（教研室）四川乐山市高中2026届高三第二次调查研究考试（4月）英语试题

乐山市高中2023级第二次调查研究考试 英语 (本试卷满分150分，考试用时120分钟) 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名，准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2.作答时，务必将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷及草稿纸上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）】 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转 涂到答题卡上 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后面有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳 选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读 两遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A.￡19.15. B.￡9.15. C.￡9.18. 答案是B。 1.Why is the man selling his car? A.He prepares to buy a cheaper car. B.He can't drive his car to New York. C.He wants to avoid high parking fees 2.Who is the man probably talking to? A.His wife. B.His co-worker. C.A shop assistant. 3.What is the weather like now? A.Rainy. B.Sunny. C.Cloudy. 4.What will the man do next? A.Attend a meeting. B.Check his teeth. C.Fix the air conditioner. 5.How much will the woman pay? A.35 yuan. B.40 yuan. C.60 yuan. 高三英语第1页（共10页） 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项 中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各 小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6.How does the AI shopping assistant work? A.Find proper clothes. B.Sell jackets online. C.Take photos for clients. 7.What worry does the man raise? A.Data privacy. B.Product quality C.Payment security. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8.Why does the man mention his boss? A.To suggest inviting his boss to join. B.To show why he has been busy lately. C.To explain the need to change the day. 9.Where will they probably have lunch? A.At home. B.On the beach. C.At a restaurant. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10.What was the arrival place of the man's longest flight? A.Istanbul. B.Bangkok C.Delhi. 11.What flight tip did the man give? A.Sit near the window. B.Prepare warm clothes. C.Select a reliable airline. 12.Why does the man prefer two short flights to one long flight? A.They are less tiring. B.They cost less in total. C.They offer more travel places 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13.Which sport did the man start doing recently? A.Yoga. B.Hiking. C.Swimming. 14.What benefit does the woman get from yoga? A.She has lost weight. B.She has become more patient. C.She has improved sleep quality 15.What does the man say about trying yoga? A.He finds it difficult. B.He might try it later. C.He will start next week. 16.What will the speakers probably do together? A.Practise yoga. B.Go hiking. C.Go swimming. 高三英语第2页（共10页） 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17.Where can visitors experience on the first floor? A.Weightlessness. B.Robot controlling. C.Latest smartphone models. 18.What can visitors do in the Robot Hall? A.Talk with a robot. B.Let a robot control your arm. C.Ask a robot to clean your face. 19.What is this month's special show about? A.Future trends. B.Invention history. C.Space exploration. 20.What is the rule for photography? A.No photo allowed. B.No flash permitted. C.Only in special shows. 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）】 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A You may have had tasted many delicious foods,but there are so many more global cuisines to explore. Germany Nowadays,vegetarian and vegan choices can be found on menus across the country.People who love local food will like Germany's focus on local ingredients((食材).In asparagus（芦笋)season, many restaurants offer special menus for this popular green and white vegetable. Jamaica Although famous for jerk chicken and rum,Jamaica's food has much more to explore with special local ingredients.For breakfast,try ackee-Jamaica's national fruit-fried with codfish. You can also taste stewed goat or oxtail with callaloo,a local green vegetable.And wash it all down with a ginger beer or a glass of sorrel. Croatia Croatia has a complex history and a diverse culinary scene.Inland areas are mainly influenced by central European food,featuring meats,cheeses and noodles.Istria,a bilingual region bordering Italy and Slovenia,is famous for its local food like seafood,olive oil,truffles and prosciutto,which go well with the wine (including some strong spirits)that Istria produces as well. Peru When many children in a country list chef as their dream job,it shows the country truly values food.Peru's cuisine begins with the quality of its ingredients:abundant seafood,meats and produce are found here,including many so-called superfoods that the world has only recently taken notice of,such as quinoa,and maca.Its multicultural population makes its local food scene thrive with regional variations. 高三英语第3页（共10页） 21.What is special on menus in Germany? A.Abundant seafood dishes. B.Meat-based food. C.Wide vegetable choices. D.Nutritious fruits. 22.What does Istria's local food match well with? A.Cheeses and noodles. B.Local wine and spirits. C.Central European meat. D.Fruits fried with codfish. 23.Where can visitors try the recently recognized maca? A.Germany. B.Jamaica. C.Croatia. D.Peru B Japanese architect Kiyoaki Takeda reimagines urban living:human habitation and nature co-exist.From green rooftops to wilding existing structures,his designs cultivate biodiversity, reconnect communities to local ecosystems,and transform concrete landscapes into lively living environments.The unique vision for city life is rooted in a memory."The place where I was born and raised was surrounded by forest and was home to a diverse range of living creatures,"Takeda recalls."But now...the forest has disappeared." In the Tsuruoka House in Tokyo,the concrete structure appears like ancient ruins,being overgrown with plants.At the roof is a planter deep enough to grow trees alongside groundcover plants.The building's special structure allows rainwater to flow naturally downward,watering the plants throughout the building.He envisioned a small "forest"growing over the house,where the plants,birds,and insects will replace the mass of the construction. Another example is the Soil Nihonbashi hotel,completed in 2025.The 14-room hotel has potted plants decorating the public spaces,inside the guestrooms and in balconies.Here,greenery is a device that not only helps colour the greyness of an urban environment,but also a tool for emotional connection.Takeda asked local residents to donate potted plants and help design the hotel's exterior ()aiming to create a sense of building the hotel together. These gestures are simple yet meaningful.As Takeda puts it,"Architecture needs to be designed from the perspective of resources.We need to know which forest the building materials come from and what kinds of creatures live in that forest.We need to design a rich environment for both the creatures and city people." 24.What inspired Takeda to develop his design style? A.His gardening passion. B.His love for modern city life. C.His childhood forest memory. D.His study of local communities. 高三英语第4页（共10页） 25.What is a key feature of the Tsuruoka House? A.It was built in ancient ruins. B.It provides habitats for nature. C.It is covered with precious plants. D.It collects rainwater for daily use. 26.Why did Takeda ask locals to donate plants? A.To build community bonds. B.To decorate the guest rooms. C.To diversify the public spaces. D.To cut down construction costs. 27.What is the core of Takeda's design? A.Balancing humans and nature. B.Focusing on emotional connection. C.Using natural materials to build architecture. D.Raising awareness of environmental pollution. C A long-term research,known as the ACTIVE study beginning in the 1990s with 2,802 older adults concluded that a little brain training today may help stave off dementia (for at least 20 years.After following the adults for two decades,researchers found that those completing about ten sessions of a brain exercise-called cognitive speed training,were 25%less likely to develop dementia. The speed-training exercise has users watch a computer screen.At some point,a car or a truck flashes in the center and a road sign shows up on the edge.The challenge is to pick out the correct vehicle sign,and remember where the road sign has appeared.The game "Double Decision"asks users to focus on one of two center targets as well as one on the edge.As the game progresses,the vehicles become harder to tell apart,and signs on the edge increase too. It shows that the people who did this speed training that also boosts memory and reasoning were less likely to be diagnosed (with dementia.Researchers believe this is because it inspires something called implicit learning,which involves acquiring unconscious or automatic skills.That also indicates a modest amount of training has a measurable impact decades later.As Neuroscientist Henry Mahncke compares it to learning to ride a bike,"You can learn to ride a bike in about 10 hours of training,"he says."Even without practice for 20 years,you still have 'a bike-riding brain'.” 28.What does the underlined phrase "stave off"in paragraph 1 mean? A.Predict. B.Cure. C.Identify. D.Delay. 29.What were participants required to do in the "Double Decision"game? A.Identify objects quickly. B.Find mistakes on the signs. C.Judge whether the vehicle breaks traffic rules. D.Count how many signs showing in the progress. 高三英语第5页（共10页） 30.Why does Mahncke mention learning to ride a bike? A.To demonstrate bike-riding's memory benefits. B.To illustrate speed training's long-term effects. C.To explain the possible risks of implicit learning. D.To compare mental learning to physical training. 31.What can be a suitable title for the text? A.Brain Health:The Role of Daily Exercises. B.ACTIVE Study:Uncovering Dementia Risks. C.Implicit Learning:Training Brain in Games. D.Speed Training:A Defense against Dementia. D There is no question that Generative Al will automate a large number of jobs,removing people from the workplace.But it will almost certainly take away human warmth from social life.Over the past 15 years,face-to-face socialization has already declined dramatically.Over time,many people may develop deep relationships with chatbots(聊天机器人).This seems likely to change our society at least as much as the social-media era has,and may start a new digital age that is even more anti-social. Chatbots claim to know everything,yet they are also humble,treating the user as supreme. Anyone who has spent much time with chatbots will recognize that they tend to be pleasing.They seldom disagree or criticize.Chatbots built for commercial purposes are not typically intended to challenge your thoughts;they are intended to receive them,offer agreeable responses,and keep you coming back. But in human relationship,conflict is unavoidable.It can be uncomfortable.Yet conflict can be meaningful-as a check on selfish behavior or over self-regard;as a chance to look more closely at other people;as a way to better understand the weaknesses and fears we all share.But chatbots will never tell you it's bored or tell you to stop being so stupid and self-righteous.They never feel bored,complain or ask for help.They offer false friendship while helping people avoid real communication. Therefore,the more time children spend with chatbots,the fewer opportunities they'll have to develop alongside other people一and,as opposed to all the digital distractions(数字干扰设备) that have existed for decades,they may be fooled by the technology into thinking that they are,in fact,having a social experience.When kids project onto a bot and "talk"with it,they are fed information and affirmed (by chatbots,thus missing out on something crucial in the process. They may never leam how to fail,or how to be creative.The whole learning process goes out of the window. 32.Why does the author say the new digital age is anti-social? A.Because chatbots refuse to communicate. B.Because people lack normal interpersonal interactions. C.Because chatbots reject showing human warmth. D.Because people will hate making friends on social media. 高三英语第6页（共10页） 33.What do we know about commercial chatbots? A.They prioritize satisfying users. B.They push independent thinking. C.They value users'true feelings. D.They encourage original ideas. 34.What is the main harm for children using chatbots according to the author? A.They are hardly satisfied. B.They are deeply addicted. C.They are overly informed. D.They are socially misled. 35.Which of the following may the author agree with? A.We should embrace chatbots. B.Say no to digital distractions. C.A real-world friend matters. D.Don't ask a chatbot to help. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余 选项。 Sports Help Build a Healthier and Longer Life Building new skills and challenging your brain are generally good for healthy aging.36 When you decide to get moving,keep these tips for a long life in mind. Make it social.For decades,social interaction has been tied to better health and a longer life. Find ways to be active with other people,like joining a run club,signing up for a group fitness class or trying a new sport through your local recreation center or park's department.37 Keep challenging yourself.Sports are mentally challenging too because they're dynamic and goal-driven.But you can bring that mindset to any form of exercise.First,add some senses of freshness:a new route,a different gym routine or an unusual playing environment.Second,set clear,short-term goals that push you forward.38 39 Common exercises like running and cycling are great ways to stay active,said Steven Moore,a metabolic epidemiologist at the National Cancer Institute.But pair them with upper-body work,including resistance training,so that you're getting a full-body workout and building muscle. Aim for consistency.The benefits of exercise only stick if you keep doing it as you get older, said Dr.I-Min Lee,an epidemiologist at the Harvard T.H.Chan School of Public Health.While tennis is sometimes called a "lifetime sport,"you don't need to stick with one activity forever. 40 Ultimately,any and all physical activity improves long life."Find something that works for you,"Dr.Lee said."The bottom line is to move more. A.Exercise your whole body. B.Try some stronger exercise. C.So it's worth finding a sport you enjoy. D.This social element also helps with motivation and sense of responsibility. E.It's proved that brain training like reading or chess slows down aging effectively. F.For example,you may gradually increase your walking time or add up the weight you lift. G.Mixing things up keeps exercise fresh and easier to sustain,especially as your body changes. 高三英语第7页（共10页） 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 For 15 years,Dino's Wood Burning Pizza has been a heart of Etobicoke,serving tradition and kindness.The owner Dino Ari brings more than food-he brings a spirit of 41 too. Even before the COVID-l9 pandemic(新冠流行病)，Ari and his staff made pizzas weekly for homeless shelters.He also noticed international students feeling 42 far from home.So he often 43 them to his shop for free food.During COVID-19,he kept preparing pies for 44 workers-the doctors and nurses at hospitals.So Ari was 45 as a"Hero of Etobicoke"by the local goverment for his contributions to the community. Ari does not give back for awards or prizes;he does it because he 46."It makes me happy to help,"he says."What my parents taught me is always in my heart:to give help,and you're not 47 to get back anything in return.Your 48 can put a smile on people's faces,the people who are really 49.He has had this 50 since he immigrated (from Turkey in 2000 and first opened Dino's Wood Burning Pizza in 2007. That same heart goes into his 51.Each early morning,he fires up his handmade oven with wood to bake famous thin-crust pizzas,with sauces made 52 daily. While there has always been comfort in delicious food,it is the 53 of those who create that food-giving to others,providing care and 54 concern-that can make a business feel truly special.Dino Ari embodies all these and is making a 55 in every way he can. 41.A.adventure B.leadership C.enterprise D.community 42.A.stressed B.free C.curious D.annoyed 43.A.allowed B.invited C.matched D.followed 44.A.low-spirit B.part-time C.short-term D.front-line 45.A.thought B.employed C.honored D.mistaken 46.A.cares B.tries C.depends D.fails 47.A.missing B.doubting C.expecting D.forbidding 48.A.challenge B.responsibility C.humor D.kindness 49.A.at risk B.out of control C.in need D.up to date 50.A.philosophy B.permission C.suggestion D.schedule 51.A.studies B.family C.friends D.work 52.A.valuable B.fresh C.empty D.weak 53.A.decorations B.costumes C.qualities D.interests 54.A.showing B.requiring C.introducing D.exposing 55.A.choice B.difference C.mistake D.living 高三英语 第8页（共10页） 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。 A "Becoming Chinese"trend on social media reveals China's growing cultural attraction. "Tomorrow,you are tuming Chinese."Recently,56 creator says in a TikTok video,listing a series of distinct Chinese lifestyle habits.Like him,international users have increasingly posted their “Chinese-style'”lives.. These videos,57(display)daily Chinese lifestyle practices ranging from practicing Baduanjin to exploring traditional "healthy habits",are popular on social media platforms,58 cross-cultural contents often spread most rapidly.The "Becoming Chinese"phenomenon has proven that China has gone beyond the conventional labels in a 59 (foreigner)eyes. China's rising global influence provides a solid foundation for this cultural attraction.60 reported,China has risen to second place in the Global Soft Power Index.Supportive 61 (policy)have led to a notable increase in intemational visits,enabling more travelers 62 (experience)China firsthand.Furthermore,products like Chinese appliances,the smart electric cars and even the popular game Black Myth:Wukong 63 (be)not only commercial successes, but also serve as carriers of Chinese creativity,design thinking,and technological innovation. Through daily use,they integrate elements of Chinese culture into lifestyles worldwide.64 (drive)by shared understanding and the common experiences of daily life,the "Becoming Chinese'”trend65_(ultimate)illustrates how soft power can flourish(纂荣)， 第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）】 第一节（满分15分） 假定你是李华，你校近期举行了一次“好书分享会”。请你给英国笔友Noah写一封邮件， 介绍这次活动。内容包括： 1.简述活动内容； 2.分享你的感受。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Noah, How are you?I'm excited to tell you about a wonderful event held at our school recently. Best wishes, Li Hua 高三英语第9页（共10页） 第二节（满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Molly's life was changed forever on a March morning in 2018.A phone call brought the heartbreaking news:her husband,Marlin,had died in a skiing accident.In the difficult days that followed,her close friend Carla stayed with her every day,helping with daily tasks and arranging meals brought by friends and neighbors. But Carla knew from her own experience that the first wave of support often becomes less after a few weeks,as people retum to their own lives.She wanted to create something that would last longer for Molly during the hard year ahead.Looking at the list of friends who wanted to help,she had an idea. “What if I find more people,”Carla thought,“and make a daily care calendar(日历)？Each day of the month,one person would promise to check on Molly in a small way."This way,support would be steady,but no one would feel too much pressure. Carla carefully suggested the idea to Molly.She explained that it would be kind and simple support-a text,a card,or an offer to walk her dog.Deeply touched by her friend's care,Molly agreed.So Carla began to make a list of thirty-one women from their neighborhood.She planned to give each one a specific date of the month.On that same date each month for a whole year,that "calendar girl"would do a small and kind thing for Molly.And she knew the first steps-contacting everyone,explaining the plan clearly,and organizing the schedule-were key to turning this warm idea into a real comfort for her heartbroken friend. 注意： 1.续写词数为150左右； 2.请按如下格式作答。 Carla sent out a heartfelt email to the thirty-one women she had in mind. As the first month began,Molly started receiving these small gestures of kindness. 高三英语第10页（共10页）乐山市高中2023级第二次调查研究考试 英语参考答案及评分意见 2026.4 第1卷（共100分） 第一部分听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分） 1-5 CBABA 6-10AACCB 11-15 CACCB 16-20 BAABB 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 21-23CBD 24-27 CBAA 28-31 DABD 32-35 BADC 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 36-40 CDFAG 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分) 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 41-45 DABDC 46-50ACDCA 51-55 DBCAB 第川卷（共50分） 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 56.a 57.displaying 58.where 59.foreigner's 60.As 61.policies 62.to experience 63.are 64.Driven 65.ultimately 第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） (一)内容要点 1.简述活动内容，6分：应清晰描述“好书分享会”的具体流程。 2.分享感受，6分；应表达个人对活动的积极看法或从中获得的具体益处。 3.合乎文体和交际功能的表达（含结尾），3分。 (二)评分原则 1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量， 确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3.词数少于80和多于130的，从总分中减去2分。 4.评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上 下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。 英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 1 (三)评分标准 第五档(1315分)：完全完成了试题规定的任务，完全达到了预期的写作目的 覆盖所有内容要点。 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致，具备较强 的语言运用能力。 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 第四档(10-12分)：完全完成了试题规定的任务，达到了预期的写作目的 虽漏掉次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 第三档(7-9分)：基本完成了试题规定的任务，整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档(4-6分)：未恰当完成试题规定的任务，信息未能清楚地传达给读者 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单调、词汇知识有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 第一档(1-3分)：未完成试题规定的任务，信息未能传达给读者 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 语法结构单调、词汇知识有限。 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 不得分0分)：未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内 容无关或所写内容无法看清。 2 (Apossible version: Dear Noah, How are you?I'm excited to tell you about a wonderful event held at our school recently.Its name was Books for Sharing:we brought our favorite books to present and discuss. We eagerly recommended books and exchanged reading experiences.I shared my thoughts on a history book,and obviously sci-fi novels,nature exploration,art-related books were all bestsellers'”. This event was really rewarding.With our shared efforts,It broadened our horizons,fired our passion for reading and most importantly,spread the joy of reading! Do you have any fantastic books to share?Looking forward to hearing from you. Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） (一)给分点位 1.续写第一段(12分) (1)Carla的邮件内容，6分： (2)邮件产生的效果，6分。 2.续写第二段（13分) (1)Molly的反应（含收到的具体关怀），7分： (2)Molly的变化与文章结尾，6分 (二)评分标准 1.本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。 2.评分时，主要从内容、语言表达和篇章结构三个方面考查，具体为：续写内容质量、 续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。 3.评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量， 确定或调整档次，最后给分。 4.评分时还应注意： (1)词数少于120的，酌情扣分： (2)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考 虑，英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 (3)书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。 3 档次 给分要求 创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情景融洽度高： 使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构、表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不 第七档 影响理解； (22-25分) 自然有效地使用了段落间、句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义 连贯。 创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情景 融洽度较高； 第六档 使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但 (18-21分) 不影响理解； 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关： 第五档 使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误， (15-17分) 但基本不影响理解： 使用了语句衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑不强，与原文情景 第四档 基本相关： (11-14分) 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影 响理解； 尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。 内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节： 第三档 所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解： (610分) 未能有效地使用语句衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。 内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原 第二档 文情景基本脱节： （1-5分) 所使用的的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解： 几乎没有使用语句衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。 第一档 未作答，所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法判断，缩写内容全部抄自原文或 (0分) 与题目要求完全不相关。 4 (三)Apossible Version Carla sent out a heartfelt email to the thirty-one women she had in mind.In it she created a clear calendar,assigning each friend a specific date of the month.She gently suggested that even the smallest act of kindness would make a difference, 邮件的内容 and the chain of companionship would truly help Molly through the long days ahead.Almost immediately,kind replies flowed into her inbox.Each woman readily agreed,offering to 邮件产生的效果 send a thoughtful text or share a simple homemade dish. As the first month of the calendar began,Molly started receiving these small gestures of kindness.A friendly text message arrived one morning.A few days later,she found a Molly的反应与变化 homemade pie at her door with a warm note.These consistent (含收到的具体关怀) acts,day after day,slowly wrapped her in warmth.She began to smile more,feeling the weight of her loneliness lessen.Molly gradually understood that true healing came not from grand 有意义的文章结尾 gestures,but from the quiet,persistent comfort of knowing she was accompanied through her grief. 5 附：听力原文 Text 1 W:I can't believe you're selling your car,Brian.It's only two years old! M:I know.But I'm moving to New York.It is very expensive to park a vehicle there,so I plan to take the subway to work. Text 2 M:What a fantastic necklace!It's shinning around your neck.I want to buy one for my wife. W:Thanks.I think it can hold its value well.I bought it... M:Shush!Mr.Smith is coming towards us with the meeting papers. Text 3 W:Did you bring an umbrella? M:I didn't think I'd need one.The sun was out when I left. W:Well,look at you now.... Text 4 W:Oh,no!The air conditioner breaks down again. M:OK.I have to get it fixed as soon as possible. W:Don't you want to get it fixed now? M:I wish I could,but I have an appointment with my dentist in twenty minutes. Text 5 W:Hello,I need to send this to Shanghai. M:By air,40 yuan.By ground,20 -takes five days. W:OK,I'll take ground.And I have two mails.Same price for the second? M:20 for the first,15 for the second. W:OK,I'll send both. Text 6 M:Nice jacket!Is it new? W:Thanks.I got it online last week M:How did you find it? W:I used this AI shopping assistant.You just tell it your body size and upload a photo of yourself, and it finds clothes that matches you well. M:That's smart!Does it cost anything? W:No,it's free.It even compares prices for you. M:Cool.However,I just hope they don't keep my pictures forever. W:You can delete them anytime. Text 7 W:Honey,are we still going to the beach this weekend? 6 M:Err...My boss called an urgent meeting.How about Sunday instead? W:Sunday works!Should we invite the Johnsons?Their kids would love it. M:Sure.I'll text Tom.We can leave around 8. W:That's fine.Did you pack the sunscreen? M:Oh,right.I'll do it tonight. W:Thanks.And can we book that seafood place near the beach? M:Yeah,that restaurant offers great soup.I'll call it tomorrow. W:Perfect!I'm really looking forward to it. Text 8 W:Bob,as an experienced traveller,what's the longest flight you've been on? M:Let me see...That should be from Istanbul to Bangkok,though I had a stopover in Delhi during the middle of the journey.It took me about 16 hours in total.It was challenging to sit for so long, but I made it a little enjoyable with movies,snacks,and some sleeps. W:Sounds exhausting!Do you have any tips for long flights? M:Definitely!First,choose your airline carefully.For flights over 4 hours,make sure they offer comfortable seats,good meals and in-flight entertainment,like a TV screen.Also,ask for a blanket right after boarding to stay comfortable. W:Good advice!Anything else? M:I think that taking two short flights,like two 5-hour ones,is better than one 10-hour flight. Breaking up the journey makes it easier to stretch and relax in between. W:Thanks.I'll keep them in mind for my next trip. Text 9 W:You look really fit these days,David.Have you been exercising more than usual? M:Yeah,I started swimming twice a week at the community pool. W:That's great.I've been doing yoga for about three months now,and I really enjoy it. M:How do you like it?I've never tried yoga before. W:It's not easy at first,but it helps me relax and sleep much better at night. M:Sounds nice.I'm a little worried I won't be able to keep up W:You start with simple poses.The teacher's very patient. M:Sounds wonderful,maybe I can pick it up some time later. W:By the way,do you do any other sports? M:Sometimes I go hiking on weekends if the weather's nice. W:Oh,me too!There's a silent path near the lake. M:We should go together.I can take you there. W:I'd love that!I'm usually available on Saturdays. Text 10 W:Good morning,everyone!I'm Sarah,your guide for today's tour of the Future Life Exhibition. 7 We have three levels for you to explore.Starting on the first floor,you'll enter the Space Hall. Young visitors'favorite there is the space walking game -you'll feel like a real astronaut floating in zero gravity. One floor up,the Robot Hall awaits.You can meet robots that clean,take photos,even hold a conversation with you.There's also a hands-on area where you can control a robot arm to pick up small objects.It's harder than it looks! The top level offers something different.This month's special show looks backward instead of forward,tracing how human creativity has evolved from the first light bulb to today's smartphones. We'll spend about an hour here.Feel free to take photos,but please no flash.It helps protect the exhibits. Ifyou have any questions,just ask.Now,let's begin on the first floor! 8