江苏盐城市阜宁县2026年秋学期七年级期中学情调研英语试题

2026年秋学期七年级期中学情调研英语试题 考试时间：100分钟，总分：120分 一、听力（共20小题，每小题1分，计20分） 第一部分 听对话回答问题 本部分共有10道小题，每小题你将听到一段对话，每段对话听两遍。 1. What’s Lily’s hobby? A. B. C. 2. What place does the boy like best at his school? A. B. C. 3. Where are they going on a field trip? A. B. C. 4. What did Peter’s Science teacher show in class? A. B. C. 5. What subject does Mr White teach? A. Maths. B. English. C. Chinese. 6. How many clubs does Tom want to join? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 7. What does Jeff think of skateboarding? A. Difficult. B. Fun. C. Easy. 8. Where is the reading room? A. On the first floor. B. On the second floor. C. On the third floor. 9. Why does the girl like jogging in the morning? A. Because the air is fresh. B. Because there are many people in the park. C. Because it can keep her strong and healthy. 10. Where are the two speakers talking? A. In the classroom. B. In the library. C. In the hall. 第二部分 听对话和短文回答问题 听一段对话，回答第11-12小题。 11. What does Mike think of Geography? A. It’s easy. B. It’s difficult. C. It’s interesting. 12. What’s Mike’s favourite sport? A. Basketball. B. Tennis. C. Volleyball. 听第一篇短文，回答第13-15小题。请根据短文内容，选择正确答案，完成信息记录表。 Tom’s Saturday In the morning He plays football with his 13 In the afternoon He does some 14 for his grandparents. In the evening *He goes out to have dinner with his family. *He watches TV for 15 . 13. A. friend B. cousin C. classmate 14. A. cleaning B. reading C. shopping 15. A. 15 minutes B. 20 minutes C. 30 minutes 听第二篇短文，回答第16-20小题。 16. How often does Amy draw? A. Every week. B. Every day. C. Every month. 17. Why does Amy like painting? A. Because she has a lot of free time. B. Because she wants to be a painter. C. Because it makes her feel happy. 18. Who is Amy’s role model? A. Xu Beihong. B. Qi Baishi. C. Zhang Daqian. 19. What are the horses like in the paintings? A. Strong. B. Powerful. C. Healthy. 20. What can help Amy design clothes? A. Colours. B. Flowers. C. Animals. 二、单词辨音（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分） 21. A. stop B. top C. rock D. home 22. A. music B. student C. sun D. cute 23. A. cat B. face C. man D. mad 24. A. why B. who C. which D. swim 25. A. bread B. leaf C. heavy D. head 三、单项选择（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分） 从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入句中空白处的最佳答案。 26. He ______ late for school. He always gets to school on time. A. usually is B. is usually C. never is D. is never 27. —Mike, ______ do you play football? —Once a week. It makes me fit. A. how long B. how far C. how old D. how often 28. —Is your school big? —No, ______. There are only 500 students in our school. A. we aren’t B. you aren’t C. it isn’t D. they aren’t 29. There are about three ______ students in our school. A. thousands B. thousands of C. thousand D. thousand of 30. —The school library is open now. What about reading there after class? —______. I need to give back some books too. A. Sounds great B. It’s too far C. That’s all right D. I don’t have time 四、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分） 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 Millie is in Class 1, Grade 7. This is her first term. School starts at 8:00 in the morning. Usually, the students do morning exercises first. Then their lessons begin at 8:15. Millie 31 English and Chinese very much. She thinks they are interesting. Millie has some new friends in her class. Simon 32 tall and energetic. He is good 33 sport and often plays football after school. Sandy is tall and slim. She has long hair and she is very polite. She likes music and she can 34 the piano well. Daniel wears glasses. He is smart and always ready to help others. He is a fan of science. 35 Friday afternoon, Millie goes to the Book Club. She borrows different kinds of books from the school 36 and reads a lot. Her friend Amy likes swimming. She goes swimming every week. It helps her keep 37 . The school has a big playground and a 38 library. Students can play all kinds of sports in the playground. The library is a perfect place for them to study. The teachers are kind and they really 39 about the students. Millie is glad to be at this school. She is shy, 40 she tries to talk with her new classmates. She is sure her school life will be wonderful. If you want to know more about Sunshine Middle School, you can visit it on an open day. 31. A. likes B. like C. liking D. liked 32. A. am B. is C. are D. be 33. A. in B. on C. at D. with 34. A. play B. plays C. playing D. played 35. A. In B. At C. On D. For 36. A. hall B. garden C. playground D. library 37. A. smart B. fit C. different D. interested 38. A. bright B. modern C. new D. clean 39. A. care B. worry C. think D. talk 40. A. and B. so C. or D. but 五、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，计40分） （一）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 A Good greetings help people make friends. Besides saying “How are you?” and “Nice to meet you”, there are other ways to say hello. Let’s see how people greet each other in different countries. Touch noses (碰鼻礼) My name is Fahad. I’m from Qatar. Men in my country greet very close friends by touching noses. Sometimes they touch noses and then shake hands (握手) (always with the right hand). Women can also greet each other like this, but usually only with other women and not in front of many people. Shake hands (握手) My name is Li Mei. I’m from China. We greet each other by shaking hands. This greeting comes from the West. Chinese people began to use it in the early 20th century (世纪). But in ancient times, we used fist and palm salutes (扎) to greet each other. Bow (鞠躬) How are you? My name is Anita. I’m from Nepal. We greet each other by putting our hands together like we are praying (祈祷). We hold them near the heart or higher. Holding your hands higher shows more respect (尊敬), but don’t go above the nose. Then we nod (点头) our heads a little and make a small bow (鞠躬). Cheek kiss (贴面礼) My name is Sophie. I’m from France. In my country, we give a cheek kiss (贴面礼) to greet someone. How many kisses should you give? One kiss on each cheek is normal (通常的). Remember: you don’t really kiss the cheek. You kiss the air next to it. 41. How do men greet their close friends in Qatar (卡塔尔)? A. By bowing. B. By touching noses. C. By shaking left hands. D. By giving cheek kisses. 42. When did Chinese people begin to use handshakes? A. In ancient times. B. In the 21st century. C. Hundreds of years ago. D. In the early 20th century. 43. According to the passage, what do French people really do in the cheek kiss? A. They touch noses first. B. They kiss people’s cheeks. C. They put hands together and bow. D. They kiss the air beside the cheek. B ①Learning by doing is a useful way for students to learn new things. It tells us that real knowledge often comes from practice, not just books. It helps us understand skills better and grow fast. ②Many students learn well in this way. Tom wanted to learn to make model planes. At first, he read many books and watched videos. But his first plane could not fly well. It fell to the ground quickly. Tom did not give up. He tried again and again. He changed some parts of his plane. Sometimes he asked his father for advice. After several tries, his model plane could fly high in the sky. ③“Books tell me how to do it, but practice teaches me what goes wrong,” Tom says. Learning by doing helps us solve real-life problems. We may make mistakes, but mistakes are also good lessons. If we just watch and read, we cannot get real experience. We need to try, fail and improve. ④Learning by doing is of great value. Books give us knowledge, but practice helps us truly master it. When we keep trying in real life, we can learn more and become better. 44. What does “learning by doing” mean? A. Learning from real practice. B. Reading more thick books. C. Listening to teachers all day. D. Watching different videos only. 45. What helped Tom finally make a good model plane? A. Buying a new plane. B. Giving up very soon. C. Trying many times. D. Reading one short story. 46. What is the structure (结构) of the passage? A. B. C. D. C Thousands of years ago, a magic rock gave birth to a stone monkey. Later, he became the Monkey King. He lived in the Water Curtain Cave on the Mountain of Flowers and Fruit. He went to see the Dragon King in the Eastern Ocean and got his magic iron rod. The Jade Emperor sent the Spirit of the Planet Venus to ask him to work in Heaven. But the Monkey King was not happy with his job, so he returned to his mountain. He used the title “the Great Sage, Equal to Heaven”. He ate all nice peaches in the heavenly peach garden. Many heavenly soldiers, like Nezha, tried to catch him, but they lost the fight. Lao Tzu put the monkey in a hot oven for 49 days. However, the monkey was still alive and ran out. In the end, Buddha caught him. The Monkey King was kept under a big mountain. Only a Tang-Dynasty holy monk could save him 500 years later. 47. Where did the Monkey King get his magic iron rod? A. From Nezha. B. From a magic rock. C. From Lao Tzu’s oven. D. From the Dragon King. 48. Who invited the Monkey King to Heaven for the first time? A. Buddha. B. Erlang. C. The holy monk. D. The Spirit of the Planet Venus. 49. What can we learn from the passage? A. The Monkey King was very strong. B. The peaches were not delicious at all. C. The hot oven killed the Monkey King. D. Nezha won the fight against the monkey. 50. What is the main idea of the whole passage? A. Stories of all heavenly officers. B. Why people like the peach garden. C. How the Dragon King fought the monkey. D. The story of the Monkey King’s havoc in Heaven. （二）阅读下面短文，从所给选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺，结构完整，其中有一项是多余选项。 My name is Li Ming. I started junior high school this September. 51 I have seven classes each day, four in the morning and three in the afternoon. 52 The teacher sometimes teaches us by playing games. It’s a great way to learn. Morning break starts at 9:40 a.m., and I run to the sports ground. I often do some morning exercise or play a ball game with my friends. The break ends at 10:10 a.m. How short it is! We have a lunch break from 12:00 p.m. to 2:00 p.m. 53 There are different foods I can choose from. After that, I usually go to the book corner in the classroom. I can always find something interesting to read Classes end at 4:25 p.m., and many students take part in after-school activities. 54 We plan to take part inthe school ping-pong game next month. We look forward to it and will practise very hard. 55 I have a good time at school, and I enjoy every minute of it. A. I really enjoy living there! B. We go to the dining hall for lunch. C. It’s exciting to be a junior high student. D. I have a lot to say about my time there! E. Geography is a new subject in junior high. F. I go to the Ping-pong Club with my friend Chen Ming. （三）阅读并回答问题。（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分） A hobby is something we love to do in our free time. It is not for money, but for fun. Different people have different hobbies. Hobbies help us relax after long hours of schoolwork and bring us joy. Tom likes collecting stamps. He started this hobby at the age of ten. He has stamps from many countries. Every stamp tells him a story about different places and people. Linda enjoys painting. She usually draws pictures in her garden on weekends. When she paints, she can forget all her worries. She also learns to find beauty in small things around her. My hobby is reading. I read storybooks every evening. Books open a new world to me. They teach me new words and ideas. Hobbies are great friends. They make our life colourful. We can learn new skills and make new friends with the same hobby. A good hobby can help us grow and stay happy. 根据短文内容回答下列问题（答案不超过6个词）。 56. Why do people have hobbies? 57. What is Tom’s hobby? 58. How may Linda feel when she is painting? 59. When does the writer read storybooks? 60. What can a good hobby bring you? 六、词汇（共20小题，计25分） （一）根据短文内容，从方框中选择适当的单词或短语填空，使短文内容完整正确。(共10小题，每小题1.5分，计15分) in the future good problem real like I’m from China. This term, I have subjects, 61 Chinese, history, maths, English, PE, and IT. I like all subjects, but my favourite is maths. I like it because I’m 62 with numbers. We learn how to work out maths 63 in class. It feels like magic(魔法) and is 64 fun. Maths is very useful in our life, and I want to be a scientist 65 . all kinds of make fun busy have I’m a student in Canada. I’m very 66 this year. I study maths, music, French, history, English, IT, science, and 67 gym. My favourite subject is music because the class is 68 and we learn a lot of new songs. Music always 69 me happy. My music teacher is excellent. He lets us play 70 interesting instruments. I want to be a singer in the future. （二）根据短文内容及首字母提示，填写所缺单词。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分) Hi, Thomas, Thanks for your email. M 71 new school is great! It’s very b 72 . There are many buildings. There’s a large sports field next to the teachers’ building. All the students go there and do e 73 together in the morning. Every M 74 we raise the flag in Chinese schools. It’s a s 75 way to start the week. The classroom building is behind the sports field. We s 76 most of the time in our classroom. It’s big and clean. Every week, we c 77 seats. This week I sit next to Han Lin, my best f 78 . The dining hall is across f 79 the sports field. It’s my favourite place because there are many kinds of food. They m 80 delicious jiaozi. How about your school? Yours, Simon 七、书面表达（共1题，计15分） 81. 假设你是阳光中学（Sunshine Middle School）七年级1班的学生Amy，请根据以下提示，写一篇英文短文介绍你自己。 内容提示： 1. 个人情况（姓名、年龄、班级）。 2. 外貌性格（高/矮/头发等，友好、有礼貌等）。 3. 兴趣爱好（喜欢什么）。 4. 学校生活（最喜欢的科目/活动等）。 注意事项： 1. 文中不能出现真实姓名、校名等信息； 2. 文章必须包含所有要点，可适当发挥，使短文连贯、通顺； 3. 词数：80词左右（文章开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。 My name is Amy.________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________ I am happy at my new school. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 七年级英语参考答案 一、听力（20分） 1-5 CACCB 6-10 BAAAB 11-15 CABAC 16-20 ACABA 二、单词辨音（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分） 21-25 DCBBB 三、单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分） 26-30 DDCBA 四、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分） 31-35 ABCAC 36-40 DBBAD 五、阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，计30分） （一）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 41-43 BDD 44-46 ACB 47-50 DDAD （二）阅读下面短文，从所给选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺，结构完整，其中有一项是多余选项。 51-55 DEBFC （三）阅读并回答问题。（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分） 56. For fun. / To relax and bring us joy. / To bring us joy. 57. Collecting stamps. 58. She feels relaxed. / She feels happy. 59. Every evening. 60. It brings me happiness./Happiness./Growth and happiness. / ...（答案不唯一，合理即可） 六、词汇（共20小题，计25分） （一）根据短文内容，从方框中选择适当的单词或短语填空，使短文内容完整正确。（共10小题，每小题1.5分，计15分） 61. like 62. good 63. problems 64. really 65. in the future 66. busy 67. have 68. fun 69. makes 70. all kinds of （二）根据短文内容及首字母提示，填写所缺单词。（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分） 71 My 72. beautiful 73. exercises 74. Monday 75. special 76. spend 77. change 78. friend 79. from 80. make 七、书面表达（共1题，计15分） My name is Amy. I am 12 years old and I am in Class 1, Grade 7 at Sunshine Middle School. I am tall and slim with short hair. I am friendly and always ready to help others. I love reading. I read all kinds of books every week. They help me learn a lot. School starts at 8:00 in the morning. My favourite subject is English. After school, I go to the Book Club and the Volleyball Club. They are great fun! I am happy at my new school. 书面表达评分标准 说明：先根据文章整体内容和语言表达确定档次，然后在该档次内评出分数。 第一档（15~12分） 完全符合题目要求，表达清楚，内容丰富。使用多种语法结构和丰富的词汇，语言通顺，语意连贯，具有逻辑性。允许有个别语言错误。 第二档（11~8分） 符合题目要求，表达基本清楚，内容完整。语法结构和词汇基本满足文章需要，语言基本通顺，语意基本连贯。有少量语言错误，但不影响整体理解。 第三档（7~4分） 部分内容符合题目要求，表达不清楚，内容不完整。语法结构和词汇错误较多，语言不通顺，影响整体理解。 第四档（3~1分） 与题目有关的内容不多，不能表达自己的思想。只是简单拼凑提示词语，所写内容难以理解。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $