A. Now it’s time to go and find them. B. Take it easy. C. Practice makes perfect. D. Old habits die hard. V. 完形填空 阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。（15分） Burano （布拉诺）is a beautiful island in Italy. It is probably one of the most colorful places in the world. It is popular 51 visitors from all over the world. Lots of visitors 52 to visit it when they are free. When you visit Burano, you can see lots of 53 in bright colors. When you are walking here, you may think you are 54 a fairy world. Every house is beautiful and it 55 a castle. The local（当地）people can 56 their houses in bright colors, but all the houses must 57 a special color pattern（图案）. 58 You paint your house, you must ask the government first. The government will 59 you the certain color that you can use. There are some other interesting 60 . For example, if your neighbor’s house is red, the government won’t 61 you to paint your house red. You have to choose a different 62 . For the local people, painting 63 houses has become a tradition. In the past, most of the local people were fisherman. They painted their houses in 64 colors so that they could see their houses far away 65 . See? Colors were useful in their life. 51. A. between B. with C. at D. of 52. A. dislike B. choose C. seem D. wait 53. A. houses B. villages C. cities D. countries 54. A. flying B. visiting C. climbing D. falling 55. A. looks for B. looks up C. looks at D. looks like 56. A. clean B. wash C. paint D. build 57. A. lose B. follow C. remember D. point 58. A. After B. Before C. When D. Because 59. A. tell B. say C. talk D. speak 60. A. lessons B. rules C. houses D. pictures 61. A. allow B. drive C. make D. invite 62. A. size B. color C. price D. kind 63. A. our B. his C. your D. their 64. A. dark B. heavy C. bright D. black 65. A. hardly B. loudly C. nearly D. clearly 非选择题 共50分 VI. 用括号中所给词的适当形式填空或填入适当的虚词 （每小题1分，共15分）。 A little girl thought she was not as beautiful 66 other girls, and nobody liked her. So she was unhappy. She always stayed at home by herself and didn’t talk to 67 （someone）. One day, her mother（buy） 68 a beautiful hairclip（发夹）for her. When she wore it, she looked much 69 （beautiful）than before. She decided 70 （go）to school with the beautiful hairclip. On her way to school, she found that most of her 71 （classmate）smiled at her, but they never did this before. She thought that it was because of the beautiful hairclip. She was so happy. When she went back home after school, her mother asked her, “You 72 （leave）your hairclip at home this morning, didn’t you know? I found it by the door.” She was 73 （surprise）to hear that. She understood that she didn’t wear the hairclip to school. It’s not important what we wear or how we look. The most important thing is 74 we think of ourselves. If we want to do things 75 （successful）, first try to be confident（自信的）. If we think we can, we can. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. Ⅶ. 书面表达（35分） 第一部分 情境运用 请根据所提供的图画情景，用完整的句子完成下列各题。（10分） A: __________________________? B: The beach. We were really relaxed there. 76. A: __________________________? B: Hardly ever. He is always afraid of it. ck. 77. A: __________________________? B: Ten minutes, more or less. 78. 79. ____________________________. （请用一句话描述表格信息。） A: Why do we never cut up the long noodles on birthday? B: ____________________________. 80. 第二部分 写作（25分） 不同的人有不同的择友观。假如你是李华，请给你在美国的笔友Jeff写封信，介绍一下你和朋友林涛。以及你的择友观。 不同点 相同处 Lin Tao 更高，更开朗； 每天锻炼，擅长篮球； 喜欢骑行。 喜欢音乐； 喜欢阅读，常一起去图书馆； 成绩都优秀 ...... I 喜欢上网娱乐； 每周锻炼二至三次。 注意：1. 必须包括以上所有提示信息，为表达流畅可适当增加细节。 2. 100词左右。 3. 不得出现真实的人名校名等相关信息。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 七年级英语试题 （第5页，共 10页 ） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$null 2023-2024七年级第二学期英语阶段测试二试题答案20240604 I. 听力测试 （30分） 1—5 CBABB 6—10 CABCB 11—15 BBCAC 16—20 BBAAB II. 阅读理解 阅读下列短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（每小题2分,共40分） 21-25 DCCBC 26-30 ACBDA 31-35 BDACA 36-40 CDBCA Ⅲ. 阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项。 41—45 CDFEA IV. 补全对话 阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成。（5分） 46—50 BACBA V. 完形填空 阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。（15分） 51-55 BBABD 56-60 CBBAB 61-65 ABDCD VI. 选词填空 （每空1.5分, 共15分） 66. as 67. anyone 68. bought 69. more beautiful 70. to go 71. classmates 72. left 73. surprised 74. what 75. successfully Ⅶ. 书面表达（35分） 第一部分 情境运用（10分） 1）每个句子表达完全准确，无语言错误，2分； 2）有错误但关键信息正确，1分； 3）词不达意，关键信息错误，0分 76. Where did you go on vacation? 77. How often does he go to the dentist? 78. How long does it take（you）to go to school on food/walk to school? 79. Tom is as serious as Peter. 80. Because it’s/they’re a symbol of long life/good luck. B.写作 （25分） Dear Jeff, Yours, Li Hua 书面表达 评分标准： （1）本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。 （2）评分时，先根据学生写作的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 （3）评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 （4）拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。 （5）如果书写较差，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 2.各档次的赋分区间和要求 第一档（21—25分）很好地完成了试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点；应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇；用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚，没有或基本没有语言错误；书写工整；字数符合要求。完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档（16—20分） 较好地完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一、二个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容；应用的语言结构和词汇虽不太丰富，但能满足任务的要求；句子较通顺、表达较清楚；有少量语言错误；书写工整；字数基本符合要求。达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档（11—15分）基本完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉部分内容，但基本体现写作要点；应用的语言结构单一；句子不够通顺，行文不够连贯；语言错误较多；书写不够规范，字数不足。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档（6—10分）未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；应用的语言结构单一且不规范；句子不通顺，行文不连贯；语言错误多；书写潦草，字数不足50。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第五档（0—5分）未完成试题规定的任务。 未理解试题要求，明显遗漏大部分要点，写了一些无关内容；应用的语言结构单一且不规范；句子不通顺，行文不连贯；语言错误多；书写潦草，字数严重不足。信息未能传达给读者。 第1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$