四川省德阳市中江县2025--2026学年七年级上学期年10月月考英语试卷

2025年秋教学质量监测（一） 七年级英语试卷 说明： 1. 本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷。第Ⅰ卷为选择题，第Ⅱ卷为非选择题。全卷共8页。考生作答时，须将答案答在答题卡上，在本试卷、草稿纸上答题无效，考试结束后，将试卷及答题卡交回。 2. 本试卷满分150分。答题时间为120分钟。 第Ⅰ卷（共105分） 第一部分 听（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听句子，根据所听到的内容选择正确答语。 1. A. Good morning! B. Good afternoon! C. Good evening! 2. A. I’m great! B. Thanks! C. Sit down, please! 3. A. It’s a cap. B. It’s red. C. I have a cap. 4. A. It’s orange. B. That’s cool. C. She has an eraser. 5. A. I’m Ella. B. It’s a dog. C. They are rabbits. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有5秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 6. What can Grace spell? A. Cap. B. Key. C. Orange. 7. What colour is the ruler? A. It’s black. B. It’s brown. C. It’s blue. 8. What is on the desk? A. Linda’s cap. B. Ella’s cap. C. Emma’s keys. 9. What are these? A. Potato plants. B. Tomato plants. C. Apple plants. 10. How many apple trees does the man have? A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven. 第三节（共10 小题；每小题1.5分，共15分） 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读各个小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第11—12两个小题。 11. What colour is the girl’s ruler? A. It’s yellow. B. It’s orange. C. It’s white. 12. Where is the ruler? A. It’s in the desk. B. It’s in the pencil box. C. It’s in the schoolbag. 听下面一段对话，回答第13—15三个小题。 13. Where are the two speakers (说话者)? A. At Peter’s home. B. In Anna’s yard. C. In Peter’s yard. 14. What does Anna see first (首先)? A. A tree. B. Some flowers. C. Some tomato plants. 15. What kind of tree is that over there in the yard? A. An apple tree. B. A pear tree. C. An orange tree. 听下面一段独白，回答第16—20五个小题。 16. How is Helen’s room? A. It’s small but tidy. B. It’s nice and tidy. C. It’s big and tidy. 17. What is under the bed? A. Helen’s basketball. B. Helen’s football. C. Helen’s shoes. 18. What colour is Helen’s desk? A. It’s black. B. It’s white. C. It’s green. 19. Where are Helen’s trousers? A. On the desk. B. On the bed. C. On the chair. 20. Where is Helen’s schoolbag? A. It’s on the chair. B. It’s on the bed. C. It’s on the desk. 第二部分 读（共75分） 第一节 语音（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分） 选出划线部分发音不同的一项。 1. A. wake B. late C. cake D. cat 2. A. dog B. go C. hello D. those 3. A. nine B. bike C. pig D. kite 4. A. yellow B. red C. section D. evening 5. A. use B. cup C. cute D. unit 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分） A 通读下面短文，理解其大意，然后从短文后面各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A: Hi, Peter! The new term (学期) is coming. I have a new ____6____. B: What colour is your schoolbag? A: It’s ____7____. Green is my favourite colour. B: What do you ____8____ in your schoolbag? A: I have an eraser, some pens and books ____9____ it. Do you have a new schoolbag, too? B: Yes. My schoolbag is black. And I have a new bicycle. Look! It’s red. A: It looks ____10____! B: Thank you. 6. A. schoolbag B. pencil C. ruler D. bottle 7. A. black B. brown C. green D. orange 8. A. say B. sit C. have D. need 9. A. on B. in C. under D. of 10. A. nice B. hot C. kind D. new B Good morning, boys and girls. I am from the US. My name is Sally Smith. Sally is my ____11____ name. I can ____12____ it for you, S-A-L-L-Y. Smith is my last name. My Chinese name is Liu Yu. I am 13 years old. I live in ____13____ with my parents now. I like reading books, and I have many ____14____ in my room. I study in No. 1 Middle School in Chengdu. I’m in Class One, Grade Seven. I can ____15____ Chinese very well now. This is Wang Linlin. He is ____16____, too. Wang Linlin and I are good ____17____. We often ____18____ tennis together (一起) after school. We are in the same school, ____19____ in different (不同的) classes. Ms Gao is our English teacher. She can sing (唱) many beautiful ____20____ songs (歌曲) in class. She is fun (有趣的) and nice. All students in my class like her. 11. A. first B. last C. full D. family 12. A. circle B. meet C. spell D. call 13. A. the UK B. the US C. Singapore D. China 14. A. books B. desks C. pens D. rulers 15. A. make B. speak C. thank D. sing 16. A. twelve B. thirteen C. fourteen D. fifteen 17. A. sisters B. brothers C. friends D. classmates 18. A. play B. think C. wait D. write 19. A. but B. and C. also D. or 20. A. Chinese B. Japanese C. French D. English 第三节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分） 阅读下面四篇短文，根据短文内容从所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Hi, I am Emma. I have a new pencil. It’s a yellow pencil. Look, it is on my desk. I’m Helen. This is my eraser. It’s white and blue. I put it in my schoolbag. My name is Peter. This is a red and white cap. It’s from my friend Teng Fei. I like it. It’s on my head. This is a schoolbag. It’s on the chair. My name, Bob, is on it. My schoolbag is brown. My favorite colour is brown. 21. Where is Emma’s pencil? A. It’s on her desk. B. It’s on her bed. C. It’s on her chair. D. It’s in her schoolbag. 22. Who is Teng Fei’s friend? A. Bob. B. Peter. C. Helen. D. Emma. 23. What’s Bob’s favorite colour? A. Red. B. White. C. Yellow. D. Brown. B This is Mike. He is my good friend. He is from the US. He is thirteen years old. He is in Class Eight, Grade Seven. And I’m thirteen, too, but I’m in Class Seven, Grade Seven. Who’s the boy? He is my friend, too. His name is Steve. He is eleven. He is in Class Seven, Grade Seven. Ms Wang is my English teacher. She is in Nanjing now. She is good. How old is she? Can you guess her age? 24. Where is Mike from? A. China. B. England. C. Canada. D. the US. 25. How old is Mike? A. 11. B. 12. C. 13. D. 14. 26. Who teaches me English? A. Mike. B. Steve. C. Ms Wang. D. Mr Wang. 27. Which (哪一个) one is true (正确的)? A. Ms Wang isn’t in China now. B. Ms Wang is twenty years old. C. Mike and Steve are my friends. D. Steve and I aren’t in the same class. C “Mom, I can’t find my shoes.” “Dad, I can’t find my schoolbag.” “Linda, do you see my keys?” Sam’s things are everywhere (到处). He often asks (询问) his family for help. Now it is 11:30 in the morning. Sam can’t find his English book. He must find it for the English class in the afternoon. It is not in his schoolbag. “Do you see my English book?” Sam asks his sister Linda. “No, but I found a white ruler.” She says. “What about you, dad?” Sam asks his father. “No, but I found a black pen. Is it your pen?” “Yes, it is. Thank you.” Sam says. Sam can’t find his English book. He is sad. “Sam, here is your English book.” Mom says. “You must be careful (细心的) next time.” “I see, Mom. I will take good care of my things.” Sam says. 28. How many people are there in Sam’s family? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six. 29. Which picture can show the meaning (意思) of the underlined word “sad”? A. B. C. D. 30. Who found the English book? A. Linda. B. Sam. C. Sam’s mom. D. Sam’s dad. 31. What can we know about Sam? A. He has a brother. B. He doesn’t like English class. C. His room is not tidy. D. He has an English class in the morning. D Welcome to my grandpa’s yard, my friends! It’s very beautiful, right? Let me show you around. Look! My grandpa is at the door. He wants to sit on the chair. The fun things in the yard are the animals. What are these? They are white chickens. What are those? They aren’t ducks. They’re white geese. A goose is bigger than (比……更大) a duck. We can see a dog, too. It’s yellow. Its name is Dahuang. And can you see a black cat? It’s under my grandpa’s chair. Look at these plants! They are apple trees. No apples are on them. It’s spring (春天) now. Many rabbits are under the trees. How many rabbits does my grandpa have? Let’s count. One, two, three... eleven rabbits. They are white. Oh, no! I see two black rabbits near (在……附近) Dahuang. And what are these? They are carrot plants and tomato plants. And those are potato plants. 32. What does my grandpa have? A. A beautiful yard. B. A white duck. C. A yellow cat. D. A yellow goose. 33. Where is my grandpa? A. He is in the house. B. He is at the door. C. He is on the chair. D. He is in his room. 34. How many kinds of plants can you see? A. Four. B. Five. C. Six. D. Seven. 35. Which one is true? A. It’s very cold in spring. B. My grandpa has 4 kinds of animals. C. My grandpa has 13 rabbits in the yard. D. My grandpa has many apples on the apple trees. 第四节 短文填空（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分） 根据短文内容，从短文后A~F选项中，选出5个适当的选项补全短文。 Dear Mom and Dad, How are you at home in the UK? I’m fine in Beijing. ____36____ Now I have a Chinese name Wang Tao. Do you like it? I’m in Class Four, Grade Seven now. I like the classes in my school, and my classmates are all nice to me. ____37____ One is a girl, Li Mei. And the other is a boy, Li Kang. They are Chinese. ____38____ Li Kang likes blue best. His things in his room are all blue. Li Mei is a nice girl. ____39____ She has a red schoolbag and she is often in a red skirt. Li Kang and Li Mei often help me with my Chinese. ____40____ I’m happy to have good friends like them. We are happy at school. Yours, John A. They come from the same family. B. Her favourite colour is red. C. And I like China very much. D. Now I can speak some Chinese. E. So Chinese is difficult (困难的) for me. F. I have two friends in my class. 第Ⅱ卷（共45分） 第三部分 写（共三节，满分45分） 第一节 信息摘要（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分） 根据短文内容，完成图表中所缺信息。 Good morning! I’m Maria Miller. Maria is my first name and Miller is my last name. I’m 14 years old. I’m an English girl, but now I’m in Shanghai, China. I’m in Shanghai No.2 Middle School. I have a pet rabbit. His name is White. He is very cute. My favorite food is “eight treasure duck”. It’s great. I’m interested in Chinese music. I can play the erhu. Now I’m in the school band. This is my friend. Her name is Guo Xin, and she is 13. She is in Shanghai No.2 Middle School, too. About food, she likes hot pot best. She doesn’t have a pet, because her mom doesn’t allow (允许) her to keep one. She likes playing sport. She can play different (不同的) kinds of sport very well. Guo Xin and I have different hobbies, but we still have a lot to talk (谈论) about. We always share (分享) what we see and know with each other. Some ____41____ About Maria and Her Friend ____42____ Maria Miller Guo Xin Age 14 13 Country England ____43____ Pet A rabbit named White Favorite Food Eight treasure duck Hot pot Hobby Chinese music (She can play the erhu) ____44____ (She is good at playing it.) Inference (推断) Maria and Guo Xin are in the ____45____ school. Maria thinks friends could be different. 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题 1.5分，共15 分） 阅读下面短文，根据语境在空白处填入一个适当的词或用所给单词的提示，填写其正确形式，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。 Hello, everyone. My name ____46____ (be) Peter Brown. Peter is my ____47____ (one) name. I’m 14 ____48____ (year) old. I am ____49____ English boy, ____50____ I live in China with my ____51____ (parent) now. I really love China. I think it is one of the greatest countries in the world. I also enjoy all kinds of food here, like mapo tofu and hot pot. I have a pet dog. ____52____ (it) name is Wangwang. I often give some delicious food to my dog. My favourite sport is tennis. I often play it ____53____ my classmates after school. My best friend ____54____ (John) hobby is playing the guitar. He is in our school band. He loves music so much. We always help each other. Would you like to ____55____ (be) our friend? 第三节 书面表达（共25分） 56. 假如你是Tom，13岁。请根据以下图片提示，介绍你的房间。 要求： 1. 请先介绍自己，再根据自己的喜好，描述物品的颜色，然后根据图片描述物品的位置； 2. 必须至少描述图片中所包含的五个物品，可适当发挥； 3. 文中不得出现真实人名、校名或地名； 4. 语句通顺，意思连贯，语法正确，书写规范。 5. 词数60词左右。 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025年秋教学质量监测（一） 七年级英语试卷 说明： 1. 本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷。第Ⅰ卷为选择题，第Ⅱ卷为非选择题。全卷共8页。考生作答时，须将答案答在答题卡上，在本试卷、草稿纸上答题无效，考试结束后，将试卷及答题卡交回。 2. 本试卷满分150分。答题时间为120分钟。 第Ⅰ卷（共105分） 第一部分 听（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听句子，根据所听到的内容选择正确答语。 1. A. Good morning! B. Good afternoon! C. Good evening! 2. A. I’m great! B. Thanks! C. Sit down, please! 3. A. It’s a cap. B. It’s red. C. I have a cap. 4. A. It’s orange. B. That’s cool. C. She has an eraser. 5. A. I’m Ella. B. It’s a dog. C. They are rabbits. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有5秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 6. What can Grace spell? A. Cap. B. Key. C. Orange. 7. What colour is the ruler? A. It’s black. B. It’s brown. C. It’s blue. 8. What is on the desk? A. Linda’s cap. B. Ella’s cap. C. Emma’s keys. 9. What are these? A. Potato plants. B. Tomato plants. C. Apple plants. 10. How many apple trees does the man have? A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven. 第三节（共10 小题；每小题1.5分，共15分） 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读各个小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第11—12两个小题。 11. What colour is the girl’s ruler? A. It’s yellow. B. It’s orange. C. It’s white. 12. Where is the ruler? A. It’s in the desk. B. It’s in the pencil box. C. It’s in the schoolbag. 听下面一段对话，回答第13—15三个小题。 13. Where are the two speakers (说话者)? A. At Peter’s home. B. In Anna’s yard. C. In Peter’s yard. 14. What does Anna see first (首先)? A. A tree. B. Some flowers. C. Some tomato plants. 15. What kind of tree is that over there in the yard? A. An apple tree. B. A pear tree. C. An orange tree. 听下面一段独白，回答第16—20五个小题。 16. How is Helen’s room? A. It’s small but tidy. B. It’s nice and tidy. C. It’s big and tidy. 17. What is under the bed? A. Helen’s basketball. B. Helen’s football. C. Helen’s shoes. 18. What colour is Helen’s desk? A. It’s black. B. It’s white. C. It’s green. 19. Where are Helen’s trousers? A. On the desk. B. On the bed. C. On the chair. 20. Where is Helen’s schoolbag? A. It’s on the chair. B. It’s on the bed. C. It’s on the desk. 第二部分 读（共75分） 第一节 语音（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分） 【1~5题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分） A 【6~10题答案】 【答案】6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A B 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. D 第三节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分） 阅读下面四篇短文，根据短文内容从所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. B 23. D B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. D 25. C 26. C 27. C C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. B 29. A 30. C 31. C D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. A 33. B 34. A 35. C 第四节 短文填空（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分） 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. C 37. F 38. A 39. B 40. D 第Ⅱ卷（共45分） 第三部分 写（共三节，满分45分） 第一节 信息摘要（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分） 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. information 42. Name##Full Name 43. China 44. Sport 45. same 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题 1.5分，共15 分） 【46~55题答案】 【答案】46. is 47. first 48. years 49. an 50. but 51. parents 52. Its 53. with 54. John’s 55. be 第三节 书面表达（共25分） 【56题答案】 【答案】例文 My Room My name is Tom and I am 13. This is my tidy room. My bed is white and my cap is grey. The cap is on the bed. My black schoolbag is on the floor next to the bed. There is a brown desk near the window. Some books are on the desk and a football is under the chair. I like my clean room very much. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $2025年秋教学质量监测（一) 七年级英语试卷答题卡 缺考标志：[]（考生严禁填涂，监考教师填涂） 准考证号 学校 姓名 1.答题前，考生先将自己的学校、姓名和准考证号填写清楚。 注 2.考生作答时，请将答案写在答题卡上，并按照题号在各题的答题区域内作 意 答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效。 事 3.选择题须用2B铅笔规范填涂；非选择题使用0.5毫米的黑色中性（签字） 贴条形码区域 项 笔或碳素笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚。注意选择题题号对应填涂。 4.保持卡面清洁，不折叠、不破损。监测结束后，将答题卡交回。 选择题（考生须用2B铅笔填涂） 1 [A][B][C] 6[A][B][C] 11[A][B][C] 16[A][B][C] 2 [A][B][C] 7[A][B][C] 12[A][B][C] 17[A][B][C] 3 [A] [B] [c] 8 [A][B][C] 13[A][B][C] 18[A][B][C 4[A][B] [c] 9[A][B][C] 14[A][B][C] 19[A][B][C] 5[A] [B] [c] 1O[A][B][C] 15[A][B][C] 20[A][B][C] 21[A]B] [C][D] 26[A][B][C][D] 31[A][B][C][D] 36[A][B][C] [D] 22[A] [B][C][D] 27[A][B][C][D] 32[A][B][C][D] 37[A][B][C] [D] 23[A][B] c [D] 28[A][B][C][D] 33[A][B][C][D] 38[A][B][C] [D] 24[A][B] c][D] 29[A][B][C][D] 34[A][B][C][D] 39[A][B][C] [D] 25[A] [B] [c] [D] 30[A][B][C][D] 35[A][B][C][D] 40[A][B] [c] [D] 41[A] [B] [c] [D] 46[A][B][C][D] 51[A][B][C][D] 56[A][B] [c] [D][E][F] 42[A][B] [c][D] 47[A][B][C][D] 52[A][B][C][D] 57[A][B] [C][D][E][F] 43[A] CB][C][D] 48[A][B][C][D] 53[A][B][C][D] 58[A][B] [C] [D] [E][F] 44[A][B][C][D] 49[A][B][C][D] 54[A][B][C][D] 59[A][B][C][D][E][FJ 45[A][B][C][D] 50[AJ[B][C][D] 55[A][B][C][D] 60[A][B][C][D][E][F] 非选择题（考生须用0,5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔书写） 第一节 信息摘要（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分) 61 62. 63. 64. 65. 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分） 66 67 68. 69. 70. 72 73. 74. 75 请勿在此区域内作答 第三节书面表达（共25分）