黑龙江省齐齐哈尔市齐齐哈尔五校联谊2026-2027学年高二上学期11月期中英语试题

2026～2027学年度上学期“五校联谊”高二期中考试 英 语 (试卷满分：150分，考试时间：120分钟） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号；回答非选择题时，用0.5mm的黑色字迹签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，请将答题卡上交。 4．本卷主要命题范围：外研版必修第三册Unit 5~选择性必修第一册Unit 3。 第一部分 听力 （共两节，满分30分） 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. Where does the man probably want to go? A. Liverpool. B. London. C. Birmingham. 2. What do the speakers decide to do next? A. Take a bus. B. Stay under the tree. C. Take cover from rain. 3. How long does the woman have to work every day? A. Six hours. B. Eight hours. C. Seven hours. 4. How does the man feel about the ski classes? A. Nervous. B. Disappointed. C. Interested. 5. What is the unique feature of the First Bathing Beach in Qingdao? A. The black pine. B. The fresh air. C. A crowd of seagulls. 第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听第6段录音，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the woman’s biggest trouble? A. She coughs a lot. B. She has a fever. C. She sleeps poorly. 7. What does the man suggest the woman do? A. Rest in bed for two days. B. Have some pills (药丸). C. Do a blood examination. 听第7段录音，回答第8至10题。 8. When does the conversation take place? A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening. 9. What did the boy forget to do? A. Clean his sports shoes. B. Buy daily groceries. C. Collect the clothes. 10. Where is probably the speakers’ mother now? A. At her workplace. B. In her room. C. In the yard. 听第8段录音，回答第11至13题。 11. What are the speakers going to attend? A. A birthday party. B. A sports meeting. C. A housewarming party. 12. Which shirt may the man dislike? A. The brown one. B. The one with spots. C. The blue one. 13. Who is Tom? A. The speakers’ brother. B. The speakers’ son. C. The speakers’ teammate. 听第9段录音，回答第14至16题。 14. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Husband and wife. B. Neighbours. C. Mother and son. 15. Why does the woman get annoyed with the man? A. He messed up her car. B. He threw rubbish among trees. C. He performed terribly in class today. 16. What does the woman think of the man’s explanation? A. Reasonable. B. Amusing. C. Confusing. 听第10段录音，回答第17至20题。 17. How did the speaker learn about Alain Ducasse? A. From her mother. B. From a restaurant. C. From an article. 18. How many Michelin Stars has Alain Ducasse earned? A. 56. B. 21. C. 36. 19. What did Alain Ducasse do in 2015? A. He supplied food to astronauts. B. He travelled into outer space. C. He settled in America. 20. Why does the speaker tell the story of Alain Ducasse? A. To back up her viewpoint. B. To offer relevant background. C. To talk about a fresh subject. 第二部分 阅读 （共两节，满分50分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Let a trained driver worry about the traffic while you enjoy New York City’s best sights. We have selected the top bus tours, perfect for your adventure in the City That Never Sleeps. USA Guided Tours — Discover NY Tour Price: Adults from 89 Duration: 6 hours On this full-day bus tour, you’ll drive through some of the city’s most famous and most-visited areas. You’ll enjoy the expert commentary and a history lesson from your tour guide. A 15-minute walk through each of the main stops is included, as is a boat cruise (游览) that takes you to see the famous NYC skyline. Tours depart at 9 and 10 a. m. daily. It also offers a night tour. A Slice of Brooklyn Bus Tours — The Original Brooklyn Pizza Tour Price: Adults from 95 Duration: 4.5 hours Brooklyn has so much to see and do — and eat! This tour will take you throughout Brooklyn to try delicious pizza from places like Grimaldi’s and L.&B Spumoni Gardens. You’ll also see filming locations for movies like Saturday Night Fever and Goodfellas. Tours are available Friday through Monday and Wednesday at 11 a. m. On Location Tours — Hotspots Tour Price: From $66 Duration: 3.5 hours Film fans can visit over 40 movie spots during this bus tour. View ironic (出人意料的) filming locations, walk past Carrie Bradshaw’s brownstone apartment, try cupcakes from Magnolia Bakery, drink a cosmopolitan and shop in Greenwich Village. Participants must be 18 or older. Tours depart Thursday to Sunday at 3:15 p. m. To read more, click here. 21. What is special about USA Guided Tours? A. It teaches visitors a history lesson from experts. B. It drives visitors through the whole New York City. C. It provides a boat tour. D. It only offers services during the daytime. 22. What can visitors do in both A Slice of Brooklyn Bus Tours and On Location Tours? A. View filming locations. B. Watch ironic films. C. Cook delicious food. D. Go shopping. 23. Where is the text probably taken from? A. A pre-travel checklist. B. A travel agency website. C. A tourist brochure. D. An entertainment magazine. B When I was 14, my parents made me volunteer at Greenfield Animal Shelter as punishment for skipping maths class. “You need to learn responsibility,” Mum said, handing me a brightly coloured uniform that was too big. The shelter smelled like wet fur and disinfectant (消毒剂); and my job was cleaning cages — washing food from bowls and sticky floors. On my third Saturday, I noticed a golden retriever (寻回犬) named Max. His cage card said his owner had passed away, and he’d been at the shelter for three months. Unlike other dogs, Max covered in the corner, shaking at every noise. When I entered his doghouse, he flattened himself into a shaking pancake. “He’s sweet but scared of everything,” Ms. Torres, a shelter worker, told me. She showed me old injuries on his legs from when he’d tried to bite through the bars. I decided to spend my breaks with Max. At first, I just sat near his food bowl, reading aloud from a book. His breathing slowed to whispers. Soon, he let me touch his ears. When I dropped my keys, he stepped back but stayed. I brought him a tennis ball, and we played fetch outside. His tail wagged a little more each time. One rainy day, he licked (舔) my hand, and I felt like I was going to cry. Then, one morning, a family stopped at Max’s doghouse. The youngest girl called him a “golden cloud”. Max didn’t hide. He walked forward, tail wagging, and licked her fingers. As they filled out the adoption papers, I hid in the storage closet, hugging my knees. I heard their laughter, the jingle of Max’s new collar, and the sound of the door shutting. When I came out, Ms. Torres smiled. “You did good, kid,” she said. Max taught me that courage isn’t about being fearless — it’s about taking small steps towards something bigger. Now, whenever I’m scared to try something new, I remember his wagging tail and the day he trusted the world again. 24. Why did the author’s parents make her volunteer at the animal shelter? A. To expose her to more job opportunities. B. To meet a requirement for her school course. C. To correct her misbehaviour. D. To encourage her to adopt a pet. 25. How did the author feel towards Max? A. Caring and concerned. B. Fearful and shy. C. Distant but thoughtful. D. Impatient but sincere. 26. What was Max’s reaction when the little girl approached him? A. He became anxious and barked loudly. B. He grew braver and showed love. C. He remained in the corner, avoiding any interaction. D. He tried to escape by biting through the bars. 27. What is the best title for the text? A. A Day at the Animal Shelter B. A Once Fearful Dog C. The Importance of Responsibility D. Small Steps to Courage C A primary school in north Devon with a brand-new mud play area hit the headlines last week. “We felt that our children needed something better at playtime,” said the head teacher, Amy Frost, “The playground before was pristine (整洁的) but there was nothing for them to do. As schools, we have been fearful of allowing our children to take risks. Children don’t learn what risk is and how to manage risk.” To change this, the school designed different zones for climbing and muddy play. Frost said there had been a few comments from people who found it “difficult to adjust”, but parents were greatly supportive. “My son is caked in mud but he’s having fun!” one parent commented. Another said, “We’d rather do extra laundry and see them thrive (茁壮成长).” Children today have less access to unstructured outdoor play than past generations did. Helen Dodd, a professor of child psychology at the University of Exeter, said, “The decline in children getting muddy is part of our risk aversion (风险规避). We want to keep children safe, so we stop children from doing the things that children naturally do. If we want to give children space to connect with nature, they need to do that in an unrestricted way, and a consequence is that they might get muddy.” There’s also research about the benefits of being in contact with mud, just in terms of the biology of what’s in the mud, and how it affects our immune (免疫的) system, also, in terms of sensory things. Lots of children now have sensory difficulties. They don’t like the feel of different things, which might come from being kept overly clean. Children had never before seen so much and experienced so little, said Follett. “All of their experiences are secondary, through screens shut in bedrooms. What they’re lacking is real primary experience, touching, feeling, practising. You know that feeling of squeezing a handful of mud, and it leaking out through your fingers?” 28. What is the purpose of building a mud play area in the primary school? A. To teach children to learn about risks. B. To upgrade school facilities. C. To hit the headlines of the newspaper. D. To satisfy the parents’ needs. 29. What prevents children’s outdoor play? A. Behaviour code. B. Generation gap. C. Too much concern. D. School regulation. 30. What do we know about mud play? A. It can cause severe consequences. B. It has become more popular. C. It leads to sensory difficulties. D. It may strengthen immune system. 31. What’s the text mainly about? A. Why kids should be allowed to play in mud. B. How connection with nature could be built. C. Why children experience so less. D. How parents become so positive. D It is a strange coincidence that as humans attempt to greatly reduce their carbon emissions (排放), they are also rushing to develop a technology that could, in theory, consume an unlimited amount of energy. Doing things against facts is a dangerous game, but you can picture a world in which, having chosen to start dealing with climate change properly in the 1990s, we would be just wrapping up the gentle path to net-zero emissions in time for a rapid AI increase fuelled by green power. Instead, we find ourselves at risk of running a 21st-century technology on a 20th-century energy supply. If you live in the US, every time you use an AI model, around 20 per cent of the electricity required will be produced by burning coal. The explosive growth of AI makes this an even more pressing concern. According to one analysis, if Google chose to shift to an entirely AI-powered search business, its electricity consumption could match that of some countries. Such estimates may be magnified, but evidence of rising power consumption from AI is all around. Microsoft is placing bets on nuclear plants to power its data centres, while the English government has promised to boost its national computing capacity by 50 per cent by 2025, which would help it keep pace with rapid AI developments in the world. Thankfully, we may soon reach a turning point. As is reported, this year the global power department came close to reaching peak greenhouse gas emissions, as the switch from fossil (化石) fuels to clean and renewable sources is well underway. The question now is whether we can quicken the pace of decarbonisation (脱碳) to match the coming growth in energy consumption as AI becomes increasingly embedded (把……嵌入) in our society. Silicon Valley’s intelligent machines may grab the headlines and the imagination, but the people really inventing the future are working on the energy sector. 32. What can we learn from Paragraph 2? A. The rapid AI increase brings many benefits. B. Climate change has to be dealt with properly. C. The reality is far from what we expected. D. Carbon emissions have been reduced a lot. 33. Why is electricity consumption a major concern? A. Many countries haven’t switched to clean energy. B. Extensive use of AI will consume more energy. C. 20% of the power is produced by burning coal in the US. D. There is no limit on tech-giants’ electricity consumption. 34. What does the underlined word “magnified” in Paragraph 4 mean? A. Common. B. Undervalued. C. Reasonable. D. Overstated. 35. What would be our primary task before we reach a turning point? A. Achieving net-zero emissions as soon as possible. B. Creating an unlimited energy-consuming technology. C. Shifting to a fully AI-powered search business. D. Balancing energy-hungry AI with decarbonisation. 第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Being attracted into “activities” that require only the movement of a hand, such as video games, social media or web surfing, more and more teenagers are passing on the chance to play sports — and that’s not good! If you’re a pre-teen or teen and you haven’t played a sport yet, now’s the perfect time to give it a try! 36 You’ll become healthier. Sports require you to move your body. 37 Physical activity helps control weight, fight against diseases and improves mood. 38 Many studies show that playing sports can improve your brainpower. Children who are more active show greater attention, have faster cognitive processing (认知处理) speed, and perform better on tests than children who are less active. You’ll learn teamwork and sportsmanship. In sports, people learn to rely on each other and encourage one another to realize a common goal. Though individual sports are great, team sports teach you a life lesson: the success of a team depends on how well the players work together. 39 Cheating and fighting do not belong in sports. 40 Whether or not you’re a natural-born athlete, there’s a sport that’s just right for you! Whether it’s basketball, swimming, or skateboard, choose a sport that you truly love. A. You’ll get smarter. B. Pick a sport today! C. Sports teach you to be honest. D. You will receive higher grades in exams. E. Here are good reasons to join a sport. F. It is well known that exercise is good for your health. G. Sports also teach you to respect the players on other teams. 第三部分 语言运用 （共两节，满分30分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Last week, Tom and his mother went to a restaurant to celebrate his fifth birthday. When he and his mother were talking there, a waitress 41 curiously from a distance. Eventually, the waitress realized that the mum was talking in sign language to her little boy who also had 42 aids in his ears. When the waitress 43 that it was Tom’s birthday, she decided to give the boy a special gift. She went to the Internet and 44 how to say “happy birthday” in sign language. She quickly got all the rules down. Then, she went up to Tom’s table and 45 to him, “Happy birthday to you!” Tom and his mother were really 46 . Later, Tom’s mum said this was the first time he had 47 in sign language with people other than her and his teacher. It was a simple 48 but it was an important gift for Tom. She added that the 49 from the waitress made her very moved. “Thanks to the 50 waitress, his fifth birthday is one that we will 51 for a lifetime,” the mum said. “My boy was always worried that he would appear very 52 when he was talking in sign language. Today, he saw that someone 53 tried to talk to him in his 54 language. It’s very 55 for him.” 41. A. concluded B. watched C. commented D. sang 42. A. hearing B. speaking C. walking D. reading 43. A. expected B. imagined C. admitted D. learned 44. A. reflected on B. went with C. adjusted to D. looked up 45. A. shouted B. whispered C. signed D. pretended 46. A. confused B. impressed C. frightened D. hurt 47. A. talked B. settled C. studied D. taught 48. A. truth B. phrase C. signal D. promise 49. A. benefit B. explanation C. gift D. apology 50. A. kind B. clever C. silly D. impatient 51. A. enjoy B. remember C. work D. celebrate 52. A. cool B. excited C. noisy D. funny 53. A. shyly B. suddenly C. angrily D. actually 54. A. secret B. official C. special D. formal 55. A. important B. useless C. difficult D. free 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 A green circular train running through Wuhan has become a huge online hit since mid-March. Priced 56 merely 6 yuan, this special route covers the city’s most iconic landmarks, 57 (offer) passengers a wonderful tour of Wuhan’s scenery and rich history. Popular beyond expectation, the train has been expanded from 7 to 16 carriages (车厢), and 58 (carry) over 260,000 passengers so far. Split by the Yangtze River and the Hanjiang River, Wuhan consists of three distinctive 59 (district). Wuchang is the cultural and 60 (education) centre, Hankou serves as a traditional commercial heart, and Hanyang is the birthplace of China’s modern industry. As it crosses the Wuhan Yangtze River Bridge, China’s first road-and-rail Yangtze crossing 61 (build) in 1957, the train offers passengers breathtaking river views. The route also passes by 62 age-old Yellow Crane Tower, honoured by ancient poets, and historic sites associated with the 1911 Revolution in Hanyang and Wuchang. While showcasing the city’s 63 (extreme) splendid past, the train rolls past Optics Valley, Wuhan’s prosperous high-tech zone. Combining ancient charm, industrial heritage and modern 64 (vital), this classic train is regarded as a “time tunnel”, 65 connects the city’s past, present and future and brings unique nostalgic (怀旧的) feelings to every passenger. 第四部分 写作 （共两节，满分40分） 第一节 （满分15分） 假定你是李华，国庆期间你看了一场电视脱口秀表演。请你给新西兰朋友John写一封邮件分享这次经历，内容包括： 1．你观看的脱口秀； 2．你的收获。 参考词汇：脱口秀 stand-up comedy 注意： 1．写作词数应为80个左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear John, Yours, Li Hua 第二节 （满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 On Friday morning, hundreds of students from Bluffdale Elementary School crowded into their school’s gymnasium to make a video conference call. On the other end of the call were students in Houston. After Moore Elementary was flooded by Hurricane Harvey, the Texas students lost classroom supplies, computers and more than 20,000 books from their school library. Upon hearing about the troubles faced by their fellow students in Texas, children at Bluffdale Elementary emptied their piggy banks, took on extra chores and sold baked goods to raise money. During the Friday morning call, the students of Martianne White’s fourth-grade class presented a check for $ 2,763.57 to Moore’s students. White said the idea for the fundraiser came from a pair of her 9-year-old fourth-graders: Alexa Mazuran and Adison Penkey. “If that happened to me I would be heartbroken because I enjoy being here with all my friends and learning from my teacher,” Alexa said. Adison said she was “very sad” when she learned about the students who had to leave their homes to avoid the flooding. She said she was upset at the thought of library books floating away in the floodwaters. The girls went to work, first with their teacher, then with the rest of their class making posters. Eventually their efforts went schoolwide, and the two students took the lead, putting up handmade posters, collecting money from classes and making fundraising announcements every morning. “I was really happy to see all of their faces, super excited, when we told them we raised the money,” Adison said. During the call, the students at Bluffdale had the chance to talk to Moore Elementary Principal Patricia Myers and a class of fifth-graders. The Bluffdale students asked a number of questions about the evacuation (疏散) and how they were affected by the hurricane. Students on the other side of the video replied to them and expressed their gratitude, jumping excitedly with watery eyes. 注意： 1．续写词数应为150个左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Hearing their cheers, Alexa felt joyful and realized something besides money. One morning weeks later, Adison was reading a new letter from Moore Elementary. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026～2027 学年度上学期“五校联谊”高二期中考试·英语 参考答案、提示及评分细则 1～5 BACCA 6～10 CBBCA 11～15 CABCB 16～20 ACBAA 【文章大意】本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了非常适合游客在不夜城冒险的顶级巴士之旅的相关信息。 21. C 细节理解题。由 USA Guided Tours—Discover NY Tour 中“A 15-minute walk through each of the main stops is included, as is a boat cruise that takes you to see the famous NYC skyline.”可知，USA Guided Tours 的特别之处在于它提供乘船游览. 22. A 细节理解题。由 A Slice of Brooklyn Bus Tours—The Original Brooklyn Pizza Tour 中“You’ll also see filming locations for movies like Saturday Night Fever and Goodfellas.”和 On Location Tours—Hotspots Tour 中“Film fans can visit over 40 movie spots during this bus tour. View iconic filming locations”可知，游客可在 A Slice of Brooklyn Bus Tours 和 On Location Tours 看拍摄地点. 23. B 推理判断题。由全文介绍了多个旅游项目(包含详细信息和价格)和最后一段中“To read more, click here.”可知，文章会出现在旅游公司网站。 【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了作者14岁时因逃课被父母送到格林菲尔德动物收容所做志愿者作为惩罚。在那里，她遇到了一只因主人去世而被遗弃、极度恐惧的金毛犬Max。通过耐心陪伴，她帮助 Max 逐渐恢复信任，最终被一个家庭收养。这个过程不仅改变了Max，也让作者领悟到勇气的真正含义。 24. C 细节理解题。根据文章第一段第一句“When I was 14, my parents made me volunteer at Greenfield Animal Shelter as punishment for skipping maths class.”可知，作者父母让她做志愿者是为了纠正她的错误行为。 25. A 推理判断题。根据第四段“I decided to spend my breaks with Max. At first, I just sat near his food bowl, reading aloud from a book.”以及“One rainy day, he licked my hand, and I felt like I was going to cry.”可知，作者决定把休息时间都用来陪Max，在雨天的时候，Max舔作者的手，作者感觉都要哭了，由此推知，作者对 Max充满关爱与关切。 26. B 细节理解题。根据第五段中描述“Then, one morning, a family stopped at Max’s doghouse. The youngest girl called him a ‘golden cloud’. Max didn’t hide. He walked forward, tail wagging, and licked her fingers.”可知，Max 面对小女孩时表现得勇敢且充满爱意。 27. D 标题归纳题。文章开头讲述作者因逃避责任被惩罚做志愿者，结尾点明主题：Max教会作者，勇气不是无所畏惧，而是朝着更大的目标迈出一小步。所以全文围绕Max从恐惧到重新信任世界的过程，以及作者从中获得的成长展开。因此，“Small Steps to Courage(迈向勇气的一小步)”最能概括文章的核心思想，适合用作文章标题。 【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了为什么应该允许孩子们在泥巴中玩耍，以及泥巴游戏对孩子们的益处。 28. A 细节理解题。根据第二段中“‘... As schools, we have been fearful of allowing our children to take risks. Children don’t learn what risk is and how to manage risk.’ To change this, the school designed different zones for climbing and muddy play.”可知，学校要建一个泥地游戏区是为了教孩子们了解风险。 29. C 细节理解题.根据第四段中“Helen Dodd, a professor of child psychology at the University of Exeter, said, ‘The decline in children getting muddy is part of our risk aversion. We want to keep children safe, so we stop children from doing the things that children naturally do.’”可知，家长们的过分担心阻碍了孩子们在户外玩耍. 30. D 细节理解题。根据倒数第二段中 “There’s also research about the benefits of being in contact with mud, just in terms of the biology of what’s in the mud, and how it affects our immune system, also, in terms of sensory things.”可知，泥浆游戏也许可以增强免疫系统。 31. A 主旨大意题。根据文章大意以及最后一段可知，这篇文章主要讲了为什么应该允许孩子在泥里玩耍。 【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要讨论了人类在努力减少碳排放的同时，也在急于发展一种理论上可能消耗无限能量的技术——人工智能，并探讨了由此带来的能源消耗与脱碳之间的平衡问题。 32. C 推理判断题。根据第二段可知，本段通过对比理想中的情况和现实情况，说明了现实与预期之间存在很大的差距。 33. B 细节理解题。根据第三段“If you live in the US, every time you use an AI model, around 20 per cent of the electricity required will be produced by burning coal. The explosive growth of AI makes this an even more pressing concern.”可知，由于人工智能的广泛使用，将消耗更多的能源，这使得电力消耗成为一个主要问题。 34. D 词义猜测题。画线词所在句“Such estimates may be magnified, but evidence of rising power consumption from AI is all around.”中“Such estimates”指的是第二段中提到的“如果谷歌选择转向完全由人工智能驱动的搜索业务，其用电量可能与一些国家相当”这一惊人估计。结合句中“but”可知，前后文有转折关系，后文说“人工智能耗电量增加的证据随处可见”，由此推知，上文是讲“这样的估计可能有所夸大”，与下文构成转折关系。画线词magnified意思是“夸大的”，与overstated意思相近。 35. D 细节理解题。根据最后一段“The question now is whether we can quicken the pace of decarbonisation to match the coming growth in energy consumption as AI becomes increasingly embedded in our society.”可知，在我们达到转折点之前，我们的主要任务是平衡高能耗人工智能与脱碳步伐之间的关系。 【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章旨在鼓励青少年参与体育运动，并列举了参与体育运动的好处。 36. E 根据下文第二段首句“You’ll become healthier.”和第四段首句“You’ll learn teamwork and sportsmanship.”均列举了参加体育运动的好处，可知第一段的结尾应是一个引导句，提示下文的内容。选项“Here are good reasons to join a sport.（以下是参加体育运动的好理由。）”符合语境。 37. F 根据下文“Physical activity helps control weight, fight against diseases and improves mood.”列举了体育运动对健康的具体好处，可知选项“It is well known that exercise is good for your health.（众所周知，锻炼对健康有益。）”呼应首句“You’ll become healthier.”且引出下文，符合语境。 38. A 空格处是段落首句，且是主题句，根据下文“Many studies show that playing sports can improve your brainpower.”可知，本段提到体育运动在智力方面的好的影响。选项“You’ll get smarter.（你会变得更聪明。）”符合语境。 39. G 根据首句“You’ll learn teamwork and sportsmanship.”和上文“Though individual sports are great, team sports teach you a life lesson: the success of a team depends on how well the players work together.”可知，空格处继续列举体育运动在团队精神和体育精神方面的好处，选项“Sports also teach you to respect the players on other teams.（体育运动还教会你尊重其他队的队员。）”语义对应，且句型上Sports also teach you与上文team sports teach you一致，符合语境。 40. B 根据下文“Whether or not you’re a natural-born athlete, there’s a sport that’s just right for you! Whether it’s basketball, swimming, or skateboard, choose a sport that you truly love.”可知，空格处呼吁你去选择一项适合自己的运动，选项“Pick a sport today!（今天就选择一项运动吧!）”符合语境。 【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了一位好心的餐馆服务员为了给有听力障碍的五岁男孩Tom一个特殊的生日祝福而临时学习手语的故事。 41. B 考查动词词义辨析。根据下文“Eventually, the waitress realized that the mum was talking in sign language to her little boy who also had ______ aids in his ears.”可知，Tom听力有障碍，不能用正常的语言交流，所以用手语和母亲交谈，服务员很好奇地观察(watched)他们。 42. A 考查动词词义辨析。根据句中的“sign language”和“in his ears”可知，Tom用手语交流，耳朵里戴有助听器(hearing aids)。 43. D 考查动词词义辨析。根据第一段中“Last week, Tom and his mother went to a restaurant to celebrate his fifth birthday.”以及本句中“she decided to give the boy a special gift”可知，女服务员得知(learned)那天是Tom的生日，所以决定给他一份礼物。 44. D 考查动词短语辨析。根据下一句“She quickly got all the rules down.”可知，女服务员上网学习手语，查找(looked up)并记住了“生日快乐”的手语表达。 45. C 考查动词词义辨析。根据上文“She went to the Internet and ______ how to say ‘happy birthday’ in sign language. She quickly got all the rules down.”可知，因为Tom用手语和人交流，女服务员来到Tom的桌前用手语说(signed)：“祝你生日快乐!”。 46. B 考查形容词词义辨析。根据下文“Later, Tom’s mum said this was the first time he had ______ in sign language with people other than her and his teacher.”可知，用手语和Tom交流的人只有老师和母亲，第一次有其他人用手语和Tom交流，还祝福Tom生日快乐，所以母子俩人对此印象深刻(impressed)。 47. A 考查动词词义辨析。根据句中的“in sign language with people”可知，此处表示用手语与他人交谈(talked)。 48. B 考查名词词义辨析。句意：这是一个简单的短语，但对汤姆来说却是一份重要的礼物。根据上下文可知，女服务员上网现学的手语，是一个简单的短语(phrase)。 49. C 考查名词词义辨析。根据上文“It was a simple ______ but it was an important gift for Tom.(这是一个简单的短语,但对汤姆来说却是一份重要的礼物。)”可知，此处为 gift 的复现。 50. A 考查形容词词义辨析。根据上文可知，女服务员得知有听力障碍的Tom过生日,特意学习手语祝他“生日快乐”，所以她是一个好心人。 51. B 考查动词词义辨析。根据上文“Tom and his mother were really ______.”以及本句中的“for a lifetime”可知，Tom在五岁生日时接收到的这份祝福将是母子俩一辈子都会记得(remember)的美好经历。 52. D 考查形容词词义辨析。根据上文“Later, Tom’s mum said this was the first time he had ______ in sign language with people other than her and his teacher.”可知,平时用手语和Tom交流的人只有老师和母亲,Tom 与他人不用手语交流，是因为自己决定手语会让他看起来很滑稽(funny)，这是令他担心的事。 53. D 考查副词词义辨析。句意：今天,他看到有人竟然试图用他的特殊语言和他说话。根据语境，表示想法与事实不一致因而惊奇，可用actually表达，意为“竟然”，熟词生义。 54. C 考查形容词词义辨析。句意：今天，他看到有人竟然试图用他的特殊语言和他说话。Tom用的手语，特殊的(special)语言,为听力障碍人士所用。 55. A 考查形容词词义辨析。根据上文“Later, Tom’s mum said this was the first time he had ______ in sign language with people other than her and his teacher.”以及“My boy was always worried that he would appear very ______ when he was talking in sign language. Today, he saw that someone ______ tried to talk to him in his ______ language.”可知，女服务员用手语和Tom交流，颠覆了Tom以往的认知，所以这一点对他而言非常重要(important)。 【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了武汉一列网红环城绿色列车的票价、运营情况、途经地标,介绍了武汉三镇的城市特色,并阐述了这趟列车融合古韵、工业底蕴与现代活力,成为连接城市过去、现在与未来的“时光隧道”。 56. at 考查介词。句意：这条特殊线路票价仅6元,囊括了这座城市最具标志性的地标,为乘客提供了一场欣赏武汉风光与丰厚历史的美好旅程。固定搭配 priced at+价格,表示“定价为……”。 57. offering 考查非谓语动词。句意同上。句子已有谓语动词covers，主语route与offer为主动关系,空格处用现在分词 offering 作结果状语。 58. has carried 考查时态。句意：这趟列车火爆程度超乎想象，车厢从7节扩充至16节，迄今为止已运送超过26万名乘客。时间状语so far意为“迄今为止”，是现在完成时的标志，主语the train为单数，现在完成时用 has carried。 59. districts 考查名词。句意：武汉被长江和汉江分隔，由三个特色鲜明的区域组成。数词three后接可数名词复数形式，district的复数形式为 districts。 60. educational 考查形容词。句意：武昌是文化教育中心，汉口是传统的商业核心，汉阳是中国近代工业的发源地。空格与cultural并列修饰名词center，需用形容词形式，educational表示“教育的”。 61. built 考查非谓语动词。句意：列车驶过1957年建成的中国首座公铁两用长江大桥武汉长江大桥时，为乘客呈现壮丽的江景。从句已有谓语动词 crosses，Yangtze crossing与build为被动关系，表示“被建造”，空格处用过去分词built作后置定语。 62. the 考查冠词。句意：该线路还途经古人墨客称颂的古老黄鹤楼以及汉阳、武昌两地与辛亥革命相关的古迹。专有名词Yellow Crane Tower为特指，前面需加定冠词the。 63. extremely 考查副词。句意：这趟列车在展示这座城市极其辉煌的过往的同时，也驶过武汉繁华的高科技中心光谷。空格修饰形容词splendid，需用副词形式，extremely表示“极其、非常”。 64. vitality 考查名词。句意：这列经典列车融合了古韵、工业底蕴与现代活力，被视作一条“时光隧道”，连接着这座城市的过去、现在与未来，为每一位乘客带来独特的怀旧情愫。形容词modern后接名词，vital 的名词形式vitality 表示“活力”，为不可数名词。 65. which 考查定语从句。句意同上。空格引导非限制性定语从句，先行词为“time tunnel”，指代事物，从句中缺少主语，只能用关系代词which。 第一节 One possible version: Dear John, How are you doing? During the National Day holiday, I watched a wonderful stand-up comedy show on TV, and I can’t wait to share it with you. The show was hosted by a famous comedian. He talked about daily life stories in a humorous way, like funny things that happen when shopping or communicating with friends. His jokes made me laugh out loud many times. From this experience, I got a lot. First, it helped me relax after a busy study period. More importantly, it made me realize that we can find joy in small things around us if we look at life with a positive and humorous attitude. Have you ever watched a stand-up comedy? I’d love to hear about your experience. Yours, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Hearing their cheers, Alexa felt joyful and realized something besides money. Through the video screen, she saw the Texas students’ eyes light up, their excited whispers filling the Bluffdale gymnasium. "Thank you so much!" a girl from Moore exclaimed, her voice trembling with emotion. Watching the virtual high-fives exchanged across the miles, Alexa realized this was more than just donating money; it was building a bridge of friendship. The once-heavy atmosphere now buzzed with laughter and shared stories, making the distance between Utah and Texas feel insignificantly small. In that moment, she understood that true compassion could turn a tragedy into a new beginning, connecting hearts despite the physical separation. One morning weeks later, Adison was reading a new letter from Moore Elementary. Sunlight streamed through the classroom windows, illuminating the neatly handwritten pages. “Your kindness is like a bright light after the storm," she read aloud from the Texas students’ message. Seeing her classmates’ attentive faces with their eyes shining with shared pride, she felt immensely joyful. The letter concluded, "We are rebuilding our library and will never forget our friends in Utah.” A gentle breeze rustled the paper, carrying with it a sense of peaceful accomplishment. This simple act of kindness, she realized, had planted seeds of hope that would grow for years to come. 听力部分录音材料 (Text 1) M: What time does the next train from Liverpool to London leave? W: At 4:35 p. m. M: Is it a direct train to London? W: No, you have to change trains at Birmingham. (Text 2) M: Let’s shelter under this tree until the rain eases up. W: Look, the bus is coming. Let’s take it. We want to go downtown anyway. M: Yeah, okay. There is a bus stop just there. (Text 3) M: What are the hours at City Hospital? W: They want me to work the night shift from 11 p. m. to 6 a. m. (Text 4) W: What do you think of our ski classes? Don’t you find them difficult and tiring? M: They’re great. I’m eager to push myself as far as I can. (Text 5) W: Usually there are many attractions at the beaches, such as fresh air and crowds of seagulls. But a tree is not a common one of them. M: A tree? W: A black pine stands proudly with its roots in the sand on the First Bathing Beach in Qingdao. (Text 6) M: Well, you have a slight fever. I need to check your throat. Open your mouth and say ah. W: Aaaaaahhhhh. M: Your throat is red. Do you cough a lot? W: Yes, and the worst thing is I’m having trouble sleeping. What’s wrong with me? M: You have a bad cold caused by flu virus. W: Do I need a blood test? M: No, you needn’t. I just give you some tablets and sleeping pills. (Text 7) W: You finally got up! M: I had a nice nap just now. Look outside! The rain is pouring down. It’s as dark as night. Wait! Before Mum left home this morning, she told me to collect the clothes and shoes from the yard after lunch. I totally forgot! W: I brought them in after I got back from grocery shopping. But it was too late. They were already wet from the rain. M: Mum will blame me when she gets home from work. W: Well, it’s 4:00 p. m. Mum gets off work at 5:00 p. m. , and it’ll take her half an hour to get home. So, you still have some time to figure out what to do. (Text 8) M: Hi, Julie. We’re going to be late for your sister Susan’s housewarming party. W: John, I was just getting groceries on the way home from work. And there’s still time. Anything else? M: Well, I can’t locate my favourite blue shirt, the one with spots. W: I think I took it to the junk shop last week. You said you no longer wore it. M: Oh, no! It was the brown one that I stopped wearing. You gave away the one I just bought recently! W: I’m sorry! We should make an agreement to always check with each other before we give things away or sell them. Remember last fall when you sold my tennis rackets at the garage sale and didn’t tell me? M: Well, you haven’t played tennis since we had Tom. (Text 9) M: Thanks for picking me up, Mum. W: It’s OK. But what did you just throw away? M: What do you mean? W: As you and your friends were walking towards the car, I saw you throwing something into the trees. M: Oh, yes. It was just an apple I had finished eating. W: Well, why didn’t you put it in a rubbish bin? I’m not happy with that. M: I don’t, usually, but we learned that it’s OK to do that with fruit in today’s class. W: Really? M: Honestly. Of course, you shouldn’t drop it on the street. But in the woods, it can actually be helpful to nature. W: How exactly? M: It provides food for small animals. And as the fruit breaks down, it can also benefit the plants. W: Hmm... That makes sense, actually. (Text 10) W: When I hear people saying that only their mothers know how to cook well, I’d like to prove them wrong. It’s a well-known fact that the most famous chefs are men. One day when I was surfing the Net looking for something interesting, I found an article about brilliant people. The story of one French man, Alain Ducasse, caught my eye. Mr. Ducasse, born in 1956, managed to grow from an ordinary farmer’s child to the world’s best chef. With his talent and continuous hard work, Mr. Ducasse has earned 21 Michelin Stars throughout his career. He has built a grand business over the years with 36 restaurants spread around the globe. In addition to being known for making world-class French cuisine, Mr. Ducasse is a famous chef who has sent his food into space. In 2015, he sent meals to astronauts at the International Space Station. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $