云南省昆明市禄劝民族中学2025-2026学年上学期七年级英语期中试卷

2025—2026学年七年级上学期 英语（RJ）试卷 （考试范围：Starter Units-Unit 3） （全卷四个部分，满分100分，用时：听力口语30分钟；笔试部分120分钟） 注意事项： 1.考生必须在答题卡上解题作答。答案应书写在答题卡的相应位置上，在试卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 2.考试结束后，请将试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力口语（共六节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子选择图片（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听5个句子，每个句子后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。每个句子听两遍。在听每个句子前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目；听完后，你有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。在听到“嘀”的信号后，进入下一小题。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. B. C. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. B. C. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. B. C. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. B. C. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. B. C. 第二节 听句子选择答案（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听5个句子，每个句子后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答案。每个句子听两遍。在听每个句子前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目；听完后，你有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。在听到“嘀”的信号后，进入下一小题。 6. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. He is my teacher. B. She is 30 years old. C. She is my mother. 7. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Beijing. B. In the dinning hall. C. Anna. 8. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Yes, I do. B. Yes, I can. C. No, I’m not. 9. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. It looks nice. B. It’s blue. C. It’s on the desk. 10. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. See you. B. Nice to meet you too. C. Good evening. 第三节 听对话选择答案（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听3段对话，每段对话后有一个或两个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话听两遍。在听每段对话前，你有5秒钟的时间阅读每小题；听完后，每小题你有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。在听到“嘀”的信号后，进入下一小题。 请听对话，回答问题。 11. What plants are there in Alice’s garden? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Tomato plants. B. Potato plants. C. Apple trees. 请听对话，回答问题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 12. How many people are there in Kevin’s family photo? A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven. 13. Where is Kevin’s mum in the photo? A. In the middle. B. Next to his dad. C. On his dad’s right. 请听对话，回答问题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. Where is the dining hall? A. Behind the classroom building. B. Next to the science building. C. Across from the art building. 15. What is the gym like in Jane’s school? A. It’s big. B. It’s small. C. It’s modern. 第四节 朗读（共7小题；每个单词0.5分，每个句子1分，满分5分） 按照要求朗读题中所给的4个单词和3个句子。朗读每个单词前，你有5秒钟的准备时间；请在听到录音提示后5秒内完成朗读。朗读每个句子前，你有10秒钟的准备时间；请在听到录音提示后20秒内完成朗读。 16. spell 17. member 18. change 19. important 20. You need to keep your room tidy. 21. Do you often play ping-pong together? 22. What’s special in your classroom? 第五节 日常对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 用日常交际用语对所听到的问题作出回答。每个问题问两遍。在听完每句话后，你将有10秒钟的准备时间；请在听到录音提示后10秒钟内选择括号内正确提示语用英文作出回答。 23.（我的丈夫；来自中国） 24.（一副眼镜；白色的） 25.（崭新的；我爸爸的） 26.（14岁；非常聪明） 27.（在餐厅和体育馆中间；一些书柜） 第六节 情景问答（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据情景提示回答问题，每个情景提示后有1个问题，根据情景提示的内容用英语进行回答。每个问题问两遍。在听完每句话后，你将有10秒钟的准备时间；请在听到录音提示后10秒内完成作答。 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 16. This is ________ eraser and that’s ________ bottle. A. a; a B. an; an C. a; an D. an; a 17. Mark is very similar ________ me, but very different ________ my sister. A. to; from B. from; to C. for; with D. with; for 18. The cake is very good. Could I have________one? A. both B. each C. another D. all 19. We read newspapers (报纸) to get ________. A. information B. mistakes C. questions D. money 20. Lisa can play the piano with her feet. That’s a very ________ skill (技能)! A. famous B. amazing C. bad D. easy 21. —How many horses can you see on the farm? —Let me________. One, two, three...seven. A. raise B. laugh C. count D. learn 22. —________ do you spell it? —C-A-R-R-O-T, carrot. A. How B. What C. When D. Where 23. My mother spends two hours ________ housework every day. A. do B. to do C. doing D. does 24. There ________ some bread and two eggs on the table. A. is B. are C. has D. have 25. —________ your father work in a school? —No, he ________ in a hospital. A. Does; work B. Do; work C. Do; works D. Does; works 第二节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 Hello, everyone! I’m Mia, ____26____ I am a 6-year-old girl. I have a brother. His name is Peter. There is a dog in ____27____ family. The name of it is Coco. What ____28____ is it? It’s white. Every morning, Coco goes to school ____29____ Peter and me. Then, Peter and I have fun at school, and Coco goes home. After school, we three ____30____ at home. Coco has a friend. It is a black cat. And its name is Ryan. It ____31____ plays with Coco in the yard. The two can ____32____ us too—they chase away (赶走) bad people near our house. We must say ____33____ to them for that. Now Coco and Ryan ____34____ also good friends of my family. They are so lovely and we love them very much. You know what? Our friends at school like them too—they are ____35____ everywhere (到处). 26. A. but B. or C. and D. so 27. A. her B. your C. their D. our 28. A. school B. colour C. game D. name 29. A. with B. in C. for D. at 30. A. talk B. meet C. say D. spell 31. A. well B. here C. too D. always 32. A. know B. see C. help D. ask 33. A. thanks B. bye C. no D. please 34. A. be B. am C. is D. are 35. A. quiet B. happy C. welcome D. tidy 第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） To Be a Little Farmer Boys and girls, would you like to be a little farmer at our school farm? Do you like animals? Can you help water the vegetables and fruit? Can you come to the school farm at 7:00 every morning? The school farm is behind our school. It’s big. Look! This is the animal farm. There are many kinds of animals. You can see 12 sheep, 5 horses, 6 geese and 15 rabbits. They eat much food every day. Now we are at the vegetable garden. Do you like potatoes and tomatoes? You can plant them here. How about the fruit garden? Now we have pears and apples in it. Come and be a little farmer at the school farm! You can water the potatoes and tomatoes. You can eat the fruit. You can feed the sheep and play with the rabbits. Come and join us! 根据短文内容，判断句子正(T)、误(F)。 36. The farm work starts at 8:00 every morning. 37. The school is in front of the school farm. 38. There are 12 geese at the animal farm. 39. Students can water plants at the vegetable garden. 40. Students can eat the fruit at the school farm. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 A Hello, my name is Bai Yun! I’m 12 years old. I’m in Class 2, Grade 7. I am short and strong. I am from Fujian. I like singing. Hi, boys and girls. I’m Jenny Brown. Bai Yun is my classmate and she is also my best friend. I am 11. I’m from Shanghai. I’m quiet and nice. I like swimming. Nice to meet you, guys! I’m Yoshiro. I’m from Japan. I’m strong and kind. I’m a teacher in China. I like reading. And I love telling stories to my students. Hello, my name is Eric Black! I’m from Canada. I’m thin and tall. I teach English in Japan now. I like swimming. My phone number is 1024-5623. 41. Where is Bai Yun from? A. Shanghai. B. Fujian. C. Hunan. D. Guangdong. 42. Who likes swimming? a. Bai Yun. b. Jenny Brown. c. Yoshiro. d. Eric Black. A. a, b B. a, c C. b, c D. b, d 43. Yoshiro is a teacher in ________. A. China B. America C. Japan D. Canada 44. What is Eric’s family name? A. Brown. B. Green. C. Eric. D. Black. 45. From the passage, we know ________. A. Bai Yun and Jenny are of the same age B. Bai Yun and Jenny are classmates C. Yoshiro is thin and kind D. Eric teaches English in Canada B It is Gordon’s first day at his new school. During the lunch break (午休), he has a tour of his school. He finds a large sports field behind the dining hall. On the left of the sports field, there is a gym. Where is the library? When Gordon wants to find it, the bell rings (发出铃声). It’s time for the music class. He goes back to the classroom building. Everyone goes to the music room, but Gordon doesn’t know how to get there. He is late, so he can’t find any students to show him the way. He knows the music room isn’t on the 1st floor (一楼) or the 2nd floor, so he goes to the 3rd floor. He finds the art room first. A teacher is drawing in it. Gordon asks him the way to the music room. He says, “Turn right (右转) and the last room on your left is the music room.” Gordon thanks him and runs to the music room. Then he sees Mr Lewis at the door. “I was ready to look for (寻找) you, and here you are,” he says. “Come in and sit down.” 46. What does the underlined word “tour” mean? A. Show. B. Wish. C. Visit. D. Change. 47. What is the correct order according to (根据) the passage? a. Gordon can’t find any students to show him the way. b. Gordon finds a large sports field. c. Gordon finds a teacher drawing in the art room. d. The bell for the music class rings. e. Gordon sees Mr Lewis at the door. A. b-d-e-a-c B. b-d-a-c-e C. a-c-d-b-e D. c-d-a-b-e 48. Why is Mr Lewis at the door? A. He is late too. B. He needs to go to his office. C. He wants to go home. D. He wants to look for Gordon. 49. What can we infer (推断) from the passage? A. Gordon knows the way to the library. B. The music room is on the 3rd floor. C. No students want to help Gordon. D. Gordon has lunch at home today. 50. What is the best title for the passage? A. Here Is an Art Room B. Here Are Nice Teachers C. Gordon Finds His Way D. Gordon Makes New Friends C Good morning! I’m Bill. This is my room. You can see a key, a map, a jacket, a cup and a cap in it. What’s this in English? It’s a key. It’s black. It’s mine(我的). What’s that in English? It’s a map. That’s a jacket. What colour is it? It’s brown. The jacket is not mine. It’s my friend Leo’s. Brown is his favourite colour. This is my cup. It’s white. What’s that? It’s my black cap. That is my brother Ben’s room. This is his pen. It is yellow. That is his ruler. I can spell it. R-U-L-E-R. It’s green. This is his pencil. It’s black. That is Ben’s schoolbag. It’s black too. An orange is in it. What’s that in English? It’s a cup. It’s white. It’s my sister Mary’s. That English map is hers (她的) too. She is not a tidy girl and always puts her things here and there. 51. What colour is Bill’s key? A. Brown. B. Black. C. White. D. Yellow. 52. Whose jacket is it? A. Leo’s. B. Bill’s. C. Ben’s. D. Mary’s. 53. How many things can you see in Ben’s room? A. Six. B. Seven. C. Eight. D. Nine. 54. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Mary’s cup is white. B. There is an orange in Ben’s schoolbag. C. Mary is a very tidy girl. D. Leo’s favourite colour is brown. 55. What is the passage mainly about? A. Bill’s friends. B. Ben’s brother and sister. C. Bill’s and Ben’s rooms. D. Bill’s father and mother. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） It’s good for us to have friends. Look at the picture. ____56____ The girl with long and yellow hair is Mary Green. She is 13 years old. ____57____ Her parents are in Beijing, and she studies there. She is helpful and helps me with my English. ____58____ She likes red and has many red clothes. We are in the same class and she lives near my house. ____59____ Both of us like reading books. So we go to the library on weekends together. The boy is Wang Hua. We have the same hobby-playing tennis. It can help us keep healthy. ____60____ I am happy to be friends with them. A. She is from the UK. B. The girl in a red dress is Li Mei. C. I go to school with her every day. D. These are my friends in the picture. E. I play ping-pong with him after school. F. Do you want to be friends with them? G. We play tennis on the playground after school. 第四部分 写作（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。 61. My ________ are reading books and listening to music. (hobby) 62. The story about the little cat is ________ interesting. (real) 63. We often go ________ with our parents on Saturdays. (hike) 64. Those black pencils are ________.(Lucy) 65. My brother always ________ his classmates with a smile (微笑). (greet) 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，à分5分） 将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当的形式，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。 66. His ____________ is Tom Smith, and we call him Tom.（全名） 67. My sister usually reads storybooks ____________ before bed. (在夜晚) 68. The little boy made ____________ friends on his first day at school. (大量；许多). 69. Tony ____________ in the park every morning. (做体操) 70. My mom helps me to ____________ my new picture on the wall. (张贴) 第三节 书面表达（满分10分） 71. 下周有一批学生要来参观你的学校，请你以“My School”为题，根据以下要点内容，用英语写一篇短文，介绍一下你的学校。 要点： 1.你的学校都有什么地方； 2.这些地方的具体位置在哪里； 3.你通常在这些地方做什么。 要求： 1.根据所给题目，写一篇短文，词数不少于60； 2.语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁； 3.文中不得使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计； 4.请将短文写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 My School ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025—2026学年七年级上学期 英语（RJ）试卷 （考试范围：Starter Units-Unit 3） （全卷四个部分，满分100分，用时：听力口语30分钟；笔试部分120分钟） 注意事项： 1.考生必须在答题卡上解题作答。答案应书写在答题卡的相应位置上，在试卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 2.考试结束后，请将试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力口语（共六节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子选择图片（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听5个句子，每个句子后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。每个句子听两遍。在听每个句子前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目；听完后，你有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。在听到“嘀”的信号后，进入下一小题。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】A 【3题答案】 【答案】A 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】B 第二节 听句子选择答案（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听5个句子，每个句子后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答案。每个句子听两遍。在听每个句子前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目；听完后，你有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。在听到“嘀”的信号后，进入下一小题。 【6题答案】 【答案】C 【7题答案】 【答案】A 【8题答案】 【答案】A 【9题答案】 【答案】B 【10题答案】 【答案】B 第三节 听对话选择答案（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听3段对话，每段对话后有一个或两个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话听两遍。在听每段对话前，你有5秒钟的时间阅读每小题；听完后，每小题你有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。在听到“嘀”的信号后，进入下一小题。 请听对话，回答问题。 【11题答案】 【答案】A 【12~13题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. B 【14~15题答案】 【答案】14. C 15. B 第四节 朗读（共7小题；每个单词0.5分，每个句子1分，满分5分） 按照要求朗读题中所给的4个单词和3个句子。朗读每个单词前，你有5秒钟的准备时间；请在听到录音提示后5秒内完成朗读。朗读每个句子前，你有10秒钟的准备时间；请在听到录音提示后20秒内完成朗读。 16. spell 17. member 18. change 19. important 20. You need to keep your room tidy. 21. Do you often play ping-pong together? 22. What’s special in your classroom? 第五节 日常对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 用日常交际用语对所听到的问题作出回答。每个问题问两遍。在听完每句话后，你将有10秒钟的准备时间；请在听到录音提示后10秒钟内选择括号内正确提示语用英文作出回答。 23.（我的丈夫；来自中国） 24.（一副眼镜；白色的） 25.（崭新的；我爸爸的） 26.（14岁；非常聪明） 27.（在餐厅和体育馆中间；一些书柜） 第六节 情景问答（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据情景提示回答问题，每个情景提示后有1个问题，根据情景提示的内容用英语进行回答。每个问题问两遍。在听完每句话后，你将有10秒钟的准备时间；请在听到录音提示后10秒内完成作答。 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 【16题答案】 【答案】D 【17题答案】 【答案】A 【18题答案】 【答案】C 【19题答案】 【答案】A 【20题答案】 【答案】B 【21题答案】 【答案】C 【22题答案】 【答案】A 【23题答案】 【答案】C 【24题答案】 【答案】A 【25题答案】 【答案】D 第二节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 【26~35题答案】 【答案】26. C 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. B 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. C 第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. F 37. T 38. F 39. T 40. T 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。 A 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. B 42. D 43. A 44. D 45. B B 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. C 47. B 48. D 49. B 50. C C 【51~55题答案】 【答案】51. B 52. A 53. B 54. C 55. C 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 【56~60题答案】 【答案】56. D 57. A 58. B 59. C 60. G 第四部分 写作（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。 【61题答案】 【答案】hobbies 【62题答案】 【答案】really 【63题答案】 【答案】hiking 【64题答案】 【答案】Lucy’s 【65题答案】 【答案】greets 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，à分5分） 将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当的形式，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。 【66题答案】 【答案】full name 【67题答案】 【答案】at night 【68题答案】 【答案】a lot of##lots of 【69题答案】 【答案】does exercises 【70题答案】 【答案】put up 第三节 书面表达（满分10分） 【71题答案】 【答案】例文 My School My school is big and beautiful. There are many places in it. The teaching building is in the middle of the school. We have classes there. The library is on the right. I often read books there after school. The playground is on the left. I like playing basketball with my friends there. The dining hall is behind the teaching building. We have lunch there every day. I love my school very much. Welcome to visit my school! 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $