内容正文:
秘密★启用前
2024年初中学业水平模拟训练
英 语 试 卷
(本试题卷共12页,满分120分,考试时间130分钟)
★祝考试顺利★
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上,并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上指定位置。
2.选择题的作答:每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3.非选择题的作答:用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4.考试结束后,请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
笔试部分(90分)
一、完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Anne of Green Gables has been a favorite book of teenagers all over the world since it came out in 1908. What it 1 us is simple: how to grow up to be a(n) 2 and useful person.
Anne is an 11-year-old 3 who arrives in the town of Avonlea, Canada.
She 4 Matthew and Marilla Cuthbert, a brother and sister, with their farm work.
At first, Mathew and Marilla hope to adopt (收养) a boy, not a 5 girl. Will she be of any use on the 6 ? How can such a thin girl do a good job? It seems 7 : Anne is very imaginative, talkative and easily distracted (注意力分散). That’s not what is 8 on a farm.
Yet, Anne proves (证明) that she can 9 be useful. She works really hard, but she doesn’t lose her great 10 of humor fun and this is why people around her love her very much. She doesn’t want to become a “good girl” 11 a“good girl” means knowing only how to work and live unhappily. We see Anne’s 12 for life everywhere. She knows how to enjoy herself, whether it’s by eating ice cream or 13 a new dress.
Many stories for children are written to tell them how to be 14 . Usually, it means being responsible and not having any fun. But that’s not the kind of story Canadian writer Lucy Maud Montgomery wanted to 15 . The book gives readers a helping hand rather than try to scare them into being “good” girls and boys.
1. A.calls B. trains C. teaches D. puts
2. A.happy B. easy C. strict D. awful
3. A. woman B. man C. boy D. girl
4. A. makes B. loses C. changes D. helps
5. A. good B. thin C. hard-working D. useful
6. A. farm B. street C. table D. beach
7. A. unhappy B. unlucky C. impossible D. impolite
8. A. bought B. needed C. sent D. shown
9. A. actually B. carefully C. monthly D. usually
10. A. pleasure B. prize C. sense D. progress
11. A. so B. but C. and D. if
12. A. trust B. love C. worry D. difficulty
13. A. taking off B. putting down C. trying on D. turning up
14. A. happy B. healthy C. wealthy D. good
15. A. tell B. think C. explain D. decide
二、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读三篇短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个与短文内容相符的最佳选项。
A
Popular Music
Welcome to Our Music Clubs !
Classical Music Club Classical music is a form of music which needs high musical skills. If you want to learn this kind of music, you have to go through proper training. It is believed to bring people peace and happiness.
Time: 8:00 a.m.—10:00 a.m. , Tuesday.
Place: Room 401.
Heavy Metal Music Club Heavy metal music came out after World War I. It is also known as “information music”. It will help you shake off the stress in your
life.
Time:5:30 p.m.—8:30 p.m.,from Monday to Friday.
Place:Room 308.
Hip-hop Music Club This kind of music always includes the use of instruments such as the guitar, violin, piano, bass, drums and so on. In this kind of music, the guitar is the main instruments. Mr. Wang is waiting for you.
Time: 3:00 p.m—5.00 p.m. ,Tuesday.
Place: Room 203
Jazz Music Club This kind of music has strong and complex melodies( 复杂的旋律). The main musical instruments are the cornet( 短号),trumpet and violin. Mr. Xu is a famous jazz music teacher. He gives lessons each Friday.
Time: 8:00a.m.—11:00a.m., Friday.
Place: Room 105.
16. music needs high musical skills.
A. Jazz music B. Heavy metal C. Hip-hop D. Classical
17. Which of the following is the main instrument in Hip-hop Music Club?
A. B. C. D.
18. When can you go to the Jazz Music Club?
A. At 8:00 a.m.on Tuesday. B. At 3:00 p.m.on Friday.
C. At 9:00 a.m.on Friday. D. At 5:00 p.m.on Tuesday.
19. It's clear that
A. The violin, cornet(短号) and trumpet are the main musical instruments in Jazz Music Club.
B. People call jazz music “information music”.
C. Mr. Xu is a famous Hip-hop Music teacher, he gives lessons in Room 105.
D. Heavy metal music appeared before World War I.
20. What type is the passage?
A. A story. B. An advertisement. C. A report. D. A letter.
B
As we all know, tomatoes are red, the sky is blue, and bananas are yellow. Well, not exactly-color does not really exist(存在). What exists is light. Light is real, but color is not. It is our brain that creates color.
We’re told to trust our eyes, but our eyes have little to do with vision(视觉). We see much more with our brains. You sometimes see different colors because your brain thinks they have a different meaning. The brain does this by looking at what’s around the object. Here is an example. If you see a person wearing a white shirt against different backgrounds, your brain might express the same white color differently. Suppose this person stands in front of a bright yellow background, your brain might think the white shirt is more like gray. If the person moves to a dark blue background, the same white shirt might appear closer to a brighter color.
Color is created according to our past experiences, and sometimes there are optical illusions(视错觉). That is because your brain includes the recent history of what you saw, at least for a brief time. But if you watch the thing for a longer time, your brain may forget the recent history and see the real color.
This raises the question: Do you see what I see? The answer, in short, is no.
Our past and present experiences are different. None of us even sees the world as it really is, but as a meaning that comes from our own experiences. It’s clear that seeing is not always believing.
21. What is real according to the writer in Paragraph 1?
A. Color. B. Meaning. C. Light D. Mind.
22. How does the writer support his idea in Paragraph 2?
A. By showing a problem. B. By making a comparison.
C. By giving an example. D. By making the text longer.
23. What does Paragraph 3 mainly tell us?
A. White is the lightest color.
B. Color comes from our past experiences.
C. Color is changing all the time.
D. Color is influenced by the background of an object.
24. Which word is close to the underlined word “brief”?
A. Short. B. Quick. C. Simple. D. Hard.
25. What can we learn from the passage?
A. You see what I see. B. Color is a recent history.
C. Color always stays the same. D. Seeing is not always believing.
C
What will you do when you feel down? Hug a tree? Recently, many Chinese young people have turned to trees to help with their stress. Although it sounds strange,in fact, there’s a science behind the act of tree-hugging.
A famous scientist named Edward Wilson from US ever said that humans are born to love being around other living things. Humans’ love for nature is “in our DNA”.This idea helps to explain why people prefer natural, green views to city views. It's also one of the reasons why people love cute pets.
Some studies have looked into why hugging trees can help with our health.A study in 2021 reported that the activity can increase oxytocin(催产素). Oxytocin has a big influence on people’s feelings. The higher the level of it is, the calmer and happier you may be. Hugging trees for only 21 seconds can lead to an increase in oxytocin.
Another thing called cortisol (皮质醇) is a marker of stress. The brain produces more cortisol when the person is anxious,angry, or very sad. Hugging trees helps cut cortisol production, which makes us feel better.
Although the activity is helpful to us, it’s important to keep in mind that we shouldn’t hurt nature while doing it.Trees often hold many things that are good for the environment. Many small creatures live on the tree, and they are so small that they hardly can be seen. You may want to be gentle when hugging trees- just like how you hug a friend!
26. What does the underlined word “it” refer to in Paragraph 3?
A. Activity. B. Feeling.
C. Oxytocin. D. Study.
27. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Hugging trees can lead to reducing oxytocin.
B. They might feel angry and sad when people have a lower oxytocin.
C. We feel much happier with a higher level of cortisol.
D. Humans hate being around other living things.
28. The last sentence is written to .
A. regard trees as your friends and take them home
B. find out the small creatures living on the tree
C. make friends with the creatures living on the tree
D. tell people not to hurt nature
29. What is the right structure of the text?
(
①
) (
②
⑤
③
④
①
) (
②
④
①
⑤
③
) (
②
③
④
①
⑤
)
(
②
) (
④
) (
③
)
(
⑤
)
A. B. C. D.
30. What is the best title for the passage?
A. A Special Way to Reduce Stress
B. A Right Way to Keep Fit
C. Environmental Protection
D. To Be Friends with Nature
第二节 (共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读短文,从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。
There are many deserts on the earth. And the following are some facts you may find interesting.
What are deserts like?
Deserts can be hot and dry places. Rain may not fall there for months or years. Some deserts are sandy and stony. Deserts can also be very windy places. The wind can change the shape of the deserts. 31
Temperatures in the desert can be quite different. During the daytime, the temperature may reach 40°C even in the shade (阴凉处). 32 In winter there may even be a frost in the early morning.
Living in the desert
The camel is sometimes called “the ship of the desert”. It stores food in its hump
(驼峰) and can go for days without water. It has large feet which help it not to fall into the sand. 33
An oasis is an area of the desert where water may be found. The water may be in pools or under the ground. People and animals visit an oasis for water and food. Plants grow at an oasis. 34
The Arabian Desert
The Arabian Desert lies between the Red Sea and the Arabian Gulf. In some parts of the desert, it is too hot for people to live. Oil was discovered under parts of the desert and in the Arabian Gulf. 35 Much of the money has been spent building fine cities with lovely parks and lakes, and people live a comfortable life there.
(
A.
It moves sand around from place to place.
B.
It has made some countries in the area very rich.
C.
Its long eyelashes
(
睫毛
)keep out the sand during sandstorms.
D. At night, deserts can become very cold.
E.
The desert is quite dangerous.
F.
Some farmers are able to grow crops
(庄稼)
here.
)
三、短文填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读短文,从方框中选出正确的词并用其适当形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
(
for
prepare
one
thousand
but
an
visitor
warm many
eat
)
China is a nation of etiquette (礼仪). Chinese people are the most hospitable(好客的)people in the world. If foreigners visit a Chinese family, they would be surprised at the 36 that they would receive as guests.
When you visit a Chinese family, the host usually makes tea 37 you. Then he will serve you snacks like biscuits or candies. Someone in the family will also chat with you, never letting you feel lonely.
At the same time, a big meal will be 38 for you by other family members. They always present 39 food than the guests can eat. On the table, the guests must be the 40 to eat. Perhaps one of the things that surprises a western guest most is that the Chinese host likes to pick food for 41 ,which won’t happen at western tables. The Chinese family go out of their way to make you feel at home. As you finish
42 ,the host usually says, “It seems that you didn’t eat much. Please have more.” You tell them you are full, 43 they still put more food in your bowl.
Being warm and hospitable has been 44 important part of Chinese culture and tradition. As Confucius(孔子) said 45 of years ago:
To meet friends from afar,
How happy we are!
四、读写结合(共两节,满分 25 分)
第一节 任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读短文,用英文填空或回答问题 (请注意每小题的词数要求)。
Cooperation(合作) and competition are both important. They’re necessary for a person to achieve success in life.
Learn to be cooperative with others. No one likes a selfish or greedy(贪婪的) person. However, everyone likes a cooperative and friendly person. Everything we do today, whether in doing business or making friends, depends on our ability to get along with one another. In our society, most tasks need cooperation in order that they can be finished successfully. So we must try to be cooperative. Each person is like a small part of a machine. If one part is out of order, the machine can’t be running well. Besides, transportation and communication systems are developing quickly, and people all over the world can keep in touch with each other more easily. It’s hard for a person that is away from the society to have a deep understanding of the world he lives in. Cooperation is becoming more and more important for a person to lead a good life.
Being competitive also has a place in life. If you want to get more success and be better than others, you must work harder and study more carefully. The desire to succeed and do better than others encourages us to work harder. If there were no competitions, a sports meeting would never be exciting or successful.We often compete to get a better environment. We cooperate with others to be more competitive.
46. The passage mainly talks about
.(10个词以内)
47. According to Paragraph 2, everything we do today like
depends on our ability to get along with one another.(10个词以内)
48. The development of transportation and communication systems help people
.(10个词以内)
49. How can you be more successful and better than others in Paragraph 3?
.(10个词以内)
50. What can you learn from the passage?
.(用自己的话回答,20个词以内)
第二节 书面表达(共1题,满分15分)
阅读使人充实,阅读使人明智。某英文报为了了解中学生的课外阅读情况,开展了以“Reading Outside Class”为题的征文活动。请结合下面图示信息,就阅读的好处、你的阅读现状、阅读计划写一篇短文,向该英文报投稿。
(
the advantages of reading
your reading situation
Reading Outside Class
your reading plans
……
)
要求:
(1)短文须包含图中所有信息,详略自行处理,可适当发挥;
(2)文中不得出现个人真实的姓名和校名;
(3)词数80词左右,标题和开头已给出,不计入总词数。
Reading Outside Class
As we all know, reading has a lot of advantages.
听力部分 (30分)
第一节 听短对话,选择图片。(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容,从所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中,选出与你所听内容相符的图片。听完每段对话后,你将有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听一遍。
A. B. C.
D. E. F.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
第二节 听短对话,选择答案。(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间作答和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。
6. What’s the pronunciation of the word?
A. /leI k/ B. /laI f/ C. /l∧k/
7. How will the weather be tomorrow?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cold.
8. How often does the boy’s sister listen to country music?
A. Every day. B. Seldom. C. At least four times a week.
9. Why does the girl choose Rose Cinema?
A. Because it is close to their home.
B. Because it is big.
C. Because it is new.
10. What did Tony do last Saturday morning?
A. He went shopping.
B. He cooked noodles for his mom.
C. He took photos.
第三节 听长对话,选择答案。(共7小题,每题1.5分,满分10.5分)
下面你将听到3段长对话,根据你所听到的内容,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完每段对话后,每小题你将有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段长对话,回答第11至12小题。
11. What did the girl have for supper yesterday?
A. Hamburgers and fish. B. Ice cream and watermelon.
C. Dumplings and watermelon.
12. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Doctor and patient. C. Father and daughter.
听第二段长对话,回答第13至14小题。
13. When is the graduation ceremony?
A. Next Monday. B. This Monday. C. This Friday.
14. Who would Jack like to thank most?
A. Mr. Wilson. B. Mrs. White. C. Mr. Green.
听第三段长对话,回答第15至17小题。
15. Which of the following is mentioned in the conversation?
A. Pandas’ number. B. Pandas’ look. C. Pandas’ weight.
16. How should we protect pandas in Mark’s opinion?
A. By planting more bamboo. B. By setting up more research centers.
C. By building more zoos.
17. What can we know from the conversation?
A. Pandas are Sue’s favorite animals.
B. There are three thousand pandas living in China.
C. Sue and Mark may be classmates.
第四节 听短文,填写表格。(共3小题,每题1.5分,满分4.5分)
下面你将听到一段短文,根据所听到的内容,填写表格中所缺单词,每空仅填一词。听短文前,你将有15秒钟的时间浏览表格。听完后,你将有30秒钟的时间作答。短文听两遍。
How to take care of your teeth
First
Brush your teeth every day, after getting up and before going to bed.
Second
Brush all of your teeth, not only the front ones, but also the teeth along the 18 and in the back.
Third
Spend at least 19 minutes each time you brush.
Fourth
Be sure your toothbrush is 20 .
Last
Care about what you eat and drink.
2024年中考模拟考试英语试题
参考答案及评分细则(202405)
一、完形填空(共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
1-5 CADDB 6-10 ACBAC 11-15 DBCDA
评分细则:1—15 小题选对得分,反之不得分。
二、阅读理解(共 20 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 40 分)
第一节
16-20 DBCAB 21-25 CCBAD 26-30 CBDBA
评分细则:16—30 小题选对得分,反之不得分。
第二节
31-35 ADCFB
评分细则:31—35 小题选对得分,反之不得分。
三、短文填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
36.warmth 37.for 38.prepared 39. more 40. first
41. visitors 42.eating 43. but 44.an 45. thousands
与本答案一致得分,反之不得分。
四、读写结合(共两节,满分 25 分)
第一节 任务型阅读(共 5 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
46. 原文创编:the importance of cooperation and competition
评分细则:至少列举其中两例或创编,且不超过字数即可得2分;
仅列举cooperation and competition得1分;
要点齐全,词数超过规定扣0.5分;
要点齐全,句子表达有误,酌情扣0.5分。
47. 原文: doing business or making friends
评分细则: 词数超过规定扣0.5分;
内容答对了,但句子表达有误,酌情扣0.5分。
48.原文: keep in touch with each other more easily
评分细则: 词数超过规定扣0.5分;
内容答对了,但句子表达有误酌情扣0.5分。
49. 原文创编:We can be competitive./ We must work harder and study more carefully.
50.①基于原文:We cooperate with others to be more competitive.
②基于原文:Learn to be cooperative with others.
③基于原文:Being competitive also has a place in life.
④原文创编:I think we should cooperate with others to be more competitive.
/We should learn to be cooperative with others./...
评分细则:本题因答案词数限制又要求用自己的话来回答,学生只有通过略改变原文内容或用自己的语言来表达。
符合题意,词数超过规定扣0.5分;
句子表达有误酌情扣0.5分;
抄原文未创编扣1分。
第二节 书面表达(共1题,满分15分)
Reading Outside Class
As we all know, reading has a lot of advantages. For one thing, it can help us know more about the world because books are full of knowledge, and it makes us wiser and richer in life. For another, it’s of great importance to do some reading because reading helps us have a better understanding of history.
I like reading newspapers and magazines, from which I get lots of fun and learn about what’s going on around the world. I also read storybooks and novels in my spare time, which makes me relaxed and happy. I seldom read e-books because it’s bad for eyes. On weekends, I usually spend a whole afternoon reading in the library. And I also read for about half an hour before going to bed every night.
Summer vacation is coming, and I plan to do more reading. I am going to read more classics and more English books to improve my language skills. I’m sure reading can make a difference to my life.
说明:
①题材:本文是一篇材料作文;
②时态:时态为“一般现在时”;
③提示:写作要点已给出,考生应注意短文须包含图中所有信息,可适当发挥。
[写作步骤]
第一步,表明写作意图。说明阅读的好处;
第二步,具体阐述写作内容。介绍自己的阅读情况和阅读计划;
第三步,书写结语。表达对阅读的肯定态度。
书面表达评分细则
一、评分重点
评分时,以“内容要点”“语言表达”“逻辑连贯”和“紧扣主题”四个方面为重点。“内容要点”主要涉及是否有效地涵盖了题目的要求;“语言表达”着重关注考生在词、句、段、篇等各个层面的表达情况;“逻辑连贯”考查考生在句间和段落间的衔接词运用和语意连贯程度(逻辑合理);“紧扣主题”则要求考生紧扣书面表达的主题,尤其注意不要跑题、不要写错体裁等。
二、评分方式
评分时,采用整体印象评分法。首先确定五类不同档次的分数,分别为“一档”“二档”“三档”“四档”“五档”,每档均有涉及“内容要点”“语言表达”“逻辑连贯”和“紧扣主题”等四个方面的细则。阅卷教师应依据这四个方面的总体印象给出相应的分数。
三、分档评分细则
一档(13 — 15分)
1. 覆盖所有内容要点,达到预期写作目的。
2. 结构完整,语句流畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,语法、词汇等方面错误较少,具备较强的语言运用能力,且书写规范,格式正确。
3. 能有效地使用常见连接词表示顺序和逻辑关系,连接信息,做到符合逻辑、意义连 贯。
4. 紧扣主题,无跑题、偏题等现象。
二档(10 — 12分)
1. 较好地完成了规定的写作任务,虽漏掉1、2处次重点写作信息,但基本上包含所有内容要点。
2. 结构较为完整,语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少,格式基本正确,书写较为规范。
3. 能应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
4. 虽有少量无关信息,但基本能围绕主题。
三档(7 — 9分)
1. 基本上完成了规定的写作任务。重要的写作要点、内容信息有缺失。
2. 结构欠完整,少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,但基本不影响理解。格式基本正确,书写基本规范。
3. 能应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容基本连贯。
4. 整体而言,基本能围绕主题,能看出写作意图。
四档(4 — 6分)
1. 未恰当完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点。
2. 结构不完整,多数语句欠完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,影响理解,格式不够正确,书写欠规范。
3 较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
4. 主题不大明确,信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
五档(0 — 3分)
1. 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。未能理解写作要求,明显遗漏主要内容,只写出个别要点,写了一些无关内容。
2. 结构不完整,多数语句不完整或意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多,影响对写作内容的理解,书写不规范。
3. 缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
4. 主题完全不明,信息未能传达给读者。
5. 无有效信息;照搬照抄试卷中原文;雷同试卷;答题区域空白等情况不得分。
英语试卷 听力部分
第一节 听短对话,选择图片。(共5小题,每题1.5分,满分7.5分)
1. D 2. B 3. E 4. F 5. A
第二节 听短对话,选择答案。(共5小题,每题1.5分,满分7.5分)
6. C 7. B 8. A 9. A 10.B
第三节 听长对话,选择答案。(共7小题,每题1.5分,满分10.5分)
11. B 12.B 13. A 14. C 15. A
16. A 17. C
第四节 听短文,填写表格。(共3小题,每题1.5分,满分4.5分)
18. sides 19. two / 2 20. soft
填词评分细则:听对写对得1.5,否则为0分
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